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WorksheetsY10 End of Year Review
Total questions: 220
Worksheet time: 3hrs 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The reactants of photosynthesis are
a)
sugar and water.
b)
sugar and oxygen.
c)
carbon dioxide and water.
d)
carbon dioxide and oxygen.
2.
Which statement about photosynthesis is correct?
a)
Plants get the energy they need for photosynthesis from water.
b)
Plants get the energy they need for photosynthesis from soil.
c)
Plants get the energy they need for photosynthesis from sunlight.
d)
Plants do not require energy to perform photosynthesis.
3.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
Carbon dioxide and water
b)
Carbon dioxide and oxygen
c)
Glucose and oxygen
d)
Glucose and water
4.
What pigment absorbs sunlight for photosynthesis?
a)
chloroplast
b)
thylakoid
c)
grana
d)
chlorophyll
5.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
6CO2 + 6H2O --> 6O2 + C6H12O6
b)
6CO2 + C6H12O6 + 6H2O --> O2
c)
6O2 + 6H2O --> 6CO2 + C6H12O6
d)
C6H12O6 + 6O2 ---> 6H2O + 6CO2
6.
Which gas is removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis?
a)
hydrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
nitrogen
d)
carbon dioxide
7.
Which of the following best describes photosynthesis?
a)
Photosynthesis converts radiant energy into chemical energy.
b)
Photosynthesis produces carbohydrates.
c)
Plants need sunlight, carbon dioxide, water, nutrients, and chlorophyll to complete photosynthesis.
d)
Plants use chlorophyll, water, and carbon dioxide to make sugar.
8.
In which organelle does photosynthesis occur?
a)
mitochondria
b)
stomata
c)
xylem
d)
chloroplast
9.
Which of the following is considered a waste product of photosynthesis?
a)
glucose
b)
oxygen
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
sunlight
10.
Animal cells do not have chloroplasts.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
11.
How would light intensity generally affect the rate of photosynthesis?
a)
Increases the rate, up to a point
b)
Increases the rate
c)
Decreases the rate
d)
No relationship to the rate
12.
How would the concentration of CO2 in water affect photosynthesis?
a)
The higher the CO2, the greater the rate
b)
The higher the CO2, the lower the rate
c)
CO2 concentration doesn't affect photosynthesis
d)
a greater rate of photosynthesis causes higher CO2 concentrations
13.
If we enclosed a plant in an air-proof bottle, what would happen to the rate of photosynthesis
a)
Gradually slow down to zero because CO2 is used up
b)
Shows a constant rate as long as the light remains on
c)
Gradually speeds up because O2 builds up
d)
Gradually slows down because glucose builds up
14.
What is the relationship between distance and the rate of photosynthesis?
a)
inverse square
b)
proportional
c)
inverse proportional
d)
square
15.
Conclusion?
a)
Beyond 500 umol/l CO2, the rate of photosynthesis does not increase
b)
The rate of photosynthesis increases with CO2 concentration
c)
After a while, CO2 production plateaus in photosynthesis
d)
The rate of photosynthesis never exceeds 10 umol O2 / m2 / s
16.
Energy produced through respiration using oxygen is called _____ respiration
a)
aerobic
b)
anaerobic
17.
Energy produced through respiration when oxygen is NOT used is called ____ respiration.
a)
aerobic
b)
anaerobic
18.
What is one of the reactants of cellular respiration?
a)
energy
b)
glucose
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
water
19.
What happens to your breathing rate when you exercise?
a)
It increases
b)
It decreases
c)
It stays the same
20.
Which organ excretes carbon dioxide?
a)
Lungs
b)
Liver
c)
Heart
d)
Kidney
21.
What are the products of aerobic respiration?
a)
Glucose and oxygen
b)
Carbon dioxide and water
c)
Lactic acid
d)
Carbon monoxide
22.
The mitochondria is responsible for ...
a)
photosynthesis
b)
anaerobic respiration
c)
aerobic respiration
d)
fermentation
23.
In which way are photosynthesis and cellular respiration different?
a)
Cellular respiration stores ATP, while photosynthesis releases ATP.
b)
Cellular respiration produces oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen.
c)
Photosynthesis releases energy, while cellular respiration stores energy.
d)
Photosynthesis used carbon dioxide, while cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide.
24.
Which of the following structure is where cellular respiration occurs in the cell?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
mitochondria
d)
vacuoles
25.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
26.
Anaerobic respiration.....
a)
doesn't require CO2
b)
requires CO2
c)
doesn't require oxygen
d)
requires oxygen
27.
Where does anaerobic respiration occur?
a)
glucose molecule
b)
mitochondria
c)
cytoplasm
28.
Why is yeast used to bake bread?
a)
The waste gas, CO2, makes bread rise
b)
The alcohol produced makes bread dangerous
c)
The yeast consumes O2, causing bread to rise
29.
When animals exercise with a lack of oxygen their muscles can form
a)
lactic acid
b)
alcohol
c)
minions
d)
oxygen
30.
What are all of the chemical reactions that occur within an
organism referred to?
organism referred to?
a)
Enzymes
b)
Macromolecules
c)
Metabolism
d)
Activation Energy
31.
If the environment gets cold, we will often shiver in order to:
a)
keep body temperature the same as the external temperature
b)
decrease body temperature
c)
increase body temperature
d)
regulate blood pressure
32.
Homeostasis in the human body is often maintained by a:
a)
neutral feedback loop
b)
solar feedback loop
c)
positive feedback loop
d)
negative feedback loop
33.
The maintenance of an organism’s internal environment is called:
a)
compensating
b)
homeostasis
c)
balancing
d)
routine
34.
The "cause" for something to happen is the
a)
response
b)
effect
c)
stimulus
d)
homeostasis
35.
a body system that controls and coordinates all body activities through electric impulses/messages between brain, spinal cord and nerves.
a)
endocrine system
b)
nervous system
c)
nerve
d)
neuron
36.
brain cell /
nerve cell
nerve cell
a)
Dr. Suess tree
b)
neuron
c)
skin cell
d)
red blood cell
37.
a body system that controls growth and homeostasis by secreting hormones from glands.
a)
skeletal system
b)
nervous system
c)
endocrine sytem
d)
integumentary system
38.
organ of the endocrine system that secretes hormones.
a)
heart
b)
gland
c)
brain
d)
skin
39.
chemical made by glands that tell cells to make something or respond in some way.
a)
acid
b)
enzyme
c)
perspiration
d)
hormone
40.
When a threatening situation appears, what is the name of the instinctive mechanism used by animals to protect themselves?
a)
Flight or Run
b)
Hide and Seek
c)
Fight or Flight
d)
Run and Fight
41.
What two things are found in the central nervous system?
a)
brain/spinal cord
b)
spinal cord/motor neurons
c)
motor/sensory neurons
d)
only brain
42.
Which of the TWO nervous systems contains motor and sensory neurons?
a)
central nervous system
b)
peripheral
c)
motor
d)
sensory
43.
The spinal cord is protected by the _____?
a)
vertebrae
b)
skull
c)
lungs
d)
rib cage
44.
The impulse changes to _______________ as it moves ACROSS the synapse to other neurons.
a)
electrical
b)
chemical
c)
it stays the same
d)
liquid
45.
If I step on a nail...what type of neuron take that signal TO the CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM?
a)
interneurons
b)
motor
c)
sensory
d)
receptors
46.
If I step on a nail...what type of neurons take the response to my muscles?
a)
motor
b)
interneurons
c)
sensory
d)
not neurons, muscle tissue sends the response
47.
Where in your body can you find nerve cells?
a)
brain
b)
spinal cord
c)
neurons
d)
everywhere
48.
Neurons send signals in the brain and body via...
a)
neurotransmitters only
b)
electrical impulses only
c)
wifi
d)
neurotransmitters AND electrical signals
49.
TRUE or FALSE: All nerves are the same and do the same things
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
50.
Sensory neurons are involved with
a)
all 5 senses
b)
sense of touch only
c)
involuntary movement
d)
all movment
51.
An example of involuntary movement would be:
a)
heart beating
b)
walking
c)
talking
d)
wiggling toes
52.
An example of voluntary movement would be:
a)
smiling
b)
heart beat
c)
digestion
d)
breathing
53.
What is the evaporation of a liquid to cool the body?
a)
Shivering
b)
Sweating
c)
Vasodilation
d)
Vasoconstriction
54.
Which of the following allows the human body to maintain stability in response to cold temperatures?
a)
blood vessels constricting
b)
sleeping more
c)
breathing more deeply
55.
What is released by the pancreas when blood sugar is low?
a)
glucose
b)
glucagon
c)
insulin
d)
glycogen
56.
What is this type of feedback?
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
infinity
d)
a figure 8
57.
This type of feedback.
a)
circular
b)
negative
c)
positive
d)
oscillating
58.
Lifestyle choices that prevent Type 2 diabetes.
I. Eating a diet high in fat
II. Eating a diet high in protein and low in carbs
III. Drinking diet pop
IV. Exercise
V. Eating foods high in fiber
I. Eating a diet high in fat
II. Eating a diet high in protein and low in carbs
III. Drinking diet pop
IV. Exercise
V. Eating foods high in fiber
a)
II and V
b)
I, II, III, IV, and V
c)
II, IV, and V
d)
I, III
59.
Type of diabetes that would show really high sugar levels in the blood if the disease is not managed.
a)
Type 1
b)
Type 2
60.
Identify symptoms associated with Type I Diabetes
I. Weight gain
II. Decreased urination
III. Feeling hungry
IV. Feeling thirsty
V. Weight loss
VI. Hyperactivity
I. Weight gain
II. Decreased urination
III. Feeling hungry
IV. Feeling thirsty
V. Weight loss
VI. Hyperactivity
a)
All of these
b)
I, III, V, VI
c)
III, IV, and V
d)
II, IV, VI
61.
Out of the following, this is a treatment for Type 1 diabetes.
I. A diet low in carbs
II. Exercise
III. Insulin
IV. Anti-viral drugs
V. Warmer climates
I. A diet low in carbs
II. Exercise
III. Insulin
IV. Anti-viral drugs
V. Warmer climates
a)
All of these
b)
I, II, III, and V
c)
III
d)
III and V
62.
Symptoms--
Elevated blood pressure
Continual slightly elevated blood sugar
Hard to lose weight
Always hungry
Based on only these, diagnose this patient
Elevated blood pressure
Continual slightly elevated blood sugar
Hard to lose weight
Always hungry
Based on only these, diagnose this patient
a)
Normal
b)
Type I
c)
Type II
63.
What two hormones does the pituitary gland produce?
a)
Oestrogen & Progesterone
b)
FSH & LH
64.
What is responsible for creating the hormones Oestrogen & progesterone?
a)
The Pituitary gland
b)
The Hypothalamus
c)
The ovaries
d)
The Fallopian Tubes
65.
What hormone(s) is responsible for the development of the secondary sex characteristics in females, and plays a role in menstruation and pregnancy?
a)
Oestrogen
b)
progesterone
c)
FSH & LH
d)
FSH only
66.
What hormone(s) is responsible for thickening the lining of the uterus?
a)
Oestrogen
b)
progesterone
c)
FSH & LH
d)
LH only
67.
After conception, where does the embryo/fetus develop?
a)
vagina
b)
fallopian tubes
c)
uterus
d)
ovaries
68.
The menstrual cycle repeats every?
a)
Month
b)
28 days
c)
Week
d)
Year
69.
Ovulation phase typically occurs on what day of the cycle?
a)
1
b)
14
c)
20
d)
7
70.
Which hormone causes the egg to ripen in the ovary?
a)
Progesterone
b)
FSH
c)
Oestrogen
d)
Testosterone
71.
Which hormone spikes and consequently causes the release of the ova into the uterus?
a)
LH
b)
FSH
c)
Oestrogen
d)
Progesterone
72.
What is a hormone?
a)
A Chemical messanger
b)
A biological messenger
c)
A physical messenger
d)
Mr Casey's Pet
73.
Testosterone is
a)
The main sex hormone in humans
b)
The main sex hormone in females
c)
the main sex hormone in animals
d)
The main reproductive hormone in males
74.
Luteinising Hormones main role is to
a)
release the egg cell
b)
promote the growth of the egg cell
c)
destroy the egg cell
d)
ingest the egg cell
75.
What hormone does the adrenal gland release?
a)
Oestrogen
b)
Testosterone
c)
Adrenalin
d)
Progesterone
76.
What does ovulation mean?
a)
A sperm is released
b)
The lining of the uterus breaks down
c)
An egg is released
d)
Menstruation occurs
77.
A type of contraceptive used to prevent pregnancy AND STI's.
a)
the pill
b)
the shot
c)
male condom
d)
withdrawal method
78.
The BEST way to prevent against pregnancy and STI's for sexually active individuals.
a)
combining a condom and the pill
b)
combining a male condom with a female condom
c)
using two condoms at one time
d)
the pill and pull out method
79.
A type of hormonal birth control taken daily.
a)
pill
b)
patch
c)
ring
d)
implant
80.
A type of hormonal birth control changed once a week for three weeks.
a)
pill
b)
patch
c)
ring
d)
implant
81.
A type of hormonal birth control inserted by a woman for three weeks before removing.
a)
pill
b)
patch
c)
ring
d)
implant
82.
A surgical procedure for men to prevent sperm from entering the ejaculatory fluids.
a)
vasectomy
b)
tubal ligation
c)
implant
d)
IUD
83.
The purpose of a contraceptive is to
a)
prevent pregnancy
b)
prevent the spread of STI's
c)
prevent the spread of HIV/AIDS
d)
all of the above
84.
Viral STI's can be treated but not cured.
a)
True
b)
False
85.
Bacterial STI's can be treated but not cured.
a)
True
b)
False
86.
HIV is spread through which bodily fluid?
a)
Breast Milk
b)
Blood
c)
Semen
d)
All of the above
87.
This method is put in the vagina.
a)
IUD
b)
patch
c)
Depo- Provera
d)
female condom
88.
What does spermicide do?
a)
lubricate
b)
make more sperm
c)
kills sperm
89.
What is the term for the process where an egg is fertilised in a petri dish?
a)
IVF
b)
INF
c)
Test Tube Fertilisation (TTF)
d)
AIH
90.
If the man is infertile:
a)
you can use a sperm donor
b)
you have to give up
c)
you have lots of IVF
d)
you use a surrogate
91.
Jelly-like substance found inside cell that acts as a medium for chemical reactions within the cell
a)
Nuclear Membrane
b)
Golgi Body
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Ribosome
92.
"powerhouse of the cell" breaks down sugar molecules to release energy, site of cellular respiration, double membrane, self-replicating, contains own DNA, cristae
a)
Mitochondria
b)
Chloroplast
c)
Cell Wall
d)
Vesicle
93.
"Storage tanks" Can hold food, water or waste for the cell
a)
Ribosomes
b)
Vacuole
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Nucleolus
94.
"Gatekeeper" Separates the cell from the rest of the environment and helps control what passes in and out of the cell. Semi-permeable: allows some materials to pass through but not all
a)
Cell Wall
b)
Cytoplasm
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Cell Membrane
95.
Rigid outer layer made of cellulose that supports and protects the cell (plant, fungi, and bacterial cells)
a)
Nucleolus
b)
Golgi Body
c)
Cell Wall
d)
Cytoskeleton
96.
The organelle that uses the energy of sunlight to make food for the cell.
a)
Chloroplast
b)
Ribosome
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Nucleus
97.
Contains the Cell's DNA and is a part of the processes of growth, metabolism, and reproduction.
a)
Downy
b)
Nucleus
c)
Cell Wall
d)
Golgi Complex
98.
A group of tissues that work together
a)
Organ
b)
Tissue
c)
Cell
d)
Steak
99.
A group of similar cells that work together
a)
Molecule
b)
Tissue
c)
Organ
d)
Cell
100.
An organelle that makes proteins for a cell
a)
Nucleus
b)
Golgi Body
c)
Ribosome
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
101.
Which letter is the vacuole?
a)
E
b)
F
c)
G
d)
I
102.
"I" is which organelle?
a)
chloroplast
b)
cytoplasm
c)
mitochondria
d)
golgi
103.
Which organelle is found in a plant cell and NOT an animal cell?
a)
vacuole
b)
lysosome
c)
cell wall
d)
cell membrane
104.
How does the cardiovascular system and the respiratory system work together?
a)
The cardiovascular system transports oxygen around the body while the repiratory system gives the body oxygen
b)
The cardiovascular system makes cells while the respiratory system moves them where they are suppose to go.
c)
The cardiovascular system allows the body to have energy while the repiratory system makes cells
d)
The cardiovascular system transports nutrients around the body while the respiratory system brings oxygen into the body
105.
What cell part is NOT found in all cells?
a)
Cell Wall
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Genetic Material
106.
The picture below is an example of _________________.
a)
osmosis
b)
isotonic
c)
diffusion
d)
active transport
107.
Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.
a)
food
b)
energy
c)
oxygen
d)
water
108.
Permeable means
a)
things can pass through
b)
the concentration levels are different
c)
it is permanent
d)
things are stuck
109.
What a cell needs to transport particles by active transport?
a)
Sun
b)
Wind
c)
Energy
d)
Channels
110.
A person would never have pure water put into their veins in a hospital because their cells would...
a)
Shrink/Dehydrate
b)
Expand
111.
A person should never drink salty water because their cells would
a)
shrink
b)
expand
112.
If there is 5 percent water inside a cell and 5 percent water outside a cell
a)
more water will move inside the cell
b)
more water will move outside the cell
c)
There will be no movement of water cells
113.
The movement of molecules against a concentration gradient
a)
simple diffusion
b)
facilitated diffusion
c)
active transport
d)
osmosis
114.
The picture is an example of...
a)
active tranport
b)
passive transport
c)
diffusion
d)
osmosis
115.
What do antibiotics cure?
a)
bacteria
b)
virus
c)
parasite
d)
fungus
116.
Which pathogen needs a host cell to reproduce?
a)
virus
b)
bacteria
c)
fungus
d)
parasite
117.
Which pathogen is most likely to look like a worm or insect?
a)
Virus
b)
Bacteria
c)
Fungi
d)
Protist
118.
Which pathogen can be prevented with vaccines
a)
Virus
b)
Bacteria
c)
Fungi
d)
All of them
119.
Which pathogen reproduces using binary fission (Asexual Reproduction)?
a)
Virus
b)
Bacteria
c)
Fungi
d)
Parasite
120.
This is the word for a disease causing organism.
a)
Phagocyte
b)
Pathogen
c)
Pandemic
121.
Which best explains how a nonliving virus is able to reproduce?
a)
A virus becomes living when in contact with a host organism.
b)
A virus infects a host organism by injecting its DNA into the cells of the host organism.
c)
A virus infects a host organism by pulling the DNA from the cells of the host organism into itself.
d)
A virus becomes living when a sufficient number of viruses invade a host organism and cause an infection.
122.
Which best distinguishes an infectious disease from a noninfectious disease?
a)
Infectious diseases can be cured with antibiotics; noninfectious diseases cannot.
b)
Infectious diseases can be prevented with vaccines; noninfectious diseases cannot.
c)
Infectious diseases can be spread from one organism to another; noninfectious diseases cannot.
d)
Infectious diseases cannot be transmitted from one organism to another; noninfectious diseases can.
123.
What is a major difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a)
Eukaryotic cells are multicellular and Prokaryotic cells are unicellular.
b)
Eukaryotic cells have been on earth longer than Prokaryotic cells.
c)
Prokaryotic cells do not have a nucleus or membrane bound organelles
d)
Prokaryotic cells are bacteria and viruses that make you sick.
124.
Which of the following is not a kind of pathogen?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Protists
c)
Mosquitoes
d)
Fungi
125.
Athlete's foot is an example of this pathogen
a)
Bacteria
b)
Virus
c)
Fungus
d)
Protozoan
126.
Which is not an infectious disease?
a)
Malaria
b)
diabetes
c)
food poisoning
d)
measles
127.
Cause of common cold and flu.
a)
Viruses
b)
Bacteria
c)
Reaction by the body to substances
128.
a single-celled organism that lacks a nucleus is called
a)
a bacteriophage
b)
a virus
c)
a protist
d)
bacteria
129.
Which of the following would be considered an epidemic?
a)
Ebola spreading through the United States and Europe.
b)
An outbreak of the flu at Coulwood.
c)
Malaria cases in Africa and South America.
d)
The Bubonic Plague spreading through Europe and Asia.
130.
What specialized agency of the United Nations that is concerned with international public health?
a)
Environmental Protection Agency
b)
Centers for Disease Control
c)
World Health Organization
d)
The American Red Cross
131.
Which of the following is the best example of direct contact?
a)
Sneezing in your hand and then touching a door knob.
b)
Coughing in a room without covering your mouth.
c)
Spitting in your hand and then shaking someone else's hand.
d)
Eating under-cooked chicken that's been exposed to salmonella
132.
The amount of people who have been affected with measles has drastically reduced over the years. Which statement best explains why this is possible?
a)
Use of antibiotics
b)
Introduction and use of vaccines
c)
People are living healthier lives
d)
Living environments are cleaner today
133.
How are monoclonal antibodies produced?
a)
Taken from bone marrow
b)
From a clone of a single cell
c)
From an embryo
d)
All of the above
134.
What are antibodies made of?
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Protein
c)
Polysacchiaride
d)
Lipid
135.
Most of the chloroplast cells are found in the
a)
upper epidermis
b)
pallisade mesophyll layer
c)
lower epidermis
d)
stomata
136.
The water needed for photosynthesis comes into the leaves through the
a)
upper epidermis
b)
stomata
c)
guard cells
d)
xylem cells
137.
The water needed for photosynthesis comes into the leaves through the
a)
upper epidermis
b)
stomata
c)
guard cells
d)
xylem cells
138.
The important gases, carbon dioxide and oxygen, enter and leave the leaf through the
a)
upper epidermis
b)
phloem
c)
stomata
d)
guard cells
139.
The role of the guard cell is to
a)
help control the temperature of the plant
b)
control how much water enters the leaf
c)
control how much glucose is stored
d)
control the movement of water vapour & gases
140.
Sugar and the products of photosynthesis move through the plant in
a)
the phloem cells
b)
the xylem cells
c)
the root hair cells
d)
palisade mesophyll layer
141.
How many daughter cells are produced in mitosis?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
4
d)
6
142.
How many chromosomes does a human cell have?
a)
42
b)
46
c)
24
d)
64
143.
Cells of organism must replicate for ?
a)
growth
b)
repair of damaged cells
c)
replacement of dying cells.
d)
All of the above
144.
How many cells are created at the end of Mitosis?
a)
1 diploid cell
b)
2 diploid cells
c)
3 diploid cells
d)
4 diploid cells
145.
The dark "spider" looking things on opposite sides of the cell are called "Spindle Fibers". What is their job?
a)
Eating the chromosomes
b)
Pulling the chromosomes apart
c)
Putting the chromosomes together
146.
What do capillaries, the smallest blood vessels, do?
a)
Exchange O2 only
b)
Exchange CO2 only
c)
exchange nutrients and oxygen for waste
d)
break down foods
147.
What are the 4 components of blood?
a)
White blood cells, Platelets, bone marrow, and oxygen
b)
Plasma, Platelets, yellow blood cells, and nutrients
c)
Plasma, White blood cells, red blood cells, and Platelets
d)
Platelets, Red blood cells
148.
Where does blood go after the right atrium?
a)
left atrium
b)
left ventricle
c)
right ventricle
d)
aorta
149.
Where does the blood go after it goes into the pulmonary arteries?
a)
lungs
b)
heart
c)
head
d)
hands
150.
Which blood vessels carry blood to the heart?
a)
Aorta
b)
veins
c)
arteries
d)
arterioles
151.
Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?
a)
capillaries
b)
veins
c)
arteries
152.
2?
a)
Heart
b)
Right Ventricle
c)
Left Atrium
d)
Left Ventricle
153.
7?
a)
Left Atrium
b)
Left Ventricle
c)
Aortic Valve
154.
A flap of tissue that prevents blood from flowing backward
a)
Aorta
b)
Atrium
c)
Septum
d)
Valve
155.
Valves in veins
a)
make the use of a skeletal muscle pump unnecessary for venous blood flow
b)
are the leading cause of high blood pressure.
c)
cause venous blood flow to go in only one direction
d)
are formed of the tunica media
156.
These have muscular walls:
a)
capillaries
b)
veins
c)
venules
d)
arteries
157.
Supply the heart.
a)
Phrenic arteries
b)
Thoracic aorta
c)
Aortic arch
d)
Coronary arteries
158.
Which of these is an example of a drug that wasn't tested properly and so resulted in harmful side effects?
a)
Paracetamol
b)
Statins
c)
Thalidomide
d)
Nicotine
159.
What is a placebo?
a)
A second type of drug given to all people in a trial
b)
A 'dummy' pill given to all people in the trial
c)
A 'dummy' pill given to half of the people in the trial
d)
A drug that will probably harm the patients taking it
160.
What is a double blind trial?
a)
The participants take the drug blindfolded
b)
When the scientist and the participants are unaware of whether they are taking the drug or placebo
c)
When the participants choose what they want to take without telling the scientist
d)
When the scientist knows who is taking the drug but the participants don't
161.
Why are clinical drug trials important?
a)
They can improve the health of patients
b)
To understand whether the drug causes any harmful side effects
c)
They help test the effectiveness of the drug
d)
To test whether the drug works and if it causes any harmful side effects
162.
Why are double blind trials important?
a)
They make sure the results are fair and unbiased
b)
If the scientist knows who has taken the drug they will lie or change results to show it works
c)
They are the only type of clinical trials available
d)
Patients might lie about any side effects they feel
163.
What is a drug?
a)
An illegal substance that harms the body
b)
A substance that modifies chemical reactions of the body
c)
A treatment for illness
164.
What cells have NO nucleus?
a)
Leaf cells
b)
Animal cells
c)
Red blood cells
d)
egg cells
165.
What cells carry electrical signals?
a)
Red Blood Cells
b)
Palisade Cells
c)
Sperm cells
d)
Nerve Cells
166.
What cell is much larger than other animal cells?
a)
Egg cell
b)
Sperm cell
c)
Leaf cell
d)
Root hair cell
167.
The role of these specialised cells is to help fight off infection and foreign bodies.
a)
Palisade Cells
b)
Nerve Cells
c)
White Blood Cells
d)
Red Blood Cells
168.
Specialized cells that absorb water by osmosis
a)
Nerve Cell
b)
Xylem
c)
Palisade Cell
d)
Root Hair Cell
169.
A stem cell is...
a)
specialised
b)
unspecialised
c)
large
170.
Cells with tiny hair like structures on it.It functions to remove dust and bacteria from trachea.
a)
Sperm
b)
palisade
c)
Ciliated cell
d)
plant cell
171.
This is a example of........
a)
organ system
b)
cells
c)
organ
d)
tissue
172.
Directs all cell activities through the DNA located there.
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Nucleus
c)
ribosomes
d)
Mitochondria
173.
What is the purpose of an enzyme?
a)
give permission for the reaction
b)
raise activation energy
c)
speed up reactions
d)
control how many reactions occur
174.
What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
175.
Each enzyme only has 1 substrate that will fit its active site. What is this called?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
176.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
177.
Which chemical is classified as an enzyme?
a)
Galactose
b)
Lipid
c)
Protease
d)
Manganese dioxide
178.
Based on the graph, what is the optimal temperature for this enzyme?
a)
15oC
b)
40oC
c)
30oC
d)
35oC
179.
What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?
a)
The enzymes die.
b)
The shapes of the enzyme are altered denature
c)
The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.
d)
The enzymes remain the same
180.
Babies do not have well developed digestive systems for breaking down proteins; therefore baby food is prepared after treatment with which enzyme?
a)
protease
b)
lipase
c)
carbohydrase
d)
synthase
181.
Bile is made by which digestive organ?
a)
Gallbladder
b)
Stomach
c)
Rectum
d)
Liver
182.
Nutrients from digested food are absorbed in which digestive organ?
a)
Small Intestine
b)
Stomach
c)
Large Intestine
d)
Gallbladder
183.
As waste moves through the digestive system, the ______ absorbs water before storing waste in the rectum.
a)
Small intestine
b)
Stomach
c)
Esophagus
d)
Large intestine
184.
Number 7 is pointing to...
a)
Mouth
b)
Esophagus
c)
Small intestine
d)
rectum
185.
The diploid number of human chromosomes is
a)
23
b)
46
c)
92
186.
The cells produced via meiosis are called:
a)
sex cells (gametes)
b)
somatic cells
c)
body cells
d)
skin cells
187.
This produces 2 identical cells.
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
188.
A human usually has xx amount of chromosomes.
a)
6
b)
22
c)
4
d)
46
189.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
190.
Unlike mitosis, meiosis in male mammals results in the formation of
a)
one haploid gamete
b)
three diploid gametes
c)
four diploid gametes
d)
four haploid gametes
191.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
192.
Which of these cells would be produced through meiosis?
a)
skin cells
b)
liver cells
c)
brain cells
d)
sperm cells
193.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.
a)
homozygous
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
194.
A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each of its sex cells. How many would be present in its body cells?
a)
20
b)
40
c)
80
d)
160
195.
What is another reason we need meiosis?
a)
So the offspring has genes from both parents
b)
So the offspring has genes from one parent
c)
So the offspring has genes from neither parents
d)
So the offspring makes its own genes
196.
Why do we need meiosis?
a)
To double the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
b)
To halve the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
c)
To triple the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
d)
To not change the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
197.
Where does an off spring get its traits in asexual reproduction?
a)
From both parents
b)
From only one parent
c)
From neither parent
d)
There are no traits handed down
198.
Sexual reproduction requires _____ parents and asexual reproduction requires ___ parents
a)
1,1
b)
2,2
c)
2,1
d)
1,2
199.
What is an advantage of sexual reproduction?
a)
Allows genetic variation
b)
Only needs one parent
c)
Happens very quickly
d)
Offspring are exact copies of parent
200.
What is one disadvantage of sexual reproduction?
a)
Only one parent needed
b)
Off spring are exact copies of parents
c)
Happens very quickly
d)
Needs two parents
201.
All of the offspring of an organism have the same genetic material, which is identical to the parent organism. From this, we can conclude that this organism -
a)
makes its own food
b)
is unicellular
c)
live in a marine habitat
d)
reproduces asexually
202.
What are some of the facts about asexual reproduction?
a)
Takes only one mate to reproduce and takes a longer time to reproduce
b)
Takes a shorter amount of time to reproduce and it takes two mates to reproduce
c)
Reproduces diverse offspring and takes a longer time to reproduce
d)
Takes only one mate to reproduce and takes a shorter time to reproduce
203.
What are some of the facts about sexual reproduction?
a)
Takes two mates to reproduce and takes a longer time to reproduce
b)
Takes one mate to reproduce and takes a shorter amount of time to reproduce
c)
Takes two mates to reproduce and takes a shorter amount of time to reproduce
d)
Takes one mate to reproduce and takes a shorter amount of time to reproduce
204.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
205.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
206.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
207.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
208.
The drawing shows the structure of what molecule?
a)
A DNA molecule
b)
A lipid molecule
c)
A carbohydrate molecule
d)
A protein molecule
209.
Genotype refers to the ...
a)
physical expression of the genes
b)
the possible combination of alleles in a gene
c)
whether an allele is dominant or recessive
d)
how an organism will appear
210.
An offspring will receive how many alleles from each parent to determine a specific trait?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
five
211.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Blue eyes
212.
What is a phenotype
a)
The genetic make up (code)
b)
The physical trait
213.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
214.
having two different genes for a trait (sometimes called hybrid).
a)
protein
b)
homozygous
c)
heterozygous
d)
genotype
215.
Magda is a tall, 11 year old drummer. She has a scar on her right cheek. She is good at swimming. Which of her traits did Magda most likely inherit?
a)
height
b)
the scar
c)
ability to swim
d)
ability to play drums
216.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
217.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
218.
An allele whose trait only shows up when no dominant allele is present.
a)
hidden allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
recessive allele
d)
present allele
219.
Two heterozygous (Tt) tall pea plants are crossed. Which describes their offspring?
a)
50% tall and 50% short
b)
75%tall and 25% short
c)
100%short
220.
Bonus Question!
Chemical Symbol / Proton Number
a)
Ag / 47
b)
Ag / 79
c)
Au / 47
d)
Au / 79
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