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Worksheets

Gil

Total questions: 179

Worksheet time: 3hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following is a physical property?
a)
ability to burn
b)
ability to rust
c)
density
d)
how a metal reacts with acid
2.
2 or more substances chemically combined
a)
element
b)
compound 
c)
mixture
3.
Which is not a sign of a chemical change?
a)
water evaporating
b)
gas bubbles
c)
color change
d)
temperature change
4.
pure substances that can not be broken down into other substances
a)
element
b)
compound 
c)
mixture
5.
an individual substance can be identified by its’
a)
physical properties
b)
mass 
c)
weight 
d)
state of matter
6.
A characteristic of a substance that can be observed using your senses without changing the substance into something else is:
a)
physical property
b)
chemical property
7.
In which state of matter do the particles spread apart and fill all the space available to them?
a)
solid
b)
liquid 
c)
gas
8.
Two or more substances that are together but not chemically combined are:
a)
element
b)
compound
c)
mixture
9.
Most elements on the periodic table are
a)
metals
b)
nonmetals
c)
metalloids
10.
What is a substance that is made of only one type of atom?
a)
proton
b)
compound
c)
water
d)
element
11.

Which of these is the smallest particle to retain the properties of an element?

a)

atom

b)

proton

c)

electron

d)

molecule

12.

What makes physical properties different from chemical properties?

a)

Physical properties relate to elements rather than compounds.

b)

Physical properties can be observed without attempting to change the identity of the substance.

c)

Physical properties appear only after a chemical change occurs.

d)

Physical properties describe elements in the solid state rather than in the liquid or gas state.

13.

A water molecule is made up of one oxygen and two hydrogen atoms. Why is water considered a pure substance?

a)

Each water molecule is identical.

b)

Water can be broken down by physical means.

c)

Water molecules are made up of different types of atoms.

d)

Water can be combined with other substances by physical means.

14.

Each element has a unique name. How else can an element be represented?

a)

by its mass

b)

by its state of matter

c)

by its chemical symbol

d)

by an identification number

15.

Each element has a unique name. How else can an element be represented?

a)

by its mass

b)

by its state of matter

c)

by its chemical symbol

d)

by an identification number

16.

Which of these substances is likely to be formed of particles with a repeating crystalline structure?

a)

glass

b)

salt

c)

nitrogen

d)

honey

17.

How do you calculate density?

a)

volume times mass

b)

mass times volume

c)

mass divided by volume

d)

volume divided by mass

18.

Which statement describes a chemical property?

a)

A particular substance evaporates at 30 °C.

b)

A 2 ft. long metal bar has a mass of only 176 g.

c)

A certain heavy metal turns to a liquid at room temperature.

d)

A metal is added to a beaker of water, and the beaker explodes.

19.

All of these statements about elements, atoms, and compounds are true except _____.

a)

compounds are smaller than atoms

b)

atoms cannot be broken down into smaller substances

c)

elements and compounds form the basis of all materials on Earth

d)

elements consist of one type of atom and can combine to form compounds

20.

Which of these is a way in which elements and compounds are similar?

a)

Elements and compounds are both pure substances.

b)

Elements and compounds are both listed on the periodic table.

c)

Elements and compounds are both made up of different kinds of atoms.

d)

Elements and compounds can both be broken down by physical changes.

21.

Which type of substance is always made up of two or more different types of atoms joined by chemical bonds?

a)

element

b)

mixture

c)

compound

d)

pure substance

22.

Which state of matter will take both the volume and shape of the container that holds it?

a)

ice

b)

solid

c)

liquid

d)

gas

23.

A child is upset because his ice cream is melting. He thinks he now has less dessert. Which of these explanations correctly states why the child is incorrect?

a)

No mass is lost during a change of state.

b)

He actually has more, not less, ice cream.

c)

The mass will increase if he freezes the melted ice cream

d)

Mass is lost only during certain changes of state, such as freezing.

24.

According to kinetic theory, how many particles that make up a substance are constantly in motion?

a)

all of the particles

b)

none of the particles

c)

more than half of the particles but not all

d)

fewer than half of the particles but more than none

25.

Which change of state takes place when a gas loses energy?

a)

melting

b)

evaporation

c)

solidification

d)

condensation

26.

As water changes state, the water either absorbs or releases energy. Which of these is a process that releases energy?

a)

ice subliming

b)

snow melting

c)

lake water freezing

d)

ocean water evaporating

27.

Which of these statements describes a liquid?

a)

A liquid has a definite volume but not a definite shape.

b)

A liquid has a definite shape but not a definite volume.

c)

A liquid has both a definite shape and a definite volume.

d)

A liquid has neither a definite volume nor a definite shape.

28.

Which changes of state result in a decrease in the kinetic energy of the particles?

a)

melting, boiling

b)

freezing, evaporation

c)

melting, condensation

d)

freezing, condensation

29.
In sodium chloride, which atom loses an electron?
a)
chloride
b)
sodium
c)
salt
d)
neither
30.
Binary compounds are composed of ___ atoms.
a)
two
b)
one
c)
four
d)
many
31.
Which type of bond does a metal form?
a)
covalent bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
metallic bonds
d)
electrical bond
32.
Which type of bond is formed by two nonmetals?
a)
covalent bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
metallic bonds
d)
gas bond
33.
Look at the map- which side of this map is east?
a)
top
b)
bottom
c)
left
d)
right
34.
Which continent is farthest to the south?
a)
Africa
b)
Australia
c)
South America
d)
Antarctica
35.
The lines on the globe represent lines of...
a)
longitude
b)
latitude
c)
meridians
d)
hemispheres
36.
Which hemisphere is shaded dark on the map?
a)
northern hemisphere
b)
southern hemisphere
c)
eastern hemisphere
d)
western hemisphere
37.
Which ocean is east of the United States?
a)
Atlantic
b)
Pacific
c)
Indian
d)
Arctic
38.
Look at the map. Which continent is located at 45oN, 120oE?
a)
North America
b)
South America
c)
Africa
d)
Asia
39.
Which two continents are located entirely in the Western Hemisphere?
a)
Europe and Africa
b)
Asia and Antarctica
c)
North America and Australia
d)
North America and South America
40.
the term for one-half of a globe or one-half of the planet Earth
a)
Sphere
b)
Legend
c)
Prime Meridian
d)
Hemisphere
41.
The study of the Earth's natural features.
a)
geography
b)
history
c)
continent
d)
latitude
42.
A measure of distance north or south of the equator.
a)
geography
b)
history
c)
continent
d)
latitude
43.
One of the seven large landmasses; North America, South America, Asia, Africa, Australia, Europe, and Antarctica.
a)
geography
b)
history
c)
continent
d)
latitude
44.
A measure of distance east or west of the prime meridian.
a)
longitude
b)
hemisphere
c)
archaeology
d)
artifact
45.
Either of the two equal halves of the Earth as marked by the equator or the prime meridian.
a)
longitude
b)
hemisphere
c)
archaeology
d)
artifact
46.
Which of the following continents are completely in the Western and Northern Hemisphere?
a)
Asia
b)
Australia
c)
Europe
d)
North America
47.
What kind of map would you use to find elevation and landforms?
a)
Physical 
b)
Political
c)
Climate
d)
Historical
48.
What state is surrounded by three sides with water(peninsula)
a)
Texas
b)
Florida
c)
Alaska
d)
Hawaii
49.
What map feature is this a picture of?
a)
compass rose
b)
legend
c)
scale
d)
imaginary lines
50.
What are the 4 intermediate directions?
a)
ABCD
b)
NESW
c)
NeSeSwNw
d)
WXYZ
51.
What are the 4 cardinal directions?
a)
ABCD
b)
NESW
c)
NeSeSwNw
d)
WXYZ
52.
What is this a picture of? 
a)
compass rose
b)
legend
c)
scale
d)
imaginary lines
53.
One object has twice as much mass as another object. The first object also has also twice as much...
a)
velocity
b)
gravitational acceleration
c)
inertia
d)
all of these
54.
What is the speed of an object that travels 20 meters in 4 seconds?
a)
80 m/s
b)
0.2 m/s
c)
5 m/s
d)
24 m/s
55.
If a 10 kilogram object accelerates suddenly at 15 m/s2, how much force was applied to the object?
a)
150 Newtons
b)
15 Newtons
c)
150 kilograms
d)
100 kilograms
56.
Which best explains why we are able to accelerate forward when starting to run?
a)
As one leg moves backward, it provides an equal and opposite force for the other foot to move forward.
b)
No acceleration takes place. Runners are always at a fixed velocity.
c)
The striking foot pushes backward against the ground. The friction with the ground provides an equal and opposite force forward.
d)
The runner's upper body quickly leans forward, causing the entire body to begin accelerating forward
57.
What law of motion does this picture represent 
a)
Newtons law of gravity 
b)
Newtons 1st law 
c)
Newtons 4th law
d)
Newtons 3rd law 
58.
What Newtons law does this picture represent
a)
Newtons 2nd law 
b)
Law of gravity 
c)
Newtons 1st law
d)
Newtons 5th law
59.
What is speed?
a)
how far you go
b)
how much distance is covered over a period of time
c)
how fast you accelerate
d)
the change in the location of a object
60.
What is velocity?
a)
the quickness of an object
b)
the location of an object
c)
acceleration
d)
speed in a specific direction
61.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Deacceleration
d)
Not moving
62.
What is the average speed of this object's trip?
Think about: the distance the object traveled away from its point of origin.
a)
0.42 m/s
b)
60 m/s
c)
12 m/s
d)
5 m/s
63.
What is happening to line D?
a)
Stationary
b)
Accelerating
c)
Constant fast speed; moving away from the starting position
d)
Slower steady speed; moving away from the starting position
64.
How much time did it take for an animal to run 20 miles if it ran at 10 miles/hour?
a)
2 hours
b)
200 hours
c)
0.5 hours
d)
30 hours
65.
The roller coaster has the most kinetic energy at position-
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
66.

Which figure has more inertia?

a)

Figure A

b)

Figure B

67.
When on a ride that goes in a circle, you feel pushed or pulled in a circular motion. What is this called?
a)
resistance
b)
centripetal force
c)
gravity
d)
air re
68.
When on the moon, what is different about you?
a)
Your mass 
b)
Your weight
c)
Your mass and weight 
69.
A runner races in the 100 meter dash.  It takes her 10 seconds to finish.  What is her average speed?
a)
10 m/s
b)
1000 m/s
c)
100 seconds
d)
10 seconds
70.
Objects made by people are called...
a)
fossils.
b)
species.
c)
artifacts.
d)
eras.
71.
B.C. stands for...
a)
before Christ.
b)
bye Christina.
c)
billowing cucumbers. 
d)
babies clapping. 
72.
The Paleolithic Age is also called the...
a)
Old Stone Age.
b)
New Stone Age.
c)
the Bronze Age.
d)
the Golden Age. 
73.
Sumerian inventions include...
a)
the wheel.
b)
the rudder.
c)
the compass.
d)
the car. 
74.
The ________________________ helped shaped the moral principles of many nations.
a)
Pharaohs
b)
Ten Commandments
c)
4 Noble Truths
d)
Analects
75.
One reason Egypt’s ancient structures have survived is the _______________ climate
a)
cool, moist
b)
cold, dry
c)
warm, humid
d)
hot, dry
76.
The location of India’s oldest civilization was... 
a)
Timbuktu.
b)
the Indus Valley.
c)
the Valley of the Kings.
d)
Mesopotamia. 
77.
Buddhism was founded by... 
a)
King Tut.
b)
Moses.
c)
Alexander the Great.
d)
Siddharta Gautama.
78.
What limited China’s contact with the rest of the world?
a)
mountains and deserts
b)
rivers and streams
c)
oceans and seas
d)
nothing
79.
Key inventions created during the Imperial age of China include…
a)
the wheel.
b)
cunieform.
c)
the compass.
d)
paper from papyrus. 
80.
The most famous European travelers to reach China was...
a)
Abraham.
b)
Hatshepsut.
c)
Hanfeizi.
d)
Marco Polo. 
81.
The __________________ of Greece influenced the formation of independent city-states.
a)
geography
b)
culture
c)
climate
d)
government 
82.
Greeks developed the modern concept of...
a)
color
b)
geography
c)
civilization
d)
citizenship 
83.
The ancient Greeks contributed the ______________________ games to the world.
a)
basketball
b)
baseball
c)
olympic
d)
soccer
84.
Plato believed in rule by...
a)
gods
b)
ordinary people
c)
puppies 
d)
philosopher kings
85.
How were the religions of Ancient Greece and Ancient Egypt similar?
a)
They were monotheistic
b)
They worshiped Zeus 
c)
They worshiped Horus
d)
They were polytheistic 
86.
Which of the following groups DID NOT make up the social structure of feudalism?
a)
Knights
b)
King/Queen
c)
Middle class
d)
Serfs
87.
In the system of feudalism, who farmed the land?
a)
monarchs
b)
serfs
c)
lords
d)
knights
88.
How did feudalism affect the lives of the nobility?
a)
Lords and knights were loyal to monarchs and provided protection.
b)
The monarchs established guilds to help serfs work the land.
c)
Monarchs were not allowed to build their own manor houses.
d)
The system elevated the serfs to a level equal to lords and knights.
89.
What was the purpose of the Crusades?
a)
Ceremony acknowledging the achievement of completing 12 years of education
b)
Expel Martin Luther from the Catholic Church
c)
Unite all of Europe as one Christian kingdom
d)
Retake the city of Jerusalem (Holy Lands)
90.
A widespread disease, or epidemic, spread by fleas on rats through Europe during the Middle Ages was known as:
a)
The Black Death/The Plague
b)
The Voice
c)
The Spanish Flu
d)
The Common Cold
91.
Which best describes the influence of the Church during the Middle Ages?
a)
A child from almost every family became a monk or nun in the Church
b)
The Church encouraged people of other religions to settle in Europe
c)
Church officials and kings worked separately to govern countries
d)
Daily life in villages and towns revolved around the Church
92.
What is the difference between a serf and a peasant?
a)
nothing, they were the same thing
b)
serfs were free, peasants were bound to the land
c)
peasants were free, serfs were bound to the land
d)
they were slaves
93.
The religious reform movement that divided the Western Church is called?
a)
Catholic Change
b)
Lutheran Shift
c)
Roman Reformation
d)
Protestant Reformation
94.
Who was the deeply religious German Monk who disagreed with the ways of the Catholic Church.
a)
John Calvin
b)
Thomas Hobbes
c)
Martin Luther
d)
Protestants
95.
What were the statements against the Catholic Church and posted to the door of the church called?
a)
88 Theses
b)
95 Theses
c)
99 Theses
d)
None of the above
96.
What does the word "Renaissance" mean?
a)
Renewed
b)
Rebuilt
c)
Remade
d)
Rebirth
97.
Formal friendship between nations are called:
a)
treaties
b)
alliances
c)
clubs
d)
democracies
98.
Which of the following countries was not an Allied Power in World War 1?
a)
Germany and Italy
b)
the United States and France
c)
Britain and France
d)
Germany and Austria-Hungary
99.
9)  WWI began when Austria-Hungary declared war on Serbia one month after:
a)
Serbia tried to take more of Austria-Hungary's land.
b)
Serbia burned their flag.
c)
Archduke Ferdinand and his wife were killed.
d)
Serbia won more Olympic medals.
100.
Which area was called the "powder keg" of Europe and was the place where World War I began?
a)
Balkins
b)
Gallipoli
c)
Western Front
d)
Ottoman Empire
101.
What action on November 11, 1918, brought World War I to and end?
a)
An armistice was signed
b)
A surrender was given
c)
A propaganda campaign was waged.
d)
The allies won a major battle.
102.
Which of these is a new country after World War One?
a)
Austria-Hungary
b)
Czechslovakia
c)
England
d)
Soviet Union
103.
Which of these is a type of fighting used in World War One?
a)
Trench Warfare
b)
Atomic Bomb
c)
Guerilla Warfare
d)
No-Man's Land
104.
What event led Great Britain to declare war on Germany?
a)
The Germans sank British supply boats
b)
The Germans sank American ships
c)
Germany invaded Russia
d)
Germany invaded Belgium 
105.
Who was the President of the United States during WWI?
a)
Woodrow Wilson
b)
Grover Cleveland
c)
Teddy Roosevelt
d)
Franklin D. Roosevelt
106.
Which was an effect of WWI on Russia?
a)
Severe food shortages
b)
Russia had to pair with another country and became Prussia
c)
WWI had no effect on Russia
d)
Russia became rich
107.
Communist leader that quickly took over Russia and formed the Soviet Union after the revolution.
a)
Vladimir Lenin
b)
Tsar Nicholas II
c)
Adolf Hitler
d)
Franz Ferdinand
108.
Who ruled as a dictator and leader of the Nazi party and wanted to build a powerful military and make his country a strong nation?
a)
Hitler
b)
Mussolini
c)
Stalin
109.
Who did Hitler blame for most of the Germany's problems?
a)
Americans
b)
Christians
c)
Muslims
d)
Jews
110.
Which 3 countries made up the Axis Powers?
a)
American, England, and Russia
b)
Sweden, Germany, and Denmark
c)
Italy, Russia, and Austria
d)
Italy, Germany, and Japan
111.
The Allies and Hitler reached an agreement that Hitler could keep the land he had already taken if he did not invade any more countries. Hitler broke this promise when he invaded __________________.
a)
Denmark
b)
Sweden
c)
France
d)
Poland
112.
Who was the prime minister of England?
a)
Roosevelt
b)
Churchill
c)
Hitler
d)
Truman
113.
Who was the prime minister of England?
a)
Roosevelt
b)
Churchill
c)
Hitler
d)
Truman
114.
Why did Japan decide to attack the United States?
a)
They wanted to claim Hawaii.
b)
They didn't like FDR.
c)
The USA helped China defend itself.
d)
Japan knew only the US Navy was strong enough to stop them.
115.
When was Pearl Harbor attacked?
a)
December 7, 1941
b)
September 1, 1939
c)
October 31, 1941
d)
December 25, 1941
116.
Who ruled as a dictator in Italy?
a)
Hitler
b)
Stalin
c)
Mussolini
117.
Who was president of the United States when WW2 ended?
a)
Franklin D. Roosevelt
b)
Harry Truman
c)
John F. Kennedy
d)
Jefferson DAvis
118.
The Allies consisted of......
a)
Japan, Germany, and America
b)
America, France, and Australia
c)
America, U.S.S.R, and Britain
d)
Germany, China, Japan, and Hawaii
119.
What was the end date of the war in Europe?
a)
V-E Day
b)
V-J Day
c)
V-8 day 
d)
VH 1 day
120.
The decision to drop atonic bomb was made by ...
a)
FDR
b)
Truman
c)
einstein
d)
Oppenheimer
121.
Chose the correct order for cell division through mitosis.
a)
Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Cytokineses, Telephase
b)
Interphase, Prophase, Anaphase, Telephase, Cytokinesis, Metaphase
c)
Cytokineses, Interphase, Anaphase, Metaphase,Telephase, Prophase
d)
Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telephase, Cytokinesis
122.
What type of cells undergo mitosis?
a)
Sex Cells
b)
Gametes
c)
Egg cells
d)
Somatic Cells
123.
What type of cells undergo meiosis?
a)
Somatic Cells
b)
Plant Cells
c)
Sex Cells
d)
Body Cells
124.
Which biomolecule is this a picture of?
a)
Protein
b)
Nucleic Acid
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
125.
Which biomolecule is this a picture of?*
a)
Protein
b)
Nucleic Acid
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
126.
Which biomolecule is this a picture of?
a)
Protein
b)
Nucleic Acid
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
127.
All of the following are parts of a nucleotide except?
a)
Phosphate Group
b)
Nitrogen Base
c)
Amino Group
d)
Deoxyribose/Ribose sugar
128.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
129.
Snapdragon flowers come in red, pink and white.  What type of inheritance is this?
a)
Complete Dominance
b)
Incomplete Dominance
c)
Codominance
d)
Polygenic Inheritance
130.
What is the phenotype of the heterozygous parent in the punnett square?
a)
green
b)
yellow
c)
hybrid
d)
purebred
131.
If green is dominant over purple, then what is the genotype for this individual?
a)
Purple
b)
Green
c)
GG
d)
gg
132.
Which is the correct phenotype for this organism?
a)
BB
b)
blue
c)
green
d)
bb
133.
What is the genotype for this organism?
(E= 3 eyes, e= 1 eye)
a)
EE
b)
Ee
c)
ee
d)
EE or Ee
134.

You want to observe and identify microorganisms that live in pond water. Which of these tools is best suited for the task?

a)

Telescope

b)

Microscope

c)

Petri dish

d)

Hand Lens

135.

Mason is studying an unknown organism. He discovers that the organism is unicellular, undergoes asexual reproduction, and it does not have a nucleus. How would this organism be classified?

a)

Kingdom Animilia

b)

Kingdom Protista

c)

Kingdom Bacteria

d)

Kingdom Fungi

136.

Marlon is viewing a paramecium. He wants to use his observations to correctly classify it into the appropriate Kingdom. He observes that it has a nucleus. What conclusion can he make about the cell?

a)

it is prokaryotic

b)

it is monokaryotic

c)

It is Eukaryotic

d)

Its is made up of cells

137.

Which of the following correctly identifies the order of the levels of taxonomy?

a)

Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

b)

Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species, Domain

c)

Species, Class, Domain, Genus, Family, Kingdom, Order, Phylum

d)

Domain, Phylum, Order, Genus, Kingdom, Class, Family, Species

138.

Carolus Linnaeus created a system that-

a)

organizes characteristics of nonliving things in our world.

b)

organizes the basic characteristics of organisms.

c)

organizes the basic characteristics of an ecosystem

d)

organizes energy resources available for use.

139.

Which of the following correctly identifies the most general level of classification recognized by today’s biologists?

a)

Animalia, Archaea, Bacteria

b)

Archaea, Bacteria, Plantae

c)

Animalia, Bacteria, Eukarya

d)

Archaea, Bacteria, Eukarya

140.

Which of the following show the levels of organization within an ecosystem from smallest to biggest?

a)

Ecosystem, Organism, population, community

b)

Organism, population,community, Ecosystem

c)

Organism, community, population, ecosystem

d)

population, organism, ecosystem, earth

141.

An ecosystem includes all of the biotic and abiotic factors in an area and the interactions between them. Which of the following best illustrates this interaction between biotic and abiotic parts of an environment?

a)

Cows eating grass in a field.

b)

Water carries rocks downstream.

c)

Plants use sunlight and water to grow.

d)

A family of squirrels living in a tree.

142.

Which of the statements below is true?


A. Bacteria Cell and B. Animal Cell

a)

Figure A is a eukaryotic cell and B is a prokaryotic cell.

b)

Figure A and B are both eukaryotic cells.

c)

Figure A is a prokaryotic cell and B is a eukaryotic cell.

d)

Figure A and B are both prokaryotic cells.

143.
An organism that cannot adapt to changes in the environment will most likely - 
a)
produce more offspring
b)
die
c)
change its traits to survive
d)
store more food
144.
Jelly-like substance found inside cell that acts as a medium for chemical reactions within the cell
a)
Nuclear Membrane
b)
Golgi Body
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Ribosome
145.

All the members of one species that live within an area of an ecosystem

a)

population

b)

community

c)

niche

146.

Hippo

a)

Organism

b)

Population

c)

Community

d)

Ecosystem

147.
Water temperature would be an example of ...
a)
a biotic factor.
b)
an abiotic factor.
148.
What are the biotic factors in this image?
a)
sunlight, elephants, and grasses
b)
sunlight, water,  and air
c)
elephants, plants, trees 
149.

Tiny organs inside of the cell are called ______________.

a)

Organelle

b)

Organ system

c)

Organism

d)

Opera

150.

The kind of cells found in plants and animals.

a)

prokaryote

b)

eukaryote

c)

mitochondria

d)

protein

151.

The sun’s light energy is changed to chemical energy is called ________.

a)

respiration

b)

ATP

c)

photosynthesis

d)

eating

152.

When energy is released to be used by a cell, it is called _________.

a)

photosynthesis

b)

aerobic

c)

anaerobic

d)

cellular respiration

153.

When a cell divides into two identical cells, it is called ___________.

a)

DNA

b)

meiosis

c)

allele

d)

mitosis

154.

The central organelle of a cell that has DNA in it

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplasr

c)

nucleus

d)

ribosome

155.

A double-helix that has the code for what we look like

a)

RNA

b)

DNA

c)

PTA

d)

MSA

156.

Scientist who is called the “Father of Genetics”

a)

Hook

b)

Mendel

c)

Darwin

d)

Crick

157.

What is the measure of the angle?

a)

25 degrees

b)

45 degrees

c)

60 degrees

d)

35 degrees

158.
Evaluate the expression.
|12| ÷ 2 × |–5|
a)
-1.2
b)
30
c)
1.2
d)
-30
159.
Find the perimeter.
a)
8 cm
b)
34 cm
c)
23 cm
d)
49 cm
160.
Simplify:
√10 ⋅ √45
a)
3√50
b)
8√2
c)
√450
d)
15√2
161.
As the age of the car increases, its value decreases. Which scatterplot represents this relationship?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
162.
The scatter plot below shows the number of books read by students in Mrs. Hall’s English class and their final grades. Which statement represents the best description about the line of best fit?
a)
The more books students read, the lower their English grade.
b)
The more books students read, the higher their English grade.
c)
The fewer books students read, the higher their English grade. 
d)
No relationship exists between the number of books students read and their English grades. 
163.
Answer
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
164.
Which is the graph of y= -x + 2?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
165.
What is the slope of the equation?
y = -3x + 4
a)
-3
b)
4
c)
-4
d)
3
166.
What is the slope of the line 3x-9y=12?
a)
3
b)
9
c)
1/3
d)
-3
167.
What is the slope a horizontal line?
a)
-1
b)
undefined
c)
1
d)
0
168.
When graphing the equation 8x+3y=15 what is the first thing that you would do to get "y" by itself? 
a)
Subtract 8
b)
Subtract 15
c)
Subtract 8x
d)
Divide by 3
169.
Factor
10x2 + 15x-5
a)
25(10x3+45x-15)
b)
5(2x3 + 3x2-x)
c)
x(10x3+15x-5)
d)
5(2x2+3x-1)
170.
Factor
k2+7k+10
a)
(k+2)(k+5)
b)
(k-2)(k-5)
c)
(k+10)(k+4)
d)
(k+2)(k-5)
171.
Emilio borrows $1200 from a bank with 8% simple interest per year.  How much will he have to pay back total in 2 years?
a)
$150
b)
$192
c)
$1350
d)
$1392
172.
a)
-3, 4
b)
3, 4
c)
-4, -3
d)
-3
173.
a)
-6, -2
b)
-2, 6
c)
2, 6
d)
-6, 2
174.
What test has a greater median?
a)
Test 1
b)
Test 2
c)
They have the same median.
d)
You cannot tell from the dot plots.
175.

A person is going to wrap a present in a box that is in the shape of a cube with measurements of 8 inches. How much paper would be needed if this person decided to just cover the sides?

a)

512 inches cubed

b)

256 inches squared

c)

384 inches squared

d)

192 inches squared

176.

What equation matches this situation?

John wants to buy an MP3 Player that costs $30.98. How much change did he receive if he gives the cashier $40.

a)

40 + c = 39.98

b)

30.98 + c = 40

c)

c - 40 = 39.98

d)

c - 39.98 = 40

177.
Solve for x.
a)
55
b)
60
c)
15
d)
35
178.
Evaluate the expression using the quotient rule.
a)
x13
b)
x5
c)
x36
d)
x-5
179.
Solve the system of equations.
x + 2y = -3
x - y = -12
a)
(-9, 3)
b)
(-7 ,5)
c)
(3, 15)
d)
(9, 6)

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