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Unit 4: Geneticorp

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the single cell that is created at fertilization.

a)

zygote

b)

morula

c)

sperm

d)

egg

2.

How many chromosomes does the typical human have?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

52

d)

83

3.

How many PAIRS of chromosomes does the typical human have?

a)

10

b)

23

c)

46

d)

52

4.

What is the name of the complex molecule with a double helix shape?

a)

DNA

b)

chromosome

c)

gene

d)

zygote

5.

A short segment of DNA is called a(n)

a)

gene

b)

zygote

c)

morula

d)

none of these

6.

Which form of cell division results in duplicate cells?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

fertilization

d)

none of these

7.

Which type of cell division occurs with gametes?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

none of these

8.

The sperm and egg cells are called

a)

autosomes

b)

sex chromosomes

c)

gametes

d)

none of these

9.

When the sperm and egg combine to form a single cell, they each are supposed to donate ____ chromosomes.

a)

10

b)

20

c)

23

d)

46

10.

A person's actual genetic makeup is referred to as

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

none of these

11.

Having brown hair or blue eyes are examples of

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

mitosis

d)

fertilization

12.

A picture of the number and visual appearance of a person's chromosomes is called a(n)

a)

phenotype

b)

karyotype

c)

mitotic type

d)

none of these

13.

A typical biological male is ____ on the 23rd pair of chromosomes.

a)

XX

b)

XY

c)

XXY

d)

XYY

14.

A typical biological female is ____ on the 23rd pair of chromosomes.

a)

XX

b)

XY

c)

X0

d)

XYY

15.

In typical cases, a mother donates an ___ chromosome on the 23rd pair to her offspring.

a)

X

b)

Y

c)

none of these

16.

True or False: A father can donate an X or Y on the 23rd pair to his offspring.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

True or False: It is the mother's egg that determines biological sex of the offspring.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

True or False: It is the father's sperm that determines the biological sex of the offspring.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Which condition is also known as Trisomy 21?

a)

Fragile X Syndrome

b)

Klinefelter Syndrome

c)

Turner Syndrome

d)

Down Syndrome

20.

Down Syndrome results from having three copies of chromosome ____.

a)

10

b)

5

c)

21

d)

23

21.

True or False: Maternal age is the number one risk factor for having a child with Down Syndrome.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

At age 35, the rates of a mother having a child with Down Syndrome are

a)

1 in 700

b)

1 in 350

c)

1 in 100

d)

1 in 30

23.

Which disorder includes facial features such as flattened facial profile and small, upward slanting eyes?

a)

Down Syndrome

b)

Klinefelter Syndrome

c)

Turner Syndrome

d)

Cystic Fibrosis

24.

True or False: Symptoms of Down Syndrome include poor muscle tone.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

X-linked chromosome disorders are more common among

a)

males

b)

females

26.

A person who is XXY on the 23rd pair would have which disorder?

a)

Turner Syndrome

b)

Down Syndrome

c)

Klinefelter Syndrome

d)

none of these

27.

Klinefelter Syndrome affects

a)

biological males

b)

biological females

c)

both males and females

28.

Turner Syndrome affects

a)

biological males

b)

biological females

c)

both males and females

29.

True or False: Individuals with Klinefelter Syndrome tend to be shorter than their peers.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

A person with lowered testosterone, wide hips, reduced facial hair, and delayed puberty would most likely be diagnosed with

a)

Klinefelter Syndrome

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Fragile X Syndrome

d)

Hemophilia

31.

True or False: Individuals with Klinefelter Syndrome are more likely to experience learning disabilities.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

A person who is X0 on the 23rd pair would be diagnosed with

a)

Klinefelter Syndrome

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Fragile X Syndrome

d)

Red-Green Color Blindness

33.

Short stature, a webbed neck, swollen hands and feet, and infertility are typical symptoms of

a)

Turner Syndrome

b)

Fragile X Syndrome

c)

Down Syndrome

d)

Huntington's Disease

34.

True or False: Heart problems are common among individuals with Turner Syndrome.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Fragile X Syndrome is more common among

a)

males

b)

females

36.

The X chromosome becomes constricted and breaks in

a)

Down Syndrome

b)

Klinefelter Syndrome

c)

Turner Syndrome

d)

none of these

37.

Which condition is caused by mutations of the FMR1 gene?

a)

Fragile X Syndrome

b)

Klinefelter Syndrome

c)

Cystic Fibrosis

d)

Huntington's Disease

38.

Severe intellectual disabilities along with a long, narrow face, prominent jaw and forehead, and flat feet are typical symptoms of

a)

Fragile X Syndrome

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Cystic Fibrosis

d)

Tay-Sachs Disease

39.

True or False: Seizures are a possible symptom of Fragile X Syndrome.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Red-Green Color Blindness affects more

a)

males

b)

females

41.

The mutation for Fragile X Syndrome occurs on which chromosome?

a)

10

b)

12

c)

4

d)

23

42.

The mutation for red-green color blindness occurs on which chromosome?

a)

1

b)

10

c)

17

d)

23

43.

Mutations on genes that make proteins (called OPSIN) in the retina of the eye are responsible for

a)

red-green color blindness

b)

Cystic Fibrosis

c)

Tay-Sachs Disease

d)

none of these

44.

True or False: Individuals with red-green color blindness can only see in black, white, and shades of grey.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

True or False: Cystic Fibrosis is more common among African Americans.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Mutations on the CFTR gene that are responsible for making a protein that produces sweat, saliva, tears, mucus, and digestive enzymes causes

a)

Cystic Fibrosis

b)

Huntington's Disease

c)

Tay Sachs Disease

d)

Sickle Cell Anemia

47.

Cystic Fibrosis is caused by a mutation on chromosome

a)

3

b)

7

c)

23

d)

11

48.

Which of the following is caused by a mutation on chromosome 7?

a)

Fragile X

b)

Tay Sachs Disease

c)

Huntington's Disease

d)

none of these

49.

Lung transplants are often needed in cases of

a)

Cystic Fibrosis

b)

Huntington's Disease

c)

Down Syndrome

d)

Sickle Cell Anemia

50.

Lung complication are the most common cause of death in cases of

a)

Huntington's Disease

b)

Sickle Cell Anemia

c)

Tay Sachs Disease

d)

Cystic Fibrosis

51.

Insulin production is affected in

a)

Diabetes

b)

Cystic Fibrosis

c)

Tay Sachs Disease

d)

none of these

52.

True or False: Rates of diabetes in childhood has risen in recent years.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

True or False: Diabetes risk involves multiple genes on multiple chromosomes.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Hemophilia is caused by a mutation on which chromosome pair?

a)

1

b)

7

c)

11

d)

23

55.

Hemophilia is more common among

a)

males

b)

females

56.

Which disorder involves the build-up of a thick sticky mucus in the digestive tract and lungs?

a)

Cystic Fibrosis

b)

Tay Sachs Disease

c)

Diabetes

d)

none of these

57.

Which disorder involves mutations in genes that provide instructions for making proteins called coagulation factors?

a)

Hemophilia

b)

Huntington's Disease

c)

Phenylketonuria

d)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

58.

In individuals with this disorder, bleeding is a serious concern as the blood does not properly clot.

a)

Hemophilia

b)

Fragile X Syndrome

c)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

d)

PKU

59.

Treatment of this disorder involves replacing the missing clotting factors of the blood through an injection.

a)

Huntington's Disease

b)

Diabetes

c)

Tay Sachs Disease

d)

Hemophilia

60.

This disorder is caused by mutations in the HTT gene located on chromosome 4.

a)

Huntington's Disease

b)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

c)

Phenylketonuria

d)

Tay Sachs Disease

61.

Average age of onset of this disorder is typically the 30s or 40s.

a)

Tay Sachs Disease

b)

Sickle Cell Anemia

c)

Huntington's Disease

d)

Cystic Fibrosis

62.

One of the major brain areas that is affected by Huntington's Disease is the

a)

amygdala

b)

basal ganglia

c)

cerebellum

d)

none of these

63.

Typical symptoms of this disorder include depression, irritability, problems with decision making, and motor movements including involuntary movements and poor coordination.

a)

Fragile X Syndrome

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Huntington's Disease

d)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

64.

True or False: Blood testing at birth can determine the presence of Phenylketonuria.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

True or False: "Diet for life" is the common treatment for Sickle-Cell Anemia.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Which disorder is caused by a mutation on chromosome 4?

a)

Phenylketonuria

b)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

c)

Cystic Fibrosis

d)

Huntington's Disease

67.

The inability to process the amino acid phenylalanine is central to

a)

phenylketonuria

b)

sickle-cell anemia

c)

huntington's disease

d)

none of these

68.

Which disorder is caused by a mutation on chromosome 12?

a)

Phenylketonuria

b)

Huntington's Disease

c)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

d)

Cystic Fibrosis

69.

True or False: It is very important for individuals with PKU to avoid protein-based foods.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

What is the typical treatment for an individual with PKU?

a)

a special diet

b)

injections of clotting factors

c)

palliative care

d)

insulin

71.

True or False: If a special diet is not strictly followed for individuals with PKU, severe mental impairment can occur.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Which disorder is caused by a mutation on chromosome 11?

a)

Huntington's Disease

b)

Tay Sachs Disease

c)

PKU

d)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

73.

Which disorder is caused my mutations in the HBB gene located on chromosome 11?

a)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

b)

Tay Sachs Disease

c)

Cystic Fibrosis

d)

none of these

74.

This disorder results in misshapen red blood cells that die off quicker than normal.

a)

Huntington's Disease

b)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

c)

Tay Sachs Disease

d)

none of these

75.

Delayed growth, vision problems, jaundice, pain, hypertension, heart disease, and stroke are just a few of the possible symptoms with

a)

Fragile X Syndrome

b)

Sickle-Cell Anemia

c)

Turner Syndrome

d)

Klinefelter Syndrome

76.

Which disorder is more common in individuals from easter and central european Jewish descent?

a)

Tay Sachs Disease

b)

Sickle Cell Anemia

c)

Huntington's Disease

d)

none of these

77.

This disorder is caused by mutations in the HEXA gene which is responsible for making an enzyme that acts as a garbage disposal in the nervous system.

a)

Huntington's Disease

b)

Down Syndrome

c)

Sicks-Cell Anemia

d)

none of these

78.

Which disorder affects chromosome 15?

a)

Sickle Cell Anemia

b)

Huntington's Disease

c)

Cystic Fibrosis

d)

Tay Sachs Disease

79.

Symptoms of this disorder include fairly normal development for the first 3-6 months of age and then regression.

a)

Tay Sachs Disease

b)

Huntington's Disease

c)

Klinefelter's Syndrome

d)

Down Syndrome

80.

Typically, death from this disorder occurs early, with an average life expectancy of 5 years old.

a)

Huntington's Disease

b)

Cystic Fibrosis

c)

Tay Sachs Disease

d)

none of these

81.

True or False: There is a cure for Tay Sachs Disease.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

True or False: There is a cure for Huntington's Disease.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

True or False: A lung transplant will cure Cystic Fibrosis.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Which prenatal testing procedure uses high frequency sound waves to generate a picture of the offspring?

a)

ultrasound

b)

amniocentesis

c)

chorionic villus sampling

d)

noninvasive prenatal testing

85.

True or False: Most pregnant women un the United States will undergo at least one prenatal ultrasound.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

This prenatal testing procedure can be conducted between 15 and 18 weeks gestation and samples the amniotic fluid.

a)

ultrasound

b)

amniocentesis

c)

chorionic villus sampling

d)

none of these

87.

This prenatal testing procedure can be conducted between 9 and 12 weeks gestation and samples the membrane that surrounds the fetus.

a)

ultrasound

b)

amniocentesis

c)

chorionic villus sampling

d)

noninvasive prenatal testing

88.

True or False: It is considered safe to perform the chorionic villus sampling at 4 weeks gestation.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

True or False: There are no risks associated with amniocentesis.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

True or False: Noninvasive prenatal testing is considered to be just as accurate as amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling.

a)

True

b)

False