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Final Review MAX 112

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does Cephalic mean?

a)

towards the feet

b)

towards the head

c)

in the back

d)

underneath

2.

What does Caudal mean?

a)

away from the center

b)

in front

c)

in back

d)

towards the feet

3.

Which plane divides the body into right and left halves?

a)

transverse

b)

sagittal

c)

coronal

4.

MSP stands for Midsagittal Plane

a)

true

b)

flase

5.

The term for lying on your back

a)

prone

b)

supine

c)

decubitus

d)

recumbent

6.

Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions?

a)

coronal

b)

transverse

c)

sagittal

7.

The path of the x-ray beam is called what?

a)

position

b)

tangential

c)

projection

8.

The basic term for lying down

a)

dorsal

b)

ventral

c)

prone

d)

recumbent

9.

Which of the following means horizontal beam?

a)

position

b)

projection

c)

decubitus

d)

distal

10.

A sudden onset

a)

chronic

b)

acute

c)

nosocomial

11.

The term that means "away from"

a)

proximal

b)

anterior

c)

distal

d)

posterior

12.

Standard Precautions protect us from?

a)

blood only

b)

all bodily fluids

c)

sweat

d)

none of these

13.

How do you reduce the risk of transmitting an infectious disease?

a)

sepsis

b)

medical asepsis

c)

vaccinating

d)

none of these

14.

How many bones in the skull?

a)

22

b)

14

c)

7

d)

30

15.

which of the following are cranial bones?

a)

frontal

b)

sphenoid

c)

occipital

d)

all of these

16.

Which cranial bone houses the hearing organs?

a)

temporal

b)

ethmoid

c)

frontal

d)

none of these

17.

The foramen magnum is found on what cranial bone?

a)

frontal

b)

parietal

c)

occipital

d)

temporal

18.

What is the medical term for the bony sockets of the eye?

a)

eye socket

b)

zygomatic arch

c)

orbits

d)

maxilla

19.

What is a suture?

a)

a landmark in the face

b)

area where the mandible meets the skull

c)

immovable joint in the skull

d)

none of these

20.

This joins the parietal bones and the frontal bone

a)

sagittal suture

b)

squamous suture

c)

coronal suture

d)

none of these

21.

What bone is the sella turcica found in?

a)

ethmoid

b)

sphenoid

c)

occipital

d)

temporal

22.

the landmark at the junction of the upper lip and nose is called?

a)

nasion

b)

mental point

c)

gonion

d)

glabella

23.

What is the anatomical name for the cheekbones?

a)

maxilla

b)

zygoma

c)

temporal

d)

mandible

24.

What is the only movable facial bone?

a)

orbit

b)

mandible

c)

vomer

d)

nasal bone

25.

What is the angle of the mandible called?

a)

alveolar process

b)

ramus

c)

gonion

d)

glabella

26.

What is the structure that holds the roots of the teeth?

a)

TMJ

b)

Petrous Pyramids

c)

Alveolar Process

d)

none of these

27.

Paranasal sinuses are air-filled cavities in some bones

a)

true

b)

false

28.

The AP Axial cranium is also called the AP Caldwell

a)

true

b)

false

29.

The PA skull projection does not demonstrate the petrous ridges inside the orbits

a)

true

b)

false

30.

The foramen magnum is best demonstrated on which projection of the skull?

a)

PA Caldwell

b)

SMV

c)

Lateral

d)

AP Townes

31.

Which view best demonstrates the Frontal Bone?

a)

PA Axial Caldwell

b)

SMV

c)

Lateral

32.

Where does the CR exit of the Water's view?

a)

gonion

b)

acanthion

c)

nasion

d)

glabella

33.

Where does the CR exit on the PA view of the skull?

a)

acanthion

b)

nasion

c)

glabella

34.

The SMV best demonstrates the base of the cranium

a)

true

b)

false

35.

For which projection of the MML perpendicular to the IR?

a)

AP Townes

b)

AP Caldwell

c)

Water's

d)

Lateral

36.

Sinuses are done in what position?

a)

prone

b)

recumbent

c)

upright

d)

supine

37.

Is the SMV a routine projection for the facial bones?

a)

yes

b)

no

38.

Which of the following is not seen on the lateral skull projection?

a)

parietal bones

b)

temporal bone

c)

sella turcica

d)

foramen magnum

39.

This projection will show a deviated septum the best

a)

lateral

b)

Waters

c)

Caldwell

40.

The OML is perpendicular to the IR for the PA position

a)

true

b)

false

41.

What is the CR angle for the lateral L5-S1 projection?

a)

15-20 degrees caudal

b)

5-10 degrees cephalic

c)

5-10 degrees caudal

42.

On the AP thoracic view, you will not clearly see T1-T12

a)

true

b)

false

43.

How much do you rotate your patient for an oblique c-spine?

a)

15 degrees

b)

25 degrees

c)

45 degrees

44.

For the AP open - mouth view, what is correct?

a)

line between acanthion and EAM is perpendicular

b)

line between upper teeth and mastoid process is perpendicular

c)

line between outer canthus and EAM is perpendicular

45.

What is best demonstrated on the lateral lumbar projection?

a)

pedicles

b)

zygapophyseal joints

c)

intervertebral foramina

46.

Why do we perform a scoliosis exam PA?

a)

to lower patient radiation on vital organs

b)

more comfortable

c)

picture comes out clearer

47.

What do you do if you cannot clearly see T1-T4 on a lateral thoracic view?

a)

repeat the lateral

b)

just submit the film

c)

do a swimmer's view

48.

What is best demonstrated on the lateral c-spine view?

a)

intervertebral foramina

b)

zygapophyseal joints

c)

both of these

49.

What is the CR for the AP thoracic spine view?

a)

T12

b)

T3

c)

T7

50.

What angle is used for the AP c-spine projection

a)

15-20 degrees caudal

b)

5 degrees cephalic

c)

15-20 degrees cephalic

51.

What is the CR for the oblique C-spine view?

a)

45 degrees caudal

b)

15-20 degrees caudal

c)

15-20 degrees cephalic

52.

What is best demonstrated on the oblique lumbar views?

a)

transverse process

b)

vertebral foramen

c)

pedicles

d)

zygapophyseal joints

53.

CR for oblique lumbar spine is 1-2 inches medial to the elevated ASIS

a)

true

b)

false

54.

What can the patient do to place the small of their back closer to the image receptor?

a)

extend their legs

b)

bend their knees up

c)

put a pillow under their back

55.

The breathing Technique is used for what projection?

a)

AP thoracic spine

b)

lateral lumbar

c)

lateral thoracic

d)

oblique c-spine

56.

Swimmers view requires an angle of 5-10 degrees caudal

a)

true

b)

false

57.

What is the medical term for lateral curvature of the spine?

a)

Kyphosis

b)

Lordosis

c)

scoliosis

d)

osteoporosis

58.

What structure on the thoracic vertebrae articulates with the rib?

a)

pedicle

b)

demifacet

c)

foramina

d)

notch

59.

The xiphoid process is at what level of the vertebrae?

a)

T7

b)

T10

c)

T12

d)

T3

60.

The iliac crest is at what level of the vertebrae?

a)

L4-L5

b)

L3

c)

L1

61.

Atoms are the building blocks of matter

a)

true

b)

false

62.

What are the particles called that orbit around the nucleus

a)

photons

b)

protons

c)

neutrons

d)

electrons

63.

K-shell of an atom is the outermost shell

a)

true

b)

false

64.

What is the type of energy that is in the form of a sine wave

a)

electrical

b)

electromagnetic

c)

thermal

d)

nuclear

65.

Protons are positive

a)

true

b)

false

66.

electrons are positive and rotate around the nucleus of an atom

a)

true

b)

false

67.

When an electron is removed or added to an atom, what is that called?

a)

radioactive

b)

polarization

c)

ionization

68.

A photon is an amount of ....

a)

nuclear energy

b)

matter

c)

electromagnetic energy

69.

This controls the quantity of exposure

a)

mAs

b)

kVp

c)

SID

70.

The Inverse Square Law demonstrates the relationship between

a)

intensity and mAs

b)

kVp and mAs

c)

intensity and distance

71.

The Inverse Square Law states that intensity is directly proportional to distance

a)

true

b)

false

72.

The overall blackness on the film is called?

a)

contrast

b)

density

c)

detail

73.

A difference in densities (which is called gray scale) is called what?

a)

penumbra

b)

distortion

c)

detail

d)

contrast

74.

The density on an image is controlled by?

a)

kVp

b)

mAs

c)

SID

75.

The contrast on an image is controlled by?

a)

kVp

b)

mAs

c)

SID

76.

Increasing the SID will do what?

a)

lower the geometric blur and increase recorded detail

b)

show less recorded detail

c)

show longer gray scale contrast

77.

A low kVp will produce an image with ....

a)

long scale contrast

b)

short scale contrast

c)

distortion

d)

low detail

78.

OID stands for object to image distance

a)

true

b)

false

79.

If the OID increases, distortion will be the result

a)

true

b)

false

80.

What are the fuzzy edges around a film called? (also called Geometric blur)

a)

recorded detail

b)

penumbra

c)

fog

81.

If the OID cannot be reduced, what should you do?

a)

increase the mAs

b)

increase the kVp

c)

increase the SID

82.

To move the heated electrons across the x-ray tube, there must be?

a)

a magnetic field

b)

a high potential difference

c)

neither of these

83.

Thermionic emission will create?

a)

variable resistance

b)

a space charge

c)

a positive charge in the tube

84.

Slowing down or "braking" radiation (primary radiation) is called?

a)

scatter

b)

Characteristic

c)

Bremsstrahlung

85.

The type of radiation that occurs when a reaction with a K-shell electron occurs

a)

scatter

b)

Bremsstrahlung

c)

Characteristic

86.

Which of the following is the penetrating power of the x-ray beam?

a)

kVp

b)

mAs

c)

time

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