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Reviewer_FE_2015

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the sum of two binary fractions 1.0101 and 1.0111 expressed in decimal?

a)

2.5

b)

2.75

c)

2.875

d)

2.9375

2.

Which of the following is a language processor that produces executable code for other platforms than the one on which the language processor itself is running?

a)

Cross compiler

b)

Emulator

c)

Generator

d)

Simulator

3.

What is the value of the following expression in Reverse Polish Notation?

9 2 1 + – 3 ×

a)

0

b)

4

c)

10

d)

18

4.

Which of the following is the concept of a fail-safe design?

a)

When a failure occurs in a leased line, switching to a public line occurs immediately, and the processing continues even though the processing efficiency of the system declines.

b)

When a failure occurs in the data transfer process of a data collecting system, only the data input process is performed, and all the data is transmitted at the time of recovery from the failure.

c)

When anything other than a numeric character is entered in the numeric input field, the system issues a warning message and requests a correct input.

d)

When the system determines that there is a fault in the sensor for detecting if someone has entered the working envelope or work area, the robot arm is stopped forcibly.

5.

Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning the reliability of a computer system?

a)

As the system configuration becomes more complicated, MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) increases.

b)

Availability of systems can be improved by increasing MTTR (Mean Time To Repair) and MTBF.

c)

Preventive maintenance of systems is performed to increase MTBF.

d)

Remote maintenance of systems can increase MTTR and improve availability.

6.

Which of the following is an explanation of an absolute path name of a file system?

a)

It is the path name from the current directory up to the target file.

b)

It is the path name from the home directory up to the target file.

c)

It is the path name from the root directory up to the target file.

d)

It is the shortest path name from among the several path names from a directory up to the target file.

7.

Which of the following is an appropriate explanation of DRAM?

a)

It is memory that needs to be refreshed, and is used for main memory in a PC.

b)

It is non-volatile memory that can erase and write data in units of one byte, and it is used when data preservation is required even if the power supply is interrupted.

c)

It is non-volatile memory that has NAND types and NOR types, and is used for SSD.

d)

Its memory cells are composed of flip-flops, and it is used for cache memory.

8.

Which of the following is the standard used to describe the look and formatting of markup language documents such as HTML and XHTML?

a)

CMS

b)

CSS

c)

RSS

d)

Wiki

9.

In the process of creating animation, which of the following is used to incorporate the natural movement of objects, humans and animals, by using sensors and video cameras?

a)

Key frame method

b)

Motion capture

c)

Morphing

d)

Pixel shader

10.

Among the descriptions concerning database models, which of the following is an appropriate explanation of the network model?

a)

It consists of two or more data files located at different sites on a computer network.

b)

It presents information in two-dimensional tables with rows and columns.

c)

Its records are organized into a tree structure.

d)

Its records can have multiple parent records and multiple child records.

11.

In the operation of a relational database, which of the following is an appropriate explanation of projection?

a)

From two or more sets of tables, the sets that match conditions are combined together to create a new table.

b)

Only specific columns are extracted from a table.

c)

The query result of a table and the query result of another table are combined together and set in one table.

d)

The rows that match specific conditions are extracted from a table.

12.

In OSI basic reference model, what devices are used for segmentation or coupling of Physical layer, Data Link layer and Network layer respectively?

a)

Bridge, Repeater, Router

b)

Repeater, Bridge, Router

c)

Bridge, Router, Repeater

d)

Repeater, Router, Bridge

13.

In TCP/IP networks, which command uses the ICMP “Echo”, “Echo Reply” and “Destination Unreachable” messages to test the reachability of the communication partner ?

a)

arp

b)

echo

c)

ipconfig

d)

ping

14.

Which application protocol must support UDP as its transport layer protocol?

a)

DNS

b)

FTP

c)

HTTP

d)

Telnet

15.

Which of the following is an appropriate explanation of POP3 used in e-mail systems?

a)

It is a protocol used to authenticate a user with his/her user ID and password after the PPP connection is established.

b)

It is a protocol used to exchange e-mail messages between mail servers.

c)

It is a protocol used to receive e-mail messages from the mailbox of a mail server.

d)

It is a protocol used to send e-mail messages from a PC.

16.

Which of the following is a purpose of using message digest in a message authentication code?

a)

To check the encryption method of a message

b)

To check the overview of a message

c)

To confirm that there is no falsification of a message

d)

To secure the confidentiality of a message

17.

Which of the following is an attack that threatens the “integrity” in information security?

a)

A DoS attack by which the system is set to an overloaded state

b)

Falsification of a Web page

c)

Tapping of communication content

d)

Unauthorized copying of data saved in a system

18.

Which of the following technology is the most suitable to divide the whole company network into the networks by department?

a)

DMZ (DeMilitarized Zone)

b)

VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network)

c)

NAT (Network Address Translation)

d)

VPN (Virtual Private Network)

19.

Which of the following is an appropriate description of how to design test cases for a black box test?

a)

Test cases are designed according to the program’s functional specifications and interface specifications.

b)

Test cases are designed on the basis of the procedure and internal structure of the program.

c)

Test cases are designed so that each of the decision conditions in the program can evaluate both TRUE and FALSE at least once.

d)

Test cases are designed with reference to program specifications or the source list, after the program specifications are finalized or the coding is completed.

20.

Which of the following is the purpose of a stress test?

a)

To compare performance with other computers by measuring the execution time of a standard program

b)

To confirm the operation at the limits of processing capability that is required for a system

c)

To confirm that there are no unintended effects on the program functions that have no relation to correction or change in the program

d)

To evaluate the usability of a system by having actual users use the system

21.

Which of the following is the process of changing a software system in such a way that it does not alter the external behavior of the code yet improves its internal structure?

a)

Reengineering

b)

Refactoring

c)

Restructuring

d)

Reverse engineering

22.

Which of the following is an appropriate tool that implements a deliverable-oriented decomposition of a project into smaller components?

a)

Critical Path Management (CPM)

b)

Gantt Chart (Gantt)

c)

Project Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)

d)

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

23.

According to ISO/IEC 20000-1, which of the following is the appropriate processes that contain change management, configuration management, and release and deployment management?

a)

Control processes

b)

Resolution processes

c)

Relationship processes

d)

Service delivery processes

24.

Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning the role of a system auditor?

a)

It is to assure the preparation and operations regarding the control of the information system or to give advice on these, from a standpoint of professional standpoint independent from the audit target.

b)

It is to evaluate the performance of the information system and to issue an audit working paper to the system users.

c)

It is to instruct the testing staff to improve defects found during the comprehensive test for the information system.

d)

It is to test if processes are performed according to the plan and then to approve the release.

25.

Which of the following is the cloud-computing service model that allows users to install operating-system images and their application software on the system?

a)

Desktop as a service (DaaS)

b)

Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)

c)

Platform as a service (PaaS)

d)

Software as a service (SaaS)

26.

Which of the following is a technique that is used to identify and evaluate the internal and external factors that are helpful or harmful to the objectives of business organizations or projects?

a)

Five forces analysis

b)

PPM analysis

c)

SWOT analysis

d)

Value chain analysis

27.

Which of the following is a technique for classifying company activities into primary activities and support activities, and analyzing which activities generate the profit of the products or services provided to customers?

a)

3C analysis

b)

Five forces analysis

c)

SWOT analysis

d)

Value chain analysis

28.

Among the different business systems supported by technology, which of the following analyzes routes of distribution, tracking and load tendency?

a)

LMS

b)

OMS

c)

TMS

d)

WMS

29.

Which of the following is an appropriate explanation of the concurrent engineering?

a)

A new product development technique that sequentially executes processes such as product design, manufacturing, and sales activities

b)

A technique that analyzes a target system and clarifies its specifications

c)

A technique that executes processes such as product design and production planning in parallel during the new product development procedure

d)

A technique that tries to figure out the optimal combinations of functions and cost, and to improve value through systematic procedures

30.

Which of the following is an explanation of CAD?

a)

By using computers, converting drawings of the product design to the process design information, and supporting automation of machine processing, etc.

b)

By using computers, creating drawings of the product design from attribute data concerning product shape, composition, etc.

c)

By using computers, evaluating product performance and functions without actual products

d)

By using computers, finding required volumes and timing of materials from a production schedule, a BOM (bill of materials), inventory volumes, etc.

31.

In a real time system, which of the following is the data structure that is most suitable for the scheduling of multiple tasks with different priority levels?

a)

Binary tree

b)

FIFO queue

c)

Linked list

d)

Stack

32.

Which of the following is an appropriate purpose of the parity check of a memory module?

a)

To detect and correct an error automatically during reading

b)

To detect the occurrence of an error during reading

c)

To determine whether power is supplied to the memory module

d)

To encrypt the data read out from the memory module

33.

Which of the following is an appropriate explanation of a capacitive touch panel?

a)

An electric field is formed on the surface, and the touched position is detected on the basis of the change in the surface electric charge.

b)

Electrode switches are aligned in a matrix shape, and the touched position is detected by the electronically conducted electrode.

c)

The touched position is detected on the basis of the change in the reflection of the infrared ray that is blocked by touching the panel.

d)

Voltage is applied to an electrically resistant film, and the touched position is detected on the basis of the change in resistance.

34.

Which of the following is the most appropriate explanation of a benchmark test for a computer system?

a)

It is determined whether or not the system has a tolerance to handle the expected number of transactions.

b)

The performance of a system is measured from the average time required to execute a single instruction.

c)

The processing performance of a system is compared with other systems in terms of scores obtained by executing software for measurement.

d)

The proportion of continuous operation time of a system is measured and compared with other systems.

35.

Among the descriptions concerning process scheduling, which of the following is an appropriate explanation of the round robin method?

a)

CPU resources are allocated to each process in order of priority specified in advance when a particular event occurs.

b)

CPU resources are allocated to each process in order of processing time from shortest to longest.

c)

CPU resources are allocated to the first executable process in the queue when an interval-timer interrupt is generated.

d)

CPU resources are allocated to the process that needs to start immediately when some kind of interrupt is generated.

36.

Which of the following is an explanation of the function of an archiver that is one of the data management utilities?

a)

Compiling several files into one file, or returning a file to its original condition in order to perform data backup and distribution

b)

Creating both an area for recording data and an area for managing data on a single hard disk

c)

Keeping data secure through file protection for safeguarding data from unauthorized use and destruction, and also through copy protection for preventing unauthorized copyi

d)

Rearranging a file into contiguous areas, to the extent possible, on a hard disk in which fragmentation has occurred

37.

Which of the following is classified as a function of a static test tool?

a)

Calculating the coverage from the paths executed by the test

b)

Detecting an error in a program by analyzing the source code

c)

Generating a driver or a stub necessary for the module to be tested

d)

Generating the data for testing a specific path of the program

38.

Which of the following is a memory module that uses a flip-flop circuit in a memory cell?

a)

DRAM

b)

EEPROM

c)

SDRAM

d)

SRAM

39.

Which of the following is the function of a human interface that is used for reducing the number of operations of a user who frequently performs routine work?

a)

A function for displaying the input errors altogether on the last screen

b)

A function for displaying which process is reached from among all processes

c)

A function for enabling return to the previous state if an operation is wrong

d)

A macro function by which a series of commands is grouped together

40.

Which of the following is a tag-based very flexible image file format that can be lossless or lossy, and is widely used for the interchange of digital image data among graphic artists, photographers, and the publishing industry?

a)

JPEG

b)

GIF

c)

PNG

d)

TIFF

41.

In a relational database table, which of the following is a column or a combination of columns whose values are defined by the primary key of another table in order to maintain referential integrity in the database?

a)

Candidate key

b)

Foreign key

c)

Super key

d)

Surrogate key

42.

In the IPv4 addressing scheme, when the subnet mask "255.255.255.224" is used for Class C, which of the following is the maximum number of effective hosts per subnet, excluding the network and broadcast addresses?

a)

6

b)

30

c)

62

d)

254

43.

Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning “HTTP cookie”?

a)

HTTP cookies are created by a web browser and stored in the web server.

b)

HTTP cookies are used to contain data sent from a web server as plain text only.

c)

HTTP cookies can contain executable codes to perform some specific tasks.

d)

HTTP cookies cannot notify the visiting website about user’s previous activities.

44.

Which of the following is an appropriate characteristic of MAC (Message Authentication Code) that is used to authenticate a message and provide its integrity in cryptography?

a)

It is calculated by performing polynomial manipulations.

b)

It is constructed from cryptographic hash functions.

c)

It is generated and verified using both private and public keys.

d)

It is used with the receiver’s public key to encrypt a message.

45.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the hash function that is used for a digital signature?

a)

Even if messages are different, the message digests are all the same.

b)

It is difficult to restore an original message from the message digest.

c)

The length of a message digest differs depending on the length of the message.

d)

Two different messages that generate the same message digest are easily obtained.

46.

Which of the following is the salami technique that is used in computer crime?

a)

It is a technique where data that is being sent or received over a network is illegitimately intercepted.

b)

It is a technique where information that remains in a computer or its surrounding area after the execution of a program is searched to obtain necessary information.

c)

It is a technique where part of a communication line is accessed secretly, and another person’s ID and password are stolen and used to steal data.

d)

It is a technique where theft is performed in small increments from many assets so that this fraudulent behavior is not noticed.

47.

Mr. X sends an e-mail to Mr. Y by using the Internet. The contents of the e-mail must be kept confidential, so Mr. X uses public key cryptography to encrypt the e-mail. Which of the following is the key that is used to encrypt the contents of the e-mail?

a)

Mr. X’s private key

b)

Mr. Y’s private key

c)

Mr. Y’s public key

d)

Mr. X’s public key

48.

Which of the following is the security attack that is used for an illegal attempt to manipulate the people of an organization into divulging the password and confidential information under the pretext of an emergency?

a)

Password cracking

b)

Springboard attack

c)

Social engineering

d)

Trojan horse

49.

In object-oriented development, it is possible to make settings such that the user is not affected even if the internal structure of an object is changed. Thus, it is possible to create a situation where the user of an object is not necessarily aware of the internal structure of the object. Which of the following is the term that represents the concept of implementing such development?

a)

Classification

b)

Modularization

c)

Encapsulation

d)

Structuration

50.

Among the software development activities, which of the following is an explanation of refactoring?

a)

In order to improve the maintainability of a program, its internal structure is modified without any change of the external specifications.

b)

In order to improve the quality of a program, two programmers cooperate with each other and perform the coding of a single program.

c)

In order to obtain feedback from users, the prototype of a program to be provided is created at an early stage.

d)

In order to promptly develop a program to be operated, test cases are set in advance, and then the program is coded.

51.

According to ITIL (IT Infrastructure Library), CSA (Configuration Status Accounting) is the recording and reporting of all current and historical data concerned with each CI (Configuration Item) throughout its life-cycle. Which of the following is an appropriate activity that is performed as part of CSA?

a)

Closing project or phase

b)

Collecting requirements

c)

Monitoring and controlling project work

d)

Performing integrated change control

52.

Which of the following is the most appropriate characteristic of the "big bang" migration method that is one of the system migration methods?

a)

Additional operational costs are incurred because of parallel operations.

b)

An additional application is required for connecting the old and new systems.

c)

The old and new systems operate in parallel, and migration to the new system is performed at a particular point of time.

d)

The problems that occur during migration to the new system have a big impact.

53.

Which of the following is an explanation of the long tail?

a)

The long tail refers to the ability to sell products on one’s own website by shipping products directly from the manufacturer or wholesaler without taking the risk of inventory.

b)

The long tail refers to the integrated and systematic management, delivery, and other handling of the text, images, and such other digital content that make up web content.

c)

The long tail refers to the payment of a referral fee by a company when its product is purchased via a link to the company on a website or blog.

d)

The long tail refers to the situation where the sales percentage for a group of poor-selling products cannot be ignored in terms of the total sales of Internet shopping.

54.

Which of the following is an explanation of RFID?

a)

RFID is a combination of an extremely small integrated circuit and an antenna, which is used for an electronic tag that enables an object to be identified and located by using the wireless automatic recognition technique.

b)

RFID is a method of settlement that is based on monetary value saved on an IC card or a cell phone, and is used in a POS register or such other device.

c)

RFID is a technique that uses bio-information, such as the physical characteristics of human beings, for the identification and authentication of individuals, and includes fingerprint authentication and vein authentication.

d)

RFID is used to represent information in a monochrome lattice pattern, and can save a large amount of information including alphanumeric characters and double-byte characters.

55.

Which of the following is a chart or a diagram that is used to analyze possible relationships between two variables and is composed of a horizontal axis containing the measured values of one variable and a vertical axis representing the measurements of the other variable?

a)

Cause-and-effect diagram

b)

Pareto chart

c)

Control chart

d)

Scatter diagram

56.

A leap year is either a multiple of 4 but not a multiple of 100, or a multiple of 400. How many leap years are there from 1998 to 2110?

a)

26

b)

27

c)

28

d)

29

57.

Which of the following is the most appropriate description of a queue?

a)

Data that is stored first is retrieved first.

b)

Data that is stored last is retrieved first.

c)

It references specific data by using an index.

d)

It represents the hierarchical relationship of data by using at least two (2) pointers.

58.

Binary search is used to search for an element from a sorted data of n elements. Which of the following is an expression that represents the order of computational complexity for this process?

a)

log n

b)

n

c)

n2

d)

n log n

59.

In Java technologies, which of the following is the specification of creating reusable software components that have frequently used functionalities?

a)

Java applet

b)

Java application

c)

JavaBeans

d)

JavaScript

60.

Which of the following best describes the characteristics of XML?

a)

The style languages such as XSL and CSS used in HTML can also be used in XML.

b)

XML allows a tag to be defined in order for an easier data exchange between information systems over the network.

c)

XML is developed on its own specification, whereas HTML is on the SGML basis.

d)

XML is HTML based and has some features added primarily for a performance improvement of displaying a web page.