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Worksheets

Food Science Mid-Term

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Hydroponic crops are grown

a)

In sandy soil

b)

Within containers that are suspended

c)

With roots suspended in liquid nutrient solutions

d)

Under artificial lights

2.

National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) program discoveries include

a)

Freezer-to-oven cookware

b)

Vacuum Packaging Techniques

c)

Teflon Coatings

d)

All of the Above

3.

Quick-freezing ice crystals are very large and can lead to poor food taste, appearance, and nutritive value?

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Food Security means keeping foods safe for Americans to consume?

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Who is responsible for the overall security of the nation and the American people?

a)

NASA

b)

FDA

c)

USDA

d)

DHS

6.

Global trading can bring safety risks to a nation's food supply?

a)

True

b)

False

7.

The timeline to turn an idea into a new product can take

a)

1 to 2 years

b)

2 to 3 years

c)

2 to 4 years

d)

3 to 5 years

8.

Who has the burden to increase the food production for the expanding world population?

a)

Sensory Specialist

b)

Reach Chef

c)

Dietetic

d)

Food Scientist

9.

Food substitutes can help people with dietary changes like diabetes and heart disease have more food choices?

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Many food organizations have agenda that are political in nature and may result in biased reporting?

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Biotechnology is the process of altering organisms to create new or improved products?

a)

True

b)

False

12.

The USDA organic seal on a food product means it is certified organic and has ___% or more organic content?

a)

100%

b)

95%

c)

80%

d)

70%

13.

What is the world's largest organization of food and nutrition professionals?

a)

FCCLA

b)

International Food Information Council

c)

USDA

d)

American Dietetic Association

14.

The International Food Information Council is a nonprofit organization?

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Food labeling regulations and compliances are controlled by

a)

IFIC

b)

ADA

c)

FDA

d)

Both FDA and USDA

16.

Manufacturers that do not follow regulations may

a)

be fined

b)

face recalls

c)

forced to close production plants

d)

all of the above

17.

Natural and organic terms are interchangeable and mean the same in the world of food?

a)

True

b)

False

18.

The FDA has a clear and concise definition of the term "natural" when it appears on labeling?

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Producers of organic livestock must

a)

Use 100% organic feed

b)

Provide access to the outdoors

c)

Meet all animal health and welfare sandards

d)

All of the above

20.

Prior to World War I most people could preserve foods only by

a)

dyring

b)

salting

c)

pickling

d)

all of the above

21.

Since a food label reads "organic" you should assume that the product is very nutritious and healthy for you?

a)

True

b)

False

22.

In the 1800's what was the percentage of farmers?

a)

5 out of 10

b)

2 out of 10

c)

9 out of 10

d)

1 out of 10

23.

With technology today two farmers can produce enough food for?

a)

25 people

b)

50 people

c)

75 people

d)

100 people

24.

In the development of food the women and children of early settlers help by

a)

plowing

b)

clearing land and debris

c)

seraching for fruits and nuts

d)

weeding

25.

The canning process was invented in ____?

a)

America

b)

England

c)

Russia

d)

France

26.

In 1812 which city opened the first canning plant in America?

a)

Chicago

b)

Jamestown

c)

New York

d)

Atlanta

27.

What event encouraged development and acceptance of food products?

a)

American Revolution

b)

Civil War

c)

World War I & II

d)

Korean War

28.

With mass food production and canning what became a widespread problem?

a)

Adulteration

b)

Pricing

c)

Delivery of food products

d)

Availability of food

29.

What was established in 1862 to oversee food production and agricultural research?

a)

FDA

b)

USDA

c)

CDC

d)

CEC

30.

Publication that offers safe food handling recommendations to anyone seeking information on the topic?

a)

US and World Report

b)

Everday Food with Racheal Ray

c)

FDA's Food Code

d)

Taste of Home

31.

The psychological factor linked with unpleasant food memories is believed to be protective mechanisms of the

a)

stomach

b)

small intestines

c)

taste buds

d)

brain

32.

Sweet tea is a cultural practice hat would mostly be found in which U.S. region

a)

Southeastern Region

b)

Northeastern Region

c)

Southwestern Region

d)

Northwestern Region

33.

Food Scientist conduct a subjective evaluation that is called ?

a)

Food Safety

b)

Nutrition Value

c)

Sensory Evaluation

d)

Caloric Intake

34.

Food preferences of most children are learned by their immediate surrounds as well as the foods exposed to them

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Brand name foods can cause bias in food products and are difficult for the marketplace to overcome

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Supertasters can have as many as ____ taste buds per square centimeter on the tongue?

a)

500

b)

800

c)

1100

d)

1500

37.

Sensory Evaluation is the human analysis of

a)

Taste

b)

Smell

c)

Sound

d)

All of the above

38.

Nontasters have been found to have as few as ____taste buds per square centimeter on the tongue?

a)

20

b)

30

c)

40

d)

50

39.

Food scientist have many tools that accurately measure whether people will like or dislike a food?

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Fluctuations in female hormone cycle during pregnancy could partially account for changes in food cravings and preferences?

a)

True

b)

False

41.

This texture refers to how well one part of food slides past another without breaking

a)

Firmness

b)

Chewiness

c)

Brittleness

d)

Consistency

42.

This sensory characteristics is what you see

a)

Texture

b)

Flavor

c)

Appearance

43.

The odor of the food is called

a)

Appearance

b)

Taste

c)

Aroma

d)

Texture

44.

This texture refers to the food's resistance to pressure

a)

firmness

b)

chewiness

c)

brittleness

d)

graininess

45.

Sensory Evaluations are very important;however, what the consumer desires is most important?

a)

True

b)

False

46.

This sensory starts in the mouth with the taste buds

a)

Apperance

b)

Aroma

c)

Taste

d)

Texture

47.

A penetrating probe is used to determine the quality of

a)

vegetables

b)

fruits

c)

beef

d)

grains

48.

Odors reach the olfactory bulb through

a)

nose and back of the mouth

b)

nose and eyes

c)

back of the mouth and ears

d)

back of the mouth and eyes

49.

Sour foods are evaluated in terms of their

a)

appearance

b)

astringency

c)

aroma

d)

texture

50.

Color of food can be measured exactly through a

a)

probe

b)

lights

c)

colorimeter

d)

compression machine

51.

Food's taste is related to the shape of the molecules in the food?

a)

True

b)

False

52.

When researchers do not want the color of the food to influence a taste panel they incorporate the following

a)

blindfolds

b)

private taste panels

c)

colored lights

d)

extra large tables

53.

This texture refers to the size of the particles in the food product

a)

chewiness

b)

graininess

c)

firmness

d)

consistency

54.

The texture of a food cannot be evaluated objectively by measuring its resistance to force?

a)

True

b)

False

55.

The nose is capable of identifying

a)

50 to 60 smells

b)

100 to 200 smells

c)

500 to 800 smells

d)

1,000's of smells

56.

Appearance of a food is evaluated on both the exterior and interior parts of the product

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Babies are born preferring

a)

sweet taste

b)

sour taste

c)

bitter taste

d)

salty taste

58.

This texture is the thinness or thickness of a product and can be measured in terms of pourability

a)

graininess

b)

consistency

c)

brittleness

d)

chewiness

59.

Texture of a food can cause a reaction in a person whereas they despise the food based on the texture rather than the taste?

a)

True

b)

False

60.

If the olfactory bulb is stimulated more the intensity of the favor experience will intensity?

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Taste and aromas can linger so it's important to perform which aster each taste sample?

a)

sip cold water

b)

eat chocolate

c)

eat a small cookie

d)

sip warm water

62.

An untrained taste test panel is best for which scenario?

a)

A food scientist developing a new product

b)

A state employee grading cheese

c)

A manufacture determining if a product will sell

d)

A coffee industry recruiting supertasters

63.

The number of samples that a taste tester can evaluate at one time?

a)

2 to 3

b)

4 to 5

c)

7 to 9

d)

12 to 15

64.

The maximum sweetness score for table sugar is recorded at what room temperature

a)

55 degree

b)

63 degree

c)

41 degree

d)

77 degree

65.

Which factors could sway a tester

a)

The environment of the tasting room

b)

Any psychological biases

c)

Influences from other tasters

d)

All of the above

66.

Group of people who evaluate the flavor, texture, appearance, and aroma of food products

a)

Food Scientist

b)

Nutritionist

c)

Taste Test Panel

d)

Dietitian

67.

Taste test panel only use professional trained testers to determine sensory ratings?

a)

True

b)

False

68.

During a taste test panel a tester should refrain from

a)

Making nonverbal signs to other testers

b)

Commenting on the taste of the food

c)

Using body language to express feelings about food tested

d)

All of the above

69.

During a taste test it is an acceptable practice to allow other aromas in the room?

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Food manufacturers may want to know why a panel member gives a product a low rating to improve the sample

a)

True

b)

False

71.

All sources of energy in your diet are organic compounds?

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Scientists have discovered that all living substances contain carbon?

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins are examples of inorganic compounds

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Organic compound examples are table salt, water, and minerals

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Mixtures can be categorized as

a)

Homogeneous

b)

Heterogeneous

c)

Both Homogeneous and Heterogeneous

76.

Chemical changes occur whenever new substances with different chemical and physical properties are formed

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Physical changes involve changing shape, physical state, size or temperature without changing the chemical identity

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Mixtures are substances that are put together but not chemically combined

a)

True

b)

False

79.

An example of homogeneous mixture is

a)

Vegetable soup

b)

Chili

c)

Mayonnaise

80.

An example of heterogeneous mixture is

a)

Mayonnaise

b)

Soft drink

c)

Vegetable Soup

81.

A _____ bond is the force that holds two atoms together?

a)

Covalent Bond

b)

Ionic Bond

c)

Chemical Bond

82.

_____ bonds are formed when atoms share one or more pairs of electrons

a)

Covalent Bond

b)

Ionic Bond

c)

Chemical Bond

83.

Substances with this type of bond will tend to dissolve in water

a)

Covalent Bond

b)

Ionic Bond

c)

Chemical Bond

84.

When two or more elements have chemically combined they are called

a)

Covalent Bond

b)

Ionic Bond

c)

Chemical Bond

d)

Compounds

85.

What does the symbol NaCl represent

a)

Table salt

b)

Baking soda

c)

Water

d)

Corn Starch

86.

Full shells are extremely stable and less likely to form a chemical bond?

a)

True

b)

False

87.

Outer shells that lack one electron will try to gain an electron

a)

True

b)

False

88.

_____bonds have electrons that transfer from one atom to another

a)

Covalent bond

b)

Ionic Bond

c)

Chemical Bond

89.

What does the symbol H20 represent

a)

Table Salt

b)

BAking Soda

c)

Water

d)

Corn Starch

90.

Atoms are more stable when the outer shell of electrons are full

a)

True

b)

False

91.

There are ____naturally occurring elements known on earth

a)

30

b)

60

c)

90

d)

120

92.

The smallest unit of any elemental substance that maintains the characteristics of that substance

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Atom

d)

Element

93.

A subatomic particle that has a positive electrical charge?

a)

Neutron

b)

Proton

c)

Element

d)

Orbital

94.

The symbol for many elements

a)

The last letter of the name of the element

b)

The first letter of the name of the element

c)

The first and last letter of the name of the element

95.

A subatomic particle that has an electrically neutral charge?

a)

Neutron

b)

Proton

c)

Element

d)

Orbital

96.

Electrons prefer to move

a)

singularly

b)

in pairs

c)

groups of three

97.

The space occupied by a pair of electrons in an atom is called

a)

Nucleus

b)

Element

c)

Protons

d)

Orbital

98.

The number of protons in the nucleus is called

a)

Atomic mass

b)

Atomic number

c)

nucleus

d)

orbital

99.

Some elements symbol come from other languages for example K=

a)

Iron

b)

Carbon

c)

Potassium

100.

How does energy from the sun reach the earth?

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

All of the above

101.

A second letter from the name of the element is added to identify repeating letters? Ex: Calcium = Ca

a)

True

b)

False

102.

Metal is a

a)

Microwave

b)

convection

c)

conductor

d)

insulator

103.

Wood is a

a)

microwave

b)

convection

c)

conductor

d)

insulator

104.

Heat always moves from

a)

A warmer place to a cooler place

b)

A cooler place to a warmer place

105.

When you heat a metal strip at one end, the heat will not travel to the other end?

a)

True

b)

False

106.

When metal is heated the electrons gain _____energy?

a)

Potential energy

b)

external energy

c)

Internal energy

d)

Kinetic energy

107.

Which type of current sets up in a frig?

a)

convection current

b)

conduction energy

c)

Radiant energy

d)

kinetic energy

108.

In which of the following are particles closest together?

a)

Solids

b)

Liquids

c)

Gases

d)

Fluids

109.

Which is the best surface for reflecting heat radiation

a)

Shiny White

b)

Dull White

c)

Shiny black

d)

dull Black

110.

Which is the best surface for absorbing heat radiation

a)

Shiny white

b)

dull white

c)

shiny black

d)

dull black

111.

The transfer of heat by the motion of fluids such as air or water

a)

convection

b)

conduction

c)

radiation

112.

The transfer of heat when molecules collide with one another

a)

Convection

b)

Conduction

c)

Radiation

113.

Suspend a food in boiling water for a short time to kill the enzymes in the food.

a)

Baking

b)

pasteurization

c)

blanching

114.

The technique of prolonged cooking of food by dry heat acting by convection, and not by radiation, normally in an oven

a)

Radiation

b)

Blanching

c)

Baking

d)

Pasteurization

115.

Refrigeration is a type of cold processing when the temperature is 40 or below therefore slowing the growth of bacteria

a)

True

b)

False

116.

Applying a low heat to destroy pathogenic microorganisms and stop enzyme activity

a)

Baking

b)

blancing

c)

pasteurization

117.

Placing to many pans in an oven can block hot air circulation?

a)

True

b)

False

118.

Freezing may change texture of foods due to large formation of ice crystals.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

Freezer burn is when foods lose moisture becoming tough and dry?

a)

True

b)

False

120.

Frozen foods can be kept for many years in a frozen state?

a)

True

b)

False