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Env Science A-Level End of Course Quiz

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 1hrs 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The roles of an SSSI are (pick two)

a)

To protect best examples of UK flora and fauna

b)

to include a management plan if carrying out OLD - operation likely to damage

c)

to protect only wetlands and waterfowl

d)

designated under the EU directive

2.

Special protected Areas (SPA) are (pick 2)

a)

Designated under UK legislation

b)

Designated under EU Birds directive

c)

to protect only wetlands

d)

to protect areas that are internationally important to bird species.

3.

Special Areas of conservation (SACs) are (pick 2)

a)

Designated under UK legislation

b)

Designated under EU Habitats directive

c)

to identify habitats that are internationally important

d)

Best examples of UK flora and fauna

4.

Ramsar sites are (pick two)

a)

Intergovernmental agreements

b)

designed to protect wetlands and waterfowl

c)

designated by EU habitat directives

d)

designated by UK legislation

5.

Not a method of habitat conservation

a)

SSSi (Site of Special Scientific Interest)

b)

NNR (National Nature reserve)

c)

SAC (Special area of Conservation)

d)

AONB (Area of outstanding natural beauty)

e)

Ramsar site

6.

Hard release breeding programs involve...

a)

no post release support

b)

provision of food

c)

provision of nests

d)

limited and then reduced provision of food and nests

7.

Soft release breeding programmes involve... (select 2)

a)

no post release support

b)

gradual release into larger areas

c)

provision of food

d)

introduction of predators to stimulate natural hiding behaviours

8.

NOT a Reason why keeping species in captivity maybe difficult

a)

Habitat size requirements

b)

Food requirements

c)

Financial constraints

d)

Needing to control specific abiotic conditions

e)

Lack public interest.

9.

IUCN stands for

a)

International Union for cultivating nature

b)

International Union for conservation of nature

c)

International Universal conservation of nature

d)

Important upholdment of culturing nature

10.

Introduced species may cause a threat to indigenous species due to... (Select three)

a)

Carrying disease

b)

overcompetition of food resources

c)

predation on indigenous species

d)

introducing new food sources

11.

Flagship species are...

a)

species that have a high public profile.

b)

species that a vital to the existence of a community

c)

species that can host an armada of other species within its community

d)

are a vital component to ocean habitats

12.

The main aims of the International Whaling Commission is achieved by (select 3)

a)

total protection of some species

b)

designating whale sanctuaries

c)

setting limits for numbers of whales that can be caught

d)

banning all countries from whaling altogether

13.

A keystone species is

a)

A species that is important in maintaining the ecological structure of a population

b)

A species that is important in maintaining the ecological structure of a community

c)

A species that has a high public profile

d)

A species that is evolutionary unique

14.

The roles of a biological corridor are (select 3)

a)

to link habitats that may have been fragmented

b)

to help to mix different populations and gene pools

c)

to allow re-colonisation

d)

to channel a species into one particular area and remove from another

15.

Abiotic factors include

a)

Dissolved oxygen

b)

pH

c)

Salinity

d)

Predators

16.

Which of the following is an example of a sustainable forest management practice?

a)

Clear-cutting

b)

Monoculture plantations

c)

Selective logging

d)

Illegal logging

17.

What is the main purpose of a forest certification system?

a)

To promote illegal logging

b)

To ensure sustainable forest management

c)

To eliminate all logging activities

d)

To maximize timber extraction

18.

Which of the following is a direct economic benefit of forests?

a)

Carbon sequestration

b)

Ecotourism

c)

Oxygen production

d)

Water purification

19.

Which of the following is an example of an ecosystem service provided by forests?

a)

Noise pollution

b)

Air pollution

c)

Water purification

d)

Soil degradation

20.

What is the term used to describe the planting of trees in an area that was previously deforested?

a)

Afforestation

b)

Reforestation

c)

Deforestation

d)

Desertification

21.

Which of the following is a method used to estimate the age of a tree?

a)

Counting the number of leaves

b)

Measuring the tree's height

c)

Counting the annual growth rings

d)

Estimating the tree's weight

22.

Deforestation affects the hydrological cycle by:

a)

Increasing interception and transpiration and decreasing surface runoff

b)

Increasing precipitation and transpiration and increasing surface runoff

c)

Decreasing precipitation and surface runoff and increasing transpiration

d)

Decreasing interception and transpiration and increasing surface runoff

23.

Advantage of using non-indigenous species for forest plantations

a)

Loss of habitats and niches

b)

Less competition from other species so higher yield

c)

Reduction of biodiversity

d)

More habitats and niches increasing biodiversity

24.

Lasky's Principle

a)

as the purity of the mineral increases the cut off or grade increases

b)

as the purity of the mineral decreases cut off ore grade decreases

c)

as the purity of the mineral increases the amount increases exponentially

d)

as the purity of the mineral decreases, the amount increases exponentially

25.

Alluvial deposits are

a)

minerals dissolved in solution and deposited depending on their oxidative state.

b)

produced by high heat and pressure

c)

produced by evaporation of seawater leaving crystals behind

d)

carried and separated out by flowing water.

26.

Hydrothermal deposition includes? (more than one)

a)

Intrusions and fissures away from a batholith

b)

Superheated pressurised water

c)

Fractional crystallisation

d)

Sedimentation

e)

Evaporites

27.

Sedimentary Rock

a)

Created by existing rocks being subjected to immense pressure and temperature

b)

Created by minerals settling out, deposited and cemented.

c)

Created by the cooling and hardening of magma or lava

d)

Created by minerals in solution, then water evaporating.

28.

Igneous Rock

a)

Created by the cooling and hardening of magma or lava

b)

Created by minerals settling out, deposited and cemented.

c)

Created by existing rocks being subjected to immense pressure and temperature

d)

Created by minerals in solution, then water evaporating.

29.

Metamorphic rock

a)

Created by the cooling and hardening of magma or lava

b)

Created by existing rocks being subjected to immense pressure and temperature

c)

Created by minerals settling out, deposited and cemented.

d)

Created by minerals in solution, then water evaporating.

30.

Detect variations in forces produced by variations in density and mass of rocks and minerals.

a)

IR spectrometry

b)

Seismic Surveys

c)

Gravimetry

d)

Trial drilling

31.

Embankment or baffle mounds in mining are used for

a)

Noise reduction

b)

preventing land slides

c)

preventing leaching

d)

reducing turbidity of drainage water

32.

The rock that lies above a mineral deposit is called

a)

COOG

b)

Overburden

c)

Spoil Heap

d)

baffle mounds

33.

What word defines the amount of mineral that can be exploited now, economically, using existing technology?

a)

Stock

b)

Reserve

c)

Resource

d)

Product

e)

Produce

34.

Nitrogen is important in living things as it is a component of: (select two)

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins and Amino acids

c)

Lipids

d)

DNA

35.

What is the largest reservoir of Nitrogen?

a)

Atmosphere

b)

Ocean

c)

Rocks and minerals

d)

Living organisms

36.

The process where ammonia is converted to nitrites and then to nitrates is called...

a)

ammonification

b)

nitrification

c)

denitrification

d)

nitrogen fixation

37.

The process where nitrogen gas is converted from the atmosphere into ammonia is called...

a)

ammonification

b)

nitrification

c)

denitrification

d)

nitrogen fixation

38.

What type of process is most likely to occur in the soil when there is low oxygen?

a)

nitrogen fixation

b)

nitrification

c)

denitrification

d)

ammonification

39.

Nitrogen in the atmosphere can be fixed through an industrial process called...

a)

The dagobah process

b)

The Haber process

c)

The mos eisley process

d)

The Hoth process

40.

Leguminous plants have a mutualistic bacteria which help fix nitrogen. These bacteria are ...

a)

Rhizobium

b)

Nitrosomonas

c)

Nitrobacter

d)

Azotobacter

41.

Examples of leguminous plants are...

a)

carrots and corn

b)

potatoes

c)

Tomotos

d)

Peas and beans

42.

Organic fertilizers include (select three)

a)

manure

b)

sewage

c)

waste food

d)

lime

43.

The layer of the Atmosphere that contains the Ozone layer

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

44.

99.9% of all the gases of the atmosphere are found in which two layers of the atmosphere?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

45.

If there was no greenhouse effect what would the mean temperature of the Earth's surface be?

a)

4 degrees colder

b)

33 degrees colder

c)

75 degrees colder

d)

100 degrees colder

46.

Select the main gases that act as greenhouse gases

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Methane

c)

Water vapour

d)

Oxygen

e)

Stratospheric Ozone

47.

What causes sea level rise? Select the most appropriate answers

a)

All ice melting from the arctic

b)

All land ice melting

c)

Thermal Expansion of seawater

d)

All Land and sea Ice melting

e)

Thermal expansion of freshwater

48.

The reflective abilities of a surface is known as?

a)

Labedo

b)

Lamada

c)

Granada

d)

Alemo

e)

Albedo

49.

This involves taking an estimate of one factor that cannot be measured by using a related factor that can be measured.

a)

False data

b)

Proxy data

c)

Credibe data

d)

Dobson data

e)

Fabricated data

50.

El Nino mainly affects which ocean current?

a)

North Pacific

b)

South Pacific

c)

North Atlantic

d)

South Atlantic

e)

South East Indian Ocean

51.

CFCs are man made chemicals. What were they used for? Select the correct statements

a)

Propellants

b)

Refrigerators

c)

Manufacturing of fertilizers

d)

Air conditioning units

e)

Paint thinners

52.

How is ozone formed in the stratosphere?

a)

An Oxygen molecule absorbs UV and splits into two atoms. One atom then combines with another oxygen molecule.

b)

Ozone molecule absorbs infrared to become oxygen. Two oxygen molecules combine to reform ozone.

c)

An Oxygen molecule absorbs infra red and splits into two atoms. One atom then combines with another oxygen molecule.

d)

An Oxygen atom absorbs UV and splits into two molecules forming ozone

53.

The name of the agreement in which all members of the UN signed to limit and phase out the use of CFCs

a)

Paris Agreement

b)

COP 87

c)

Montpellier Treaty

d)

G8 87

e)

Montreal Protocol

54.

Unit to measure Ozone

a)

Johnson Unit

b)

Thompson Unit

c)

Robson Unit

d)

Dobson Unit

e)

Armason Unit

55.

Examples of positive feedback mechanisms that will lead to increase global temperatures.

a)

ocean acidification

b)

melting of permafrost

c)

increased soil decomposition

d)

higher rates of photosynthesis removing carbon from the atmosphere

e)

Increase in the release of methane hydrate from the oceans

56.

Involves the use of adaptations from other species to improve designs manufactured items.

a)

Bioengineering

b)

Biomimetics

c)

Bio Geoengineering

d)

Biophysics

e)

biochemical engineering

57.

Name that cycle: The one needed for the building of cells.

a)

Nitrogen Cycle

b)

Water Cycle

c)

Carbon Cycle

d)

Oxygen Cycle

58.
What process do most producers, including plants and green algae, use to create their own food?
a)
nitrogen fixation
b)
cellular respiration
c)
photosynthesis
d)
eutrophication
59.
The amount of matter in the environment
a)
increases sometimes and decreases other times.
b)
usually increases.
c)
usually decreases.
d)
always stays the same.
60.

What year was the Antarctica treaty signed?

a)

1939

b)

1945

c)

1959

d)

1979

61.
In which biome would you MOST LIKELY find this organism?
a)
savanna
b)
tropical rainforest
c)
temperate grassland
d)
tundra
62.

Which land biome do we live in?

a)

Grassland

b)

Tundra

c)

Deciduous Forest

d)

Taiga

63.
Which of the following is an example of a nonrenewable natural resource?
a)
wind energy
b)
sunlight
c)
natural gas
d)
geothermal energy
64.
What is it called when plants give off water vapor as a waste product?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
sublimation
d)
transpiration
65.

What is the role of the sun in the water cycle?

a)

provide heat energy for evaporation

b)

provide heat energy for condensation

c)

dry out the soil for runoff to occur

d)

provide thermal energy for accumulation

66.

During evaporation, water changes from a _________ to a __________.

a)

solid, liquid

b)

gas, liquid

c)

liquid, gas

d)

liquid, solid

67.

What is shown by letter D in the diagram?

a)

runoff

b)

groundwater

c)

melting

d)

vapor

68.
The two main agents of erosion are...
a)
wind and flowing water
b)
gravity and frost wedging
c)
oxygen and water
d)
carbon dioxiede and wind
69.
Which of the following is the correct order of soil particles in order of increasing particle size?
a)
clay-sand-silt
b)
sand-clay-silt
c)
silt-clay-sand
d)
clay-silt-sand
70.
Soil sample that is 60% clay, 30% silt, and 10% sand has which texture? 
a)
clay
b)
clay loam
c)
sandy loam
d)
silt 
71.
Which is the correct order of soil horizons starting at the surface?
a)
A, B, E,C, O
b)
O, A, B, C, E
c)
O, E, A, B, C
d)
O, A, E, B, C
72.
The deep, underlying non-soil materials
a)
B horizon
b)
E horizon
c)
O horizon
d)
Bedrock
73.
The layer where minerals that were leached out of layers above accumulate
a)
A horizon
b)
B horizon
c)
E horizon
d)
O horizon
74.
A mixture of soil, loam, and detritus; the topsoil
a)
A horizon
b)
B horizon
c)
E horizon
d)
O horizon
75.

The rate at which water flows through the soil is called soil percolation or ______.

a)

Groundwater

b)

Permeability

c)

Soil Pores

d)

Porosity

76.
Which soil component has the least capacity for holding water?
a)
silt
b)
clay
c)
sand
d)
humus
77.

The layer(s) of soil in which most of the humus and soil organisms are contained:

1- leaf litter, horizon O

2- topsoil, horizon A

3- subsoil, horizons B and C

a)

1 only

b)

2 only

c)

1 and 2 only

d)

2 and 3 only

e)

1, 2, and 3

78.
_______ is the type of soil used most often with plants and on farms. It is a mixture of clay, sand, and silt.
a)
loam
b)
humus
c)
soil
d)
dirt
79.
Ellen grabs a topsoil sample in her hand. She rolls it into a ball. The soil feels gritty and the ball falls apart. What part of the topsoil most likely made the topsoil feel gritty?
a)
clay
b)
sand
c)
silt
d)
humus
80.
When plants, animals, and other organisms die, they break down and become part of the soil. What is this part of the soil called?
a)
sand
b)
silt
c)
clay
d)
humus
81.
You dig a small hole in the soil and the next day it rains. The hole fills with water, but does not empty even after several days of dry weather. What is the soil mostly made of?
a)
clay
b)
sand
c)
humus
d)
silt
82.
Water gets into the cracks of rock and freezes, causing the rock to break.  What is this an example of?
a)
erosion
b)
weathering
83.
Soil is made of
a)
weathered rocks and minerals
b)
dead plants and animals
c)
air and water
d)
all of the above
84.
Soil formation begins with the weathering of_______.
a)
Humas
b)
Subsoil
c)
Litter
d)
Rock
85.
Which horizon is made up of partially weathered rocks?
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)
Horizon D or R
86.

Which horizon contains clay, silt, and minerals, and is commonly referred to as subsoil?

a)

Horizon A

b)

Horizon B

c)

Horizon C

d)

Horizon D or R

87.

Porosity is a measure of void space in a soil sample. Larger soil particles have larger void spaces. Smaller soil particles have smaller pore spaces, but a greater number of them, which leads to higher surface tension and higher % porosity. With this is mind, which statement is true:

a)

Sandy soil has a higher porosity than clay soil

b)

Sandy soil has a higher porosity than silty soil

c)

Clay soil has a higher porosity than sandy soil

d)

Porosity is directly proportional to soil particle size

88.

Fungi are autotrophs, true or false?

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Plants’ green color is caused by what?

a)

chlorophyll

b)

algae

c)

proteins

d)

hormones

90.

How many steps are there in the nitrogen cycle?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

91.
Your Ecological or Carbon Footprint is the ratio of 
a)
the amount of resources you use to the amount of resources available
b)
how many people there are on earth to how much space we have on earth
c)
people to cars
d)
robots available to robots needed
92.
Which is NOT a way to decrease your ecological footprint?
a)
Eating less meat and processed foods
b)
Walking or biking to school
c)
Turning off electricity and water when you're not using it. 
d)
Driving a large car around for fun.
93.
The variety of life in the world, a habitat, or an ecosystem
a)
biodiversity
b)
ecosystem
c)
mutations
d)
diversity
94.

The main idea of sustainability is to act responsibly so that the resources on the planet will be able to _____________many generations to come.

a)

feed

b)

wipe out

c)

support

d)

clothe

95.
What is the difference between biotic and abiotic?
a)
Biotic are non-living things
b)
Abiotic are living organisms
c)
Biotic is life,
Abiotic is non-living
d)
Biotic is non-living, Abiotic is living
96.
What term describes the positive benefits that wildlife or ecosystems provides to people?
a)
ecosystem services
b)
ecosystem
c)
biodiversity
97.

What is overfishing?

a)

The removal of bad fish from a environment

b)

The removal of fish/ species of fish from a body of water at a rate that the species can not replenish in time.

c)

The removal of dead fish from a body of water

98.

Quantitative is a research that based on ....

a)

measurements

b)

words

c)

opinions

d)

expressions

99.

A type of research that aims to explain and describe is a .... research.

a)

quantitative

b)

qualitative

c)

mixed methods

d)

none of the above

100.
What is the first step in the scientific method?
a)
Make an observation --> Question
b)
Design and conduct an experiment
c)
Make an hypothesis
d)
Share your results
101.
A testable prediction about a scientific investigation is a(n)
a)
Question
b)
Observation
c)
Hypothesis
d)
Experiment
102.

A variable that is changed in a scientific experiment.

a)

Controlled Variable

b)

Independent Variable

c)

Dependent Variable

d)

Scientific Experiment

103.
A(n) _____________ variable depends on or is changed by another variable.
a)
dependent
b)
independent
104.

Which of the following describe a habitat with a high diversity index?

a)

simple food chains

b)

large number of species present

c)

organisms present have very specific adaptations to the habitat

d)

many ecological niches

105.

Which is more ecologically stable?

a)

an ecosystem with high biodiversity

b)

an ecosystem with low biodiversity

106.

Which of the following are assumptions of the lincoln index?

a)

All organisms have equal chance of being captured

b)

All organisms are motile and move in the population

c)

Marked individuals are randomly distributed after release

d)

The population is stable in terms of growth

107.

What are limiting factors in an ecosystem?

a)

Factors that increase energy production

b)

Factors that decrease the need for resources

c)

Factors that determine the maximum population size an ecosystem can support

d)

Factors that ensure unlimited resources

108.

Why is the Greenhouse Effect essential for life on Earth?

a)

It allows Earth to capture warmth from the sun.

b)

It prevents all sunlight from entering Earth's atmosphere.

c)

It increases the oxygen levels in the atmosphere.

d)

It protects Earth from solar flares.

109.
Question Image

Match the following

a)

Evaporation

1.

A

b)

Condensation

2.

B

c)

Precipitation

3.

C

d)

Transpiration

4.

D

e)

Groundwater

5.

E

110.

This is NOT a part of the phosphorus cycle.

a)

Phosphate is incorporated into sedimentary rocks

b)

Phosphate bound to soil

c)

Atmospheric phosphate

d)

Phosphate is absorbed from the soil by plants

111.

What is the carrying capacity of the graph?

a)

1000

b)

8000

c)

800

d)

600

112.

The major sink for phosphorus is

a)

sedimentary rock

b)

atmospheric gases

c)

seawater

d)

plants

113.

What is the first step in the water treatment process?

a)

Coagulation

b)

Filtration and removal of debris, sand, grit, etc.

c)

Fluoridation

d)

pH adjustment

114.
What does chlorination do to the water?
a)

Removes microorganisms.

b)

Cleans the water.

c)

Makes the water taste nice.

d)

Removes twigs and sediment.

115.

Towns and cities placed in valleys where mountains or hills prevent the wind from driving the photochemical smog away are called:

a)

Thermal conversion traps

b)

Thermal inversion traps

c)

Thermal retroversion traps

d)

Thermal retroversion traps

116.

Tropospheric ozone is an example of:

a)

A primary pollutant

b)

A secondary pollutant

c)

A tertiary pollutant

d)

Tropospheric ozone is not a pollutant

117.


What is the main pollutant formed in photochemical smog?

a)

tropospheric ozone

b)

stratospheric ozone

c)

pollution

d)

methane

118.

the level underground when you first hit water

a)

Zone of aeration

b)

Unsaturated zone

c)

Water Table

d)

Aquifer

119.

What % of Earth's freshwater is surface water?

a)

69%

b)

59%

c)

30%

d)

1%

120.

Area below the water table where pore-spaces are full of water

a)

Unsaturated zone

b)

Saturated zone

c)

Water Table

d)

Spore space

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