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RNAV EXAM 30/10/18

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 1hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The skip distance of HF-transmission will increase with:

a)

Higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer.

b)

Lower frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer.

c)

Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer.

d)

Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer.

2.

When an operator increases the range on a radar-display, in general

a)

Both the PRF and the pulse length increase

b)

The PRF becomes higher and the pulse length smaller

c)

Both the PRF and the pulse length decrease

d)

The PRF becomes lower and the pulse length larger

3.

VDF is the abbreviation for:

a)

Very High Frequency Deviation Finding Station

b)

VDF Direction Finder

c)

Very Direct Finder

d)

VHF Direction Finder

4.

In an ILS system, concerning the Glide Path principle of operation, the difference in depth of modulation (DDM):

1. Decrease with angular displacement below the Glide Path.

2. Increase with angular displacement above the Glide Path.

3. Decrease with angular displacement above the Glide Path.

4. Increase with angular displacement below the Glide Path.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a)

2 and 3.

b)

1 and 4.

c)

1 and 3.

d)

2 and 4.

5.

What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?

a)

Amber - White - Green

b)

Blue - Green - White

c)

Blue - Amber - White

d)

White - Amber - Blue

6.

What is true about the FMC databases

a)

The navigation database contains the company's cost index strategy

b)

The data includes SIDs, STARS and runway approaches.

c)

The data can not be customized for the specific airline operations.

d)

Performance database contains aeronautical information for the planned area of operations of the aircraft.

7.

Concerning the wave propagation in the ionosphere, we denote three layers. Those three layers are

a)

D, E and F layers and their depth does not vary with time

b)

D, E and F layers and their depth varies with time

c)

A, C and E layers with equal depth

d)

A, B and C layers and their depth varies with time

8.

In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?

a)

EHF

b)

SHF

c)

UHF

d)

VHF

9.

Select the correct grouping that reflects the Satelite Based Augmentation Systems (SBAS) currently in use.

a)

EGNOS, WAAS, GAGAN, MSAS.

b)

GALILEO, EGNOS, WADGPS, NAVSTAR

c)

MSAS, GAGAN, GALILEO, WAAS.

d)

NAVSTAR, WAAS, INDIAN INSS, GALILEO

10.

An aircraft at FL 340 is tracking towards a DME with a 250 kt ground speed. What range and ground speed will be indicated 2 minute before flying overhead?

a)

6nm <250kt

b)

7nm <250kt

c)

5nm <250kt

d)

7nm>250kt

11.

The maximum range that an aircraft at FL80 could expect to detect a signal from a VOR at an elevation of 313 m above sea level is:

a)

100 NM

b)

122 NM

c)

149 NM

d)

158 NM

12.

Refer to image

An aircraft is flying on a MH of 210°. The Magnetic Variation at the VOR is 5°W and at the aircraft 10°W. Which VOR-RMI corresponds to the indications on the CDI shown on the Annex?

a)

Figure C

b)

Figure D

c)

Figure A

d)

Figure B

13.

What type of antenna(s) must be used to obtain an ADF bearing?

a)

Radome

b)

Loop and Sense

c)

Loop

d)

Sense

14.

A TCAS II equiped aircraft will have Mode S because:

a)

True altitude is obtained from Mode S.

b)

The datalink is required to co-ordinate evasive manoeuvres.

c)

Mode S transmits a 3D position.

d)

The data link is required to transmit relative position.

15.

The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because the:

a)

Calculated range includes receiver clock error

b)

Measured distance is based on the Pseudo Random Noise code

c)

Calculated range is based on an idealised Keplerian orbit

d)

Movement of satellite and receiver during the distance calculation is not taken into account

16.

Which frequency corresponds to a wavelenght of 8.25m

a)

36.36Mhz

b)

3663mhz

c)

3.63mhz

d)

363.3mhz

17.

A DME station is located 1000ft above MSL. An Aircraft flying at FL370 in ISA conditions which is 15nm away from the DME will have a DME reading of ?

a)

16nm

b)

17nm

c)

18nm

d)

19nm

18.

A ground radar transmitting at a pulse recurrence frequency (PRF) OF 1200 pulses per second will have a maximum unimbiguous target and range of approx?

a)

67.5km

b)

67.5nm

c)

27km

d)

270nm

19.

The ILS receiver of an aircraft flying down the exact runway centreline will receive:

a)

The maximum magnitude of the difference between the 90 Hz and 150 Hz amplitudes.

b)

90 Hz and 150 Hz lobes at equal depth.

c)

The same frequency modulated signal from both lobes with the maximum of magnitude.

d)

No modulated signal because the left and the right lobes cancel each other along the centerline.

20.

The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths:

a)

Decimetric

b)

Hectometric

c)

Centimetric

d)

Metric

21.

Refer to image

An aircraft is flying on a MH of 010°. The Magnetic Variation at the VOR is 10°W and at the aircraft 12°W. Which VOR-RMI corresponds to the indications on the CDI shown on the Annex?

a)

Figure A

b)

Figure A

c)

Figure C

d)

Figure D

22.

Refer to image.

An aircraft is flying on the 170 radial with a MH of 315º. On the CDI the CRS is set to 180. Which CDI shows the correct indications?

a)

Figure A

b)

Figure C

c)

Figure B

d)

Figure D

23.

An electromagnetic wave consists of an oscillating electric field (E) and an oscillating magnetic field (H). Which statement is correct?

a)

A dipole antenna can only transmit field (H)

b)

The E and H fields are perpendicular to each other

c)

When AC current passes through the antenna, fields E and H are parallel

d)

The H field is parallel to the wire and the field E is perpendicular to the wire

24.

HF "Volmet" broadcasts meteorological information for aircraft in flight by using HF radio transmissions. The characteristics of the HF signal are that:

a)

the carrier wave is amplitude modulated with a fixed modulation depth

b)

the carrier wave is frequency modulated with a modulation index of 16

c)

the carrier wave is frequency modulated and only one of the two sidebands is transmitted (single sideband transmission)

d)

the carrier wave is amplitude modulated and only one of the two sidebands is transmitted (single sideband transmission)

25.

Complete the following statement: a signal of wavelength 711 m is transmitted in the (1) band and it propagates by using the (2) wave path.


Which combination of answers states the correct answers for (1) and (2)?

a)

(1) MF (2) ground

b)

(1) LF (2) space

c)

(1) VHF (2) direct

d)

(1) HF (2) sky

26.

The phenomenon of a change in direction of an EM-wave occuring at an interface between two different media, so that the wave returns into the medium from which it originated, is called?

a)

Reflection

b)

Diffraction

c)

Interference

d)

Refraction

27.

In aviation electronic systems the so-called Doppler principle may be used in:

a)

VOR, DME and ILS

b)

VOR, MTI and the mapping mode of AWR

c)

VOR, DME and GPS

d)

VOR, GPS and MTS and the turbulence mode of AWR

28.

What is meant by keying A1A modulation?

a)

Interrupting the modulating signal to break it into dots and dashes

b)

Interrupting the carrier wave to break it into dots and dashes

c)

Changing the amplitude of the carrier wave to add information

d)

Adding information on the carrier wave by use of modulating signal

29.

In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or above the height of the aircraft, the tilt control should be set to:

(Assume a beam width of 5°)

a)

b)

2.5° up

c)

2.5° down

d)

5° down

30.

Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?

a)

Roll and yaw

b)

Roll, pitch and yaw

c)

Roll and pitch

d)

Pitch and yaw

31.

When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated pressure altitude in increments of:

a)

250 ft

b)

100 ft

c)

200 ft

d)

150 ft

32.

Autotilt on a modern radar is used when?

a)

to tilt downward on the ground.

b)

Change of attitude

c)

to track areas of greatest precipitation

d)

Change of altitude

33.

The allocation of 24-bit aircraft addresses is described in ICAO annex 10, it states that:

a)

Civil aircraft will have been allocated with an ICAO Aircraft Address which is hard coded into the airframe

b)

Military aircraft will have been allocated with an ICAO Aircraft Address which is hard coded into the airframe

c)

Every aircraft will have been allocated with a NATO Aircraft Address which is hard coded into the airframe

d)

Every aircraft will have been allocated with an ICAO Aircraft Address which is hard coded into the airframe

34.

Flag Question

In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to aircraft flight envelope computations is stored in the:

a)

Navigation database

b)

Performance database

c)

Auto flight computers

d)

Air data computer

35.

The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System:

a)

Indicates that the pilot has made a manual track selection

b)

Represents the track of the aircraft over the ground. When it co-incides with the desired track, wind influence is compensated for

c)

Indicates to the pilot that a manually selected heading is being flown

d)

Corresponds to the calculated IRS TH and is correct during turns

36.

Which statement about RNAV-routes is correct?

a)

A method of navigation which permIts aircraft operation on any desired flight path.

b)

All waypoints of RNAV-routes are called phantom stations

c)

RNAV-routes are only used in terminal areas in order to make more efficient use of the approach and landing facilities of an airport

d)

In general RNAV-routes coincide with standard routes in order to make optimum use of the available VOR/DME-stations

37.

Refer to image

Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?

a)

Figure 6

b)

Figure 4

c)

Figure 1

d)

Figure 5

38.

In which of the following cases would ETOs and ETA at destination calculated by the Flight Management Computer (FMC) be correct?

a)

When the FMC computes each ETO and ETA using the correct GS

b)

When the FMC positions and GS are accurate

c)

When the actual winds match the forecast winds, and the actual cruising Mach number is equal to the FMC calculated Mach number

d)

When the ETOs and ETA are based on the forecast winds calculated from the actual take-off time

39.

When entering and using a phantom waypoint in area navigation equipment, you:

a)

The referenced station must be positively identified by at least 1 pilot

b)

Don't need to be in range of the referenced station to enter or use it

c)

You must be in range of the referenced station to enter or use it

d)

You don't need to be within range of the referenced station to enter the waypoint, but you must be to use it

40.

Refer to image

Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode?

a)

Figure 5

b)

Figure 4

c)

Figure 3

d)

Figure 2

41.

What is the heading bug selected to?

a)

300°(M)

b)

272°(M)

c)

260°(M)

d)

280°(M)

42.

An aircraft is flying at FL 150 with a modern EADI display. Which of the following is not displayed?

a)

Heading & Track

b)

Pressure altitude

c)

Radio Height

d)

Attitude

43.

Under CS-25 colour code rules, features displayed in red on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:

a)

Cautions and abnormal sources; engaged modes

b)

Flight envelope and system limits; engaged modes

c)

Warnings; flight envelope and system limits

d)

Warnings; cautions and abnormal sources

44.

Which component of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System generates the visual displays on the EADI and EHSI?

a)

Flight Control Computer

b)

Flight Management Computer

c)

Symbol Generator

d)

Navigation database

45.

Refer to image

What drift is being experienced?

a)

20° Right

b)

20° Left

c)

12° Right

d)

8° Left

46.

According to the ILS coverage area as defined by ICAO Annex 10, in which of the following situations will the pilot be guaranteed a reliable signal from the localiser?

a)

27 NM from touchdown inbound and 8º displaced from the localiser centreline

b)

10 NM from touchdown inbound and 14º displaced from the localiser centreline

c)

19 NM from touchdown inbound and 13º displaced from the localiser centreline

d)

20 NM from touchdown inbound and 8º displaced from the localiser centreline

47.

The frequency range of a VOR receiver is:

a)

108 to 119.95 MHz

b)

118 to 135.95 MHz

c)

108 to 135.95 MH

d)

108 to 117.95 MHz

48.

What is the maximum distance between VOR and DME/TACAN ground installations if they are to have the same morse code identifier?

a)

2000 m

b)

600 m

c)

300 m

d)

60 m

49.

Microwave Landing Systems (MLS) allow the aircraft to fix its position accurately in three dimensions by means of:

a)

Information from four satellites transmitting microwaves

b)

Timing the interval between pulses in azimuth and elevation and timing the delay for pulses to reach the aircraft to define range

c)

Directional aerials and DME

d)

Timing the passage of two scanning beams integrated with DME

50.

An aircraft wishes to use PAMPLONA VOR/DME which shows on a chart as co-located, ident PPN, frequency 112.30 MHz. If the aircraft is within range and the VHF frequency suitably tuned which of the following statements is true?

a)

No slant range will be provided because only the VHF VOR frequency can be tuned

b)

No slant range will be provided because the UHF DME frequency needs to be entered separately.

c)

Slant range will be provided because tuning the VHF frequency automatically includes the UHF frequency of the DME

d)

Slant range will be provided because both VOR and DME operate on the VHF frequency.

51.

What approximate Rate of Descent is required in order to maintain a 3° Glide Path at a Ground Speed of 90 kt?

a)

600 ft/min

b)

700 ft/min

c)

400 ft/min

d)

450 ft/min

52.

Which statement is correct for homing towards an NDB in an area with constant wind and constant Magnetic Variation?

a)

The Relative Bearing of the NDB should be equal to the QDM

b)

The Relative Bearing of the NDB should be kept 000°

c)

The Relative Bearing of the NDB should be equal (in magnitude and sign) to the applied Wind Correction Angle

d)

The Relative Bearing of the NDB should be equal (in magnitude and sign) to the experienced Drift Angle

53.

If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR station will be :

a)

210°

b)

030°

c)

150°

d)

330°

54.

(Refer to image)

An aircraft is tracking the 255° radial inbound to VOR X. With 15 ° Port Drift, which of the following indications will be correct when crossing the 121° radial from VOR Y?

a)

(d)

b)

(c)

c)

(b)

d)

(a)

55.

Your QUJ is 335° by VDF. The variation of a VOR at the same location is 12°W. What is the phase difference between the reference and variable phase signals being received at the aircraft from that VOR?

a)

167°

b)

323°

c)

143°

d)

347°

56.

Which of the following components of the ILS are protected from interference by the FM-Immunity filters in NAV equipment?

a)

Localiser only

b)

Glidepath and DME

c)

Localiser and Glidepath

d)

Glidepath only

57.

Which statement about VHF/UHF Frequencies is correct?

a)

Neither VHF/UHF has a sky wave under any conditions. For VHF the surface wave is the main propagation path and for UHF the space wave

b)

VHF has, under normal conditions, a sky wave whereas UHF has not. For both VHF/UHF propagation the space wave is the main propagation path

c)

VHF frequencies below 120 MHz may be subjected to sporadic E-reflections and then have sky wave. For both VHF/UHF the sky wave is the main propagation path of practical use

d)

For both VHF/UHF propagation, the space wave is the only propagation path of practial use. There is no sky wave under normal conditions

58.

A reason that GPS satellites use helical antennae is:

a)

That the signal has a circular polarization

b)

To neutralize the ionospheric delay

c)

To achieve better omni directional receiving qualities

d)

To improve the signal to noise ratio

59.

Satellite corrections in the Navigation message are used to correct:

a)

satellite time

b)

receiver time

c)

atmospheric distortion

d)

satellite and receiver time

60.

When referring to the European Galileo global positioning system which of the answers is true?

a)

It consists of 24 satellites, in 4 planes in a near circular orbit at an altitude of 19 222 km inclinded at 56o

b)

It consists of 30 satellites, in 3 planes in a near circular orbit at an altitude of 23 222 km inclinded at 56o

c)

It consists of 24 satellites, in 4 planes in a near circular orbit at an altitude of 23 222 km inclinded at 65o

d)

It consists of 30 satellites, in 3 planes in a near circular orbit at an altitude of 23 222 km inclinded at 65o

61.

What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using an EFIS 2-dot RNAV system in the EN ROUTE (ENR) mode?

a)

5 NM

b)

2 NM

c)

1 NM

d)

10 NM

62.

The maximum range obtainable from an ATC En-Route Surveillance Radar is approximately:

a)

100-200 NM

b)

300-400 NM

c)

50-100 NM

d)

200-300 NM

63.

What is the advantage of an SSR with Selective Addressing over PSR?


SSR Secondary Surveillance Radar

PSR Primary Surveillance Radar

a)

Unambiguous aircraft identification

b)

In the event of an SSR failure, it can act as PSR

c)

No interaction with the air or space segment.

d)

Range does not depend on transmitter power.

64.

The "gain" control knob of an AWR adjusts:

a)

The brightness of the display.

b)

The receiver sensitivity in order to achieve optimum target acquisition.

c)

The power level of the transmitted energy is made dependent on the selected range.

d)

The automatic gain control of the AWR is activated.

65.

If you are flying a back course ILS, you are flying a:

a)

Precision approach on the precision approach runway

b)

Non precision approach on the reciprocal runway of the precision approach runway

c)

Precision approach on the reciprocal runway of the precision approach runway

d)

Non precision approach on the precision approach end of the runway

66.

When a DME arc is used to guide an aircraft to join a holding procedure which entries are permitted

a)

Sector 1

b)

Sector 2

c)

Sector 1 & 3

d)

Sector 2 & 3