Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

N110 Final Exam Review ?'s

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The nurse is defining nursing to a group of high-school students. Which statement best describes nursing as a profession?

a)

Nursing focuses primarily on technical skills, like inserting IVs.

b)

Nursing combines scientific knowledge with compassionate care and ethical practice.

c)

Nursing requires minimal formal education and is easily learned on the job.

d)

Nursing is limited to hospitals and acute-care settings.

2.

A new graduate is preparing a continuing education portfolio to maintain licensure. Which document sets the national standards for nursing practice that the nurse should reference?

a)

State Nurse Practice Act

b)

Facility policy manual

c)

ANA Standards of Practice

d)

NCSBN Accreditation Guidelines

3.

An RN is caring for four clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following tasks can the RN safely delegate to Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP)? Select all that apply

a)

Measuring and recording vital signs on a stable client

b)

Performing the initial admission assessment on a new client

c)

Ambulating a stable post-op client to the bathroom

d)

Assisting a confused client with a bedpan

e)

Providing oral hygiene to a client

4.

A client asks the nurse, “Who enforces the Nurse Practice Act in our state?” The nurse’s best response is:

a)

Your hospital administration.

b)

The State Board of Nursing.

c)

The American Nurses Association.

d)

The National Council of State Boards of Nursing.

5.

Which descriptions accurately illustrate levels of prevention? Select all that apply

a)

Deprescribing unnecessary medications in an elderly client (Quaternary)

b)

Implementing a smoking-cessation program in schools (Primary)

c)

Prescribing antibiotics for diagnosed pneumonia (Tertiary)

d)

Conducting blood pressure screenings at a health fair (Secondary)

e)

Administering immunizations at a community clinic (Primary)

6.

The nurse educator is teaching about the Code of Ethics. Which statement best reflects the purpose of the ANA Code of Ethics?

a)

To outline exact procedures for all nursing interventions

b)

To provide legal statutes for state licensure

c)

To guide ethical decision-making and uphold professional ideals

d)

To regulate nursing education programs

7.

A client with multiple chronic conditions requires coordination of home health, physical therapy, and dietary services. Which nursing role is primarily responsible?

a)

Case manager

b)

Staff nurse

c)

Nurse educator

d)

Charge nurse

8.

A hospital policy conflicts with an ANA standard regarding patient assignment. Which action should the nurse take first?

a)

Follow the hospital policy and document rationale.

b)

Contact the State Board of Nursing for guidance.

c)

Seek clarification from the unit manager about the conflict.

d)

Refuse to comply with either and escalate to risk management.

9.

The nurse uses open-ended questions, reflective listening, and summarizing during a client interview. Which type of communication is the nurse demonstrating?

a)

Assertive communication

b)

Therapeutic communication

c)

Collaborative communication

d)

Passive communication

10.

A nurse wants to practice evidence-based care. Which source is MOST appropriate to consult?

4 lines
11.

Which of the following are components of the cyclical communication process in nursing? Select all that apply

a)

C. Regulator

b)

E. Receiver

c)

D. Message

d)

B. Feedback

e)

A. Sender

12.

An LPN is administering routine medications under RN supervision. Which statement describes scope of practice as defined by most State Boards?

a)

LPNs may independently adjust IV drip rates.

b)

LPNs may initiate nursing diagnoses.

c)

LPNs may administer oral and IM medications under direction.

d)

LPNs may perform comprehensive client assessments.

13.

The Clinical Judgment Model (CJM) includes several steps. Which of the following is NOT a CJM step?

a)

Recognizing Cues

b)

Linking Cues to Hypotheses

c)

Generating Solutions

d)

Medication Administration

14.

Which tasks can the RN safely delegate to Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP)? Select all that apply

a)

Assisting a stable client with a bedpan

b)

Performing the initial head-to-toe assessment on a new admission

c)

Administering oral medications

d)

Measuring and recording vital signs on a stable client

e)

Providing hygiene care (bathing, oral care)

15.

A nurse implements an intervention to ensure patient safety by placing the bed in the lowest position and keeping the call light within reach. Which level of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is being addressed?

a)

Physiological Needs

b)

Safety Needs

c)

Belongingness and Love Needs

d)

Self-Actualization Needs

16.

At the start of a shift, four patients are assigned to the nurse. Which patient should be assessed first?

a)

A. A 78-year-old with atrial fibrillation, dizziness, HR 142 bpm, BP 90/58

b)

B. A 60-year-old with COPD, O₂ saturation 86% on room air

c)

C. A 25-year-old with flank pain and burning on urination, fever 102.4°F

d)

D. A 52-year-old with type 2 diabetes, blood glucose 372 mg/dL, thirst and polyuria

17.

During the 'Analyze Cues' step of the CJM, the nurse:

a)

Implements nursing interventions

b)

Evaluates patient outcomes

c)

Clusters data and identifies potential problems

d)

Determines long-term outcomes

18.

Which of the following are part of the Five Rights of Delegation? Select all that apply

a)

Right Circumstance

b)

Right Person

c)

Right Documentation

d)

Right Supervision/Evaluation

e)

Right Task

19.

Which of the following is an example of a nurse-initiated intervention?

a)

Administering acetaminophen per physician order

b)

Teaching deep breathing exercises to a postoperative client

c)

Changing a dressing per provider’s prescription

d)

Referring a patient to social services

20.

Which assessment techniques are appropriate during a head-to-toe physical exam? Select all that apply

a)

Auscultation (listening)

b)

Percussion (tapping)

c)

Palpation (feeling)

d)

Inspection (looking)

e)

Interviewing the patient

21.

A nurse sets a long-term outcome for a patient to achieve by discharge. Which statement best describes a long-term outcome?

a)

Achieved by the end of the shift

b)

Achieved by discharge

c)

Achieved within 4 hours

d)

Achieved immediately

22.

Which delegation statement is accurate?

a)

UAPs can collect vital signs for a stable client

b)

LPNs can develop a nursing care plan independently

c)

RNs can delegate initial patient assessments

d)

UAPs can administer oral medications unsupervised

23.

In the 'Evaluate' step of the nursing process, if expected outcomes are not met, the nurse should:

a)

Terminate the care plan

b)

Modify the care plan

c)

Continue the care plan unchanged

d)

All of the above

24.

A nurse is explaining the principle of autonomy to a patient. Which statement best reflects autonomy?

a)

A. “I will decide for you what treatments are best.”

b)

B. “You have the right to make your own healthcare decisions.”

c)

C. “I need to withhold information for your safety.”

d)

D. “Your family will decide for you.”

25.

The nurse adheres to the ethical principle of nonmaleficence by:

a)

Administering pain medication as prescribed.

b)

Ensuring accurate hand hygiene before procedures.

c)

Documenting patient preferences in the chart.

d)

Providing unlimited patient education.

26.

Which of the following are core values in the ANA Code of Ethics? Select all that apply

a)

Autonomy

b)

Veracity

c)

Collaboration

d)

Fidelity

e)

Justice

27.

A patient has a living will and appoints a healthcare proxy. The nurse’s best action is to:

a)

Ignore the living will if family disagrees.

b)

Follow the documented wishes and proxy decisions.

c)

Ask the provider to overrule the proxy.

d)

Immediately discontinue all life-sustaining treatments.

28.

A nurse suspects that a patient’s advance directive is not on file. Which action should the nurse take first?

a)

Ask the patient if they have one and where it is located.

b)

Proceed with care without it.

c)

Contact risk management.

d)

Inform the family to provide it.

29.

Under EMTALA, hospitals must:

a)

Provide screening and stabilizing treatment to all presenting patients.

b)

Transfer patients without consent if no bed is available.

c)

Deny care to uninsured patients.

d)

Charge patients before treatment.

30.

Which actions by a nurse require an incident report? Select all that apply.

a)

A nurse documents a late dressing change.

b)

A near miss with mislabeled specimen.

c)

A patient falls but refuses treatment.

d)

A verbal order is clarified with the provider.

e)

A patient receives the wrong medication dose.

31.

A nurse breaks confidentiality by sharing patient information with a friend. This is an example of:

a)

Good Samaritan act.

b)

Intentional tort.

c)

Unintentional tort.

d)

Regulatory compliance.

32.

Which statement describes the nurse’s role in informed consent?

a)

Ensuring the patient signs before any explanation.

b)

Witnessing the signature and verifying understanding.

c)

Making decisions if the patient is indecisive.

d)

Completing the procedure immediately.

33.

A nurse is caring for a terminal patient who requests increased pain medication beyond the max order. Which ethical action should the nurse take?

a)

Administer extra medication to relieve pain.

b)

Refuse and ignore the request.

c)

Discuss with provider to advocate for pain management.

d)

Tell the patient it’s not your decision.

34.

Which elements are required for valid informed consent? Select all that apply

a)

A. Disclosure of risks and benefits.

b)

B. Patient competence.

35.

In the event of suspected child abuse, the nurse’s first legal responsibility is to:

a)

Notify the child’s family.

b)

Document and report to protective services.

c)

Wait for provider confirmation.

d)

Call the police only.

36.

A nurse fails to follow hospital protocol and a patient is harmed. This breach of duty is classified as:

a)

Malpractice.

b)

Slander.

c)

Good Samaritan.

d)

Assisted negligence.

37.

Which statements accurately describe the Good Samaritan Law protections? Select all that apply.

a)

Varies by state legislation.

b)

Does not cover gross negligence.

c)

Requires formal provider credentialing.

d)

Protects for reasonable, good-faith emergency care.

e)

Applies only if the nurse is on duty.

38.

After implementing nursing interventions, the nurse evaluates outcomes and finds goals unmet. The nurse should:

a)

Terminate the care plan.

b)

Revise the plan to address barriers.

c)

Document and continue unchanged.

d)

Discharge the patient immediately.

39.

A nurse uses the ISBARR framework when handing off a patient. What does the second 'R' stand for?

a)

Reporting

b)

Read-back

c)

Reassessment

d)

Referral

40.

Which communication style involves expressing needs clearly and respectfully while considering patient rights?

a)

Aggressive

b)

Assertive

c)

Passive

d)

Passive-aggressive

41.

Which of the following are components of therapeutic communication? Select all that apply

4 lines
42.

A nurse recognizes that cultural differences can act as a communication barrier. What is an appropriate intervention?

a)

Speak loudly to ensure understanding

b)

Use medical jargon to maintain professionalism

c)

Employ a professional interpreter

d)

Assume nodding means comprehension

43.

During a noisy emergency department shift, the nurse relocates to a quieter area to explain discharge instructions. Which barrier is the nurse addressing?

a)

Emotional barrier

b)

Physical barrier

c)

Cultural barrier

d)

Time constraint barrier

44.

The nurse is teaching a patient using the teach-back method. Which documentation should be included?

a)

Patient repeated instructions accurately

b)

Patient verbalized confusion only

c)

Patient was given a pamphlet

d)

Patient initials on consent form

45.

Which documentation method focuses on recording only abnormal findings?

a)

SOAP charting

b)

Narrative charting

c)

Charting by exception

d)

PIE charting

46.

A nurse asks a colleague, “Can you explain what you meant by 'pending lab results'?” Which communication technique is this?

a)

Reflection

b)

Confrontation

c)

Clarification

d)

Broad opening

47.

A nurse documenting a phone order uses read-back to prevent errors. Which legal principle does this illustrate?

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Accountability

c)

Informed consent

d)

Nonmaleficence

48.

Which statement describes a nontherapeutic communication technique?

a)

A. “Tell me more about how you feel.”

b)

B. “You always exaggerate your pain.”

c)

C. “I understand this is hard for you.”

d)

D. “What else concerns you today?”

49.

A nurse using SBAR states, “He’s complaining of chest pain radiating to his jaw.” What component is this?

a)

Situation

b)

Background

c)

Assessment

d)

Recommendation

50.

Which practices help maintain confidentiality in electronic health records? Select all that apply

a)

Logging off the computer when unattended

b)

Using strong, unique passwords

c)

Accessing only assigned patient charts

d)

Sharing login credentials with team

e)

Emailing patient information in plain text

51.

After implementing a care plan, the nurse evaluates and finds outcomes unmet. What is the next step?

a)

Terminate the care plan

b)

Modify the care plan

c)

Continue unchanged

d)

Discharge patient

52.

Which stage of Piaget’s Cognitive Development Theory is characterized by object permanence and sensorimotor exploration?

a)

Preoperational

b)

Sensorimotor

c)

Concrete Operational

d)

Formal Operational

53.

According to Erikson’s psychosocial development theory, which conflict is experienced during older adulthood?

4 lines
54.

Which of the following are common defense mechanisms? Select all that apply

a)

Rationalization

b)

Projection

c)

Repression

d)

Advocacy

e)

Denial

55.

The nurse teaches a patient deep-breathing exercises and guided imagery to manage stress. These interventions exemplify:

a)

Maladaptive coping

b)

Primary appraisal

c)

Adaptive coping

d)

Secondary appraisal

56.

A patient begins to grieve in anticipation of a terminal illness diagnosis before it occurs. This is known as:

a)

Disenfranchised grief

b)

Anticipatory grief

c)

Complicated grief

d)

Normal grief

57.

During the bargaining stage of Kubler-Ross’s model, a patient is most likely to:

a)

Refuse to believe the diagnosis

b)

Express anger at family members

c)

Make promises in hopes of reversing loss

d)

Accept the reality of the situation

58.

Which components are part of the Dual Process Model of grief? Select all that apply

a)

Oscillation between processes

b)

Relationship-centered processes

c)

Restoration-oriented processes

d)

Loss-oriented processes

e)

Task-oriented processes

59.

When assessing how a patient copes with stress, the nurse asks, “What strategies have you used in the past to deal with similar challenges?” This question evaluates:

a)

Primary appraisal

b)

Secondary appraisal

c)

Tertiary prevention

d)

Transactional analysis

60.

Which physiological change is part of the 'fight or flight' response to stress?

4 lines
61.

A nurse instructs a client to journal feelings, practice yoga, and seek social support after a stressful event. These are examples of:

a)

Ineffective coping

b)

Maladaptive defense mechanisms

c)

Adaptive coping strategies

d)

Psychosocial neglect

62.

According to Kohlberg’s Moral Development Theory, a child who follows rules to avoid punishment is operating at the:

a)

Post-conventional level

b)

Conventional level

c)

Pre-conventional level

d)

Transitional level

63.

A patient who remains unable to function in daily life one year after a significant loss is most likely experiencing:

a)

Normal grief

b)

Disenfranchised grief

c)

Prolonged grief disorder

d)

Anticipatory grief

64.

What is the primary difference between palliative care and hospice care?

a)

Palliative care only for cancer patients; hospice for any terminal illness

b)

Palliative care can be provided alongside curative treatment; hospice focuses on comfort when curative treatment ceases

c)

Hospice requires hospital admission; palliative is home-based only

d)

Palliative care is short-term; hospice care is long-term

65.

Health promotion is best described as:

a)

Treatment of disease after diagnosis.

b)

Actions to improve well-being before disease develops.

66.

The wellness-illness continuum illustrates:

a)

The stages of grief and loss.

b)

A range from optimal health to death.

c)

Levels of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs.

d)

The nursing process steps.

67.

Which are the three domains of learning in client education? Select 3 that apply

a)

Psychomotor

b)

Behavioral

c)

Affective

d)

Cognitive

e)

Sensory

68.

Healthy People 2030 is a federal initiative focused on:

a)

Establishing state nursing licensure requirements.

b)

Setting national health objectives for a decade.

c)

Providing clinical practice guidelines.

d)

Accrediting nursing education programs.

69.

Which factors affecting health status are modifiable? Select all that apply

a)

Poor nutrition

b)

Age

c)

Genetic predisposition

d)

Physical inactivity

e)

Tobacco use

70.

An example of tertiary prevention in respiratory health is:

a)

Administering influenza vaccinations annually.

b)

Screening for lung cancer with low-dose CT scans.

c)

Providing pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD clients.

d)

Educating about dangers of air pollution.

71.

The nurse’s role in health promotion includes all EXCEPT:

a)

Assessing risk factors.

b)

Implementing behavior-change strategies.

c)

Prescribing pharmacologic treatments independently.

d)

Advocating for healthy lifestyle behaviors.

72.

In the teaching process, the 'Plan' step involves:

a)

Evaluating learning outcomes.

b)

Determining learner’s baseline knowledge.

c)

Developing SMART educational objectives.

d)

Delivering the teaching content.

73.

A SMART learning objective example is:

a)

Patient will know how to use inhaler.

b)

Patient will demonstrate correct use of inhaler by discharge.

74.

Which strategies help address low health literacy and language barriers? Select all that apply

a)

Using Teach-Back method

b)

Providing plain-language handouts

c)

Employing certified medical interpreters

d)

Avoiding visual aids to reduce complexity

e)

Speaking quickly to save time

75.

When documenting client education, the nurse must include all EXCEPT:

a)

Date, time, and topic taught.

b)

Learner’s demonstration of skills.

c)

Patient’s willingness to pay for materials.

d)

Need for follow-up or referrals.

76.

The teach-back method is used to:

a)

Reassure the patient without evaluation.

b)

Confirm patient understanding by asking them to repeat information.

c)

Teach family members only.

d)

Provide written instructions only.

77.

In psychomotor domain teaching, the nurse should:

a)

Use lectures with no demonstration.

b)

Provide hands-on return demonstration practice.

c)

Focus solely on cognitive understanding.

d)

Avoid guided practice to encourage independence.

78.

Which represent levels of prevention? Select all that apply

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quinary

e)

Quaternary

79.

During the 'Evaluate' step of the teaching process, the nurse should:

a)

Revise the teaching plan if goals are not met.

b)

Assume learning occurred and discontinue teaching.

c)

Document only the content delivered.

d)

Ignore patient feedback.

80.

A nurse recognizes implicit bias when:

a)

They consciously choose to treat all patients the same.

b)

They have unexamined attitudes that influence care without awareness.

c)

They rely solely on patient self-report for assessment.

d)

They follow facility protocols for every patient.

81.

When using the LEARN model for culturally competent care, the 'A' stands for:

(a)  

82.

Which actions help mitigate health disparities among vulnerable populations? Select all that apply

a)

Coordinating transportation services

b)

Providing interpreter services

c)

Developing sliding-scale payment programs

d)

Offering the same resources to all patients

e)

Utilizing telehealth options

83.

A nurse is educating colleagues about health equity. The best definition is:

a)

Ensuring everyone receives identical resources.

b)

Providing resources based on individual needs to achieve similar outcomes.

c)

Limiting resources to only insured patients.

d)

Distributing resources randomly among patients.

84.

A migrant farmworker with limited English is admitted. The nurse’s priority intervention is:

a)

Asking a family member to interpret medical history.

b)

Using a certified medical interpreter for assessment.

c)

Providing written discharge instructions in English.

d)

Documenting language preference for future visits.

85.

In FICA spiritual assessment, the 'C' refers to:

a)

Comfort

b)

Community

c)

Creed

d)

Compassion

86.

Which components are part of Campinha-Bacote’s Process of Cultural Competence?

a)

Cultural Desire

b)

Cultural Encounters

c)

Cultural Imposition

d)

Cultural Knowledge

e)

Cultural Awareness

87.

A nurse notices a colleague making derogatory comments about a patient’s culture. This behavior is:

a)

Cultural sensitivity

b)

Cultural imposition

c)

Cultural blindness

d)

Cultural competence

88.

Which statement best exemplifies health literacy promotion?

a)

Using medical jargon when instructing patients.

b)

Providing materials at a 5th-grade reading level.

89.

A nurse implements a rainbow flag in the waiting area to demonstrate:

a)

Health equity

b)

Cultural imposition

c)

Inclusive environment

d)

Cultural blindness