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WorksheetsExam 2 (Units 5,6,7,8)
Total questions: 198
Worksheet time: 2hrs 39mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following is the first period of prenatal development?
a)
germinal
b)
embryonic
c)
fetal
d)
none of these
2.
Which of the following is the second period of prenatal development?
a)
germinal
b)
embryonic
c)
fetal
d)
none of these
3.
Which prenatal testing procedure confirms a positive pregnancy test?
a)
PAPP-A
b)
HCG
c)
AFP
d)
none of these
4.
Which of the following is the second period of prenatal development?
a)
germinal
b)
embryonic
c)
fetal
d)
none of these
5.
Which of the following is the third period of prenatal development?
a)
germinal
b)
embryonic
c)
fetal
d)
none of these
6.
What process marks the beginning of the germinal period of prenatal development?
a)
fertilization
b)
implantation
c)
neuronal migration
d)
none of t
7.
What is the name for the group of about 12-15 cells with a "mulberry" appearance?
a)
morula
b)
zygote
c)
blastocyst
d)
none of thes
8.
In the blastocyst, which is the structure that allows for cell migration?
a)
trophoblast
b)
blastocoele
c)
inner cell mass
d)
none of these
9.
In the blastocyst, which is the structure that allows for cell migration?
a)
trophoblast
b)
blastocoele
c)
inner cell mass
d)
none of these
10.
In the blastocyst, which structure will become the embryo?
a)
blastocoele
b)
inner cell mass
c)
trophoblast
d)
none of these
11.
In the blastocyst, the trophoblast will become:
a)
the embryo
b)
the digestive system
c)
four membranes
d)
none of these
12.
The cephalocaudal growth pattern refers to:
a)
the head developing first
b)
the spine developing
c)
first the organs developing first
d)
none of these
13.
Which growth pattern means "spine on out"?
a)
cephalocaudal
b)
proximodistal
c)
none of these
14.
Which growth pattern means "head on down"?
a)
cephalocaudal
b)
proximodistal
c)
none of these
15.
In the embryo, which will become the nervous system?
a)
ectoderm
b)
mesoderm
c)
endoderm
d)
none of these
16.
In the embryo, what will become the reproductive system?
a)
ectoderm
b)
mesoderm
c)
endoderm
d)
none of these
17.
In the embryo, what will become the digestive tract and respiratory system?
a)
ectoderm
b)
mesoderm
c)
endoderm
d)
none of these
18.
In the embryo, the ectoderm will become
a)
the nervous system
b)
the circulatory system
c)
the digestive tract
d)
none of these
19.
Which support structure is a bag that contains clear fluid?
a)
amnion
b)
umbilical cord
c)
placenta
d)
none of these
20.
Which of the following is a group of tissues that connects small blood vessels between mother and child?
a)
placenta
b)
amnion
c)
umbilical cord
d)
none of these
21.
Which of the following contains two arteries and one vein that connects the baby to the placenta?
a)
amnion
b)
ectoderm
c)
mesoderm
d)
none of these
22.
Which of the following is a whitish coating on the skin of the fetus?
a)
lanugo
b)
vernix caseosa
c)
quickening
d)
none of the above
23.
Which of the following refers to the first movements that can be felt by the mother?
a)
lanugo
b)
vernix caseosa
c)
quickening
d)
none of these
24.
Which of the following is a soft, fine hair that develops on the fetus?
a)
lanugo
b)
vernix caseosa
c)
quickening
d)
amnion
25.
Lanugo is
a)
a whitish coating
b)
a soft, fine hair
c)
motor movements
d)
none of these
26.
Vernix caseosa refers to
a)
a bag of fluid
b)
a whitish coating
c)
a support structure
d)
motor movements
27.
During which prenatal period is the fetus considered viable?
a)
germinal
b)
embryonic
c)
fetal
28.
Viability refers to
a)
hearing a heartbeat
b)
ability to live outside the womb
c)
a minimum number of cells
d)
none of these
29.
Cells of the nervous system are called
a)
somatic cells
b)
autosomes
c)
neurons
d)
none of these
30.
Development of new neurons is
a)
neuronal migration
b)
neurogenesis
c)
neural plasticity
d)
none of these
31.
Any substance or agent that can cause a birth defect is referred to as
a)
a teratogen
b)
a contaminant
c)
an infectious agent
d)
none of these
32.
During which prenatal period does a teratogen have the most likelihood to lead to prenatal death?
a)
germinal
b)
embryonic
c)
fetal
d)
none of thes
33.
Research has shown that pregnant women who consume 200 or more milligrams of caffeine a day are at increased risk of
a)
having a child with Down Syndrome
b)
having a miscarriage
c)
placenta previa
d)
none of these
34.
A condition that results in the partial or complete detachment of the placenta from the uterine wall is called
a)
placenta previa
b)
placental abruption
c)
none of these
35.
In order for incompatible blood types to impact prenatal development, the mother must be
a)
RH-positive
b)
RH-negative
36.
Which of the following conditions can result in very large babies?
a)
diabetes
b)
exposure to cocaine
c)
exposure to heroin
d)
none of these
37.
Which newborn assessment occurs at 1 and 5 minutes after birth?
a)
APGAR
b)
NBAS
c)
NNNS
d)
none of the
38.
In order to be defined preterm, an infant needs to be born before the completion of __ weeks of gestation.
a)
20
b)
24
c)
37
d)
40
39.
Skin-to-skin contact between infant and parent is called
a)
Kangaroo Care
b)
Bonding
c)
Imprinting
d)
none of these
40.
During labor, the cervix thins, which is called
a)
effacement
b)
dilation
c)
none of these
d)
quickening
41.
The period after childbirth is called the ____ period.
a)
postpartum
b)
germinal
c)
gestational
d)
none of these
42.
Postpartum, the uterus returns to its pre-pregnant size through a process called
a)
involution
b)
quickening
c)
imprinting
d)
none of these
43.
In the 1950s, which drug resulted in thousands of infants being born with serious limb abnormalities?
a)
Thalidomide
b)
Tylenol
c)
Xanax
d)
none of these
44.
Which of the following is the term for organ formation in prenatal development?
a)
none of these
b)
quickening
c)
involution
d)
lanugo
45.
Which pattern of growth means "head to tail"?
a)
cephalocaudal
b)
proximodistal
c)
cephalographic
d)
none of these
46.
Which pattern of growth means "spine on out"?
a)
cephalocaudal
b)
proximodistal
c)
neurogenesis
d)
none of these
47.
It is expected that infants will ____ their birth weight in the first four months of life.
a)
lose half
b)
double
c)
triple
d)
none of these
48.
During which year of infancy is physical growth the greatest?
a)
the first year
b)
the second year
c)
consistent across both years
49.
About how many neurons are we born with?
a)
100
b)
1 million
c)
1 billion
d)
none of these
50.
At birth, the brain weighs about ___ of its adult weight.
a)
1/4
b)
1/3
c)
1/2
d)
none of these
51.
The cell body of a neuron is called the
a)
soma
b)
axon
c)
dendrite
d)
none of these
52.
The fatty insulation on the axon of a neuron is called:
a)
myelin
b)
nodes of ranvier
c)
soma
d)
none of these
53.
What is responsible for white matter in the brain?
a)
soma
b)
dendrites
c)
myelin
d)
none of these
54.
The development of new neurons is called:
a)
neurogenesis
b)
neuronal migration
c)
neural plasticity
d)
none of these
55.
Flexibility of the nervous system is referred to as
a)
neurogenesis
b)
neural plasticity
c)
neuronal migration
d)
none of these
56.
Which lobe of the brain contains the somatosensory cortex?
a)
parietal lobe
b)
temporal lobe
c)
frontal lobe
d)
occipital lobe
57.
What lobe of the brain contains the motor cortex?
a)
frontal lobe
b)
parietal lobe
c)
occipital lobe
d)
temporal lobe
58.
What lobe of the brain contains the prefrontal cortex?
a)
frontal
b)
parietal
c)
occipital
d)
temporal
59.
What lobe of the brain processes auditory information?
a)
frontal
b)
temporal
c)
parietal
d)
occipital
60.
What lobe of the brain processes visual information?
a)
frontal
b)
occipital
c)
parietal
d)
temporal
61.
What is the most common sleep related problem in infancy?
a)
REM disorder
b)
somnambulism
c)
night waking
d)
none of these
62.
Which stage of sleep starts the sleep cycle of a newborn?
a)
REM
b)
Stage 1
c)
Deep Sleep
d)
none of these
63.
What is the number one cause of infant death in the United States?
a)
kwashiorkor
b)
marasmus
c)
Shaken Baby Syndrome
d)
none of these
64.
Which of the following is a disease that results in the wasting away of body tissues during the first year of an infant's life?
a)
kwashiorkor
b)
marasmus
c)
SIDS
d)
none of these
65.
Which of the following nutritional issues results in swelling of the abdomen and feet?
a)
kwashiorkor
b)
marasmus
c)
SIDS
d)
none of these
66.
Which reflex involves the infant turning their head towards something that brushes against their cheek?
a)
Rooting
b)
Sucking
c)
Moro
d)
none of these
67.
Which reflex is a startle response?
a)
Rooting
b)
Sucking
c)
Moro
d)
None of these
68.
True or False: A newborn's grasp is reflexive in the first days of life.
a)
True
b)
False
69.
Which reflex will turn into more complex voluntary motor movement as the infant ages?
a)
Rooting
b)
Moro
c)
Grasping
d)
none of these
70.
Skills involving large muscle activity are called ____ motor skills.
a)
Vast
b)
General
c)
Fine
d)
none of these
71.
When would you expect an infant to begin to sit up independently for short periods of time?
a)
1 month
b)
3 months
c)
6 months
d)
1 year
72.
True or False: Infants that were raised in a cradle board tend to show long-lasting gross motor deficits.
a)
True
b)
False
73.
Buttoning a shirt and using a fork require ____ motor skills.
a)
Specific
b)
Fine
c)
General
d)
none of these
74.
Which grasp involves the thumb and forefinger?
a)
ulnar
b)
pincer
c)
pointer
d)
none of these
75.
Which term pertains to the interaction between external information and our sense receptors?
a)
sensation
b)
perception
c)
neurogenesis
d)
none of these
76.
Which term pertains to the interpretation of sensory information by our brain?
a)
sensation
b)
perception
c)
interpretation processing
d)
none of these
77.
True or False: Newborns are far-sighted.
a)
True
b)
False
78.
Which color would a 5-month old infant tend to prefer?
a)
royal blue, a saturated color
b)
baby blue, an unsaturated color
c)
an infant this age would not have a preference
79.
True or False: By the time an infant can crawl, they have developed depth perception.
a)
True
b)
False
80.
Which apparatus measures depth perception in infants?
a)
Visual Cliff
b)
Snellen Eye Test
c)
Object Permanence Test
d)
none of these
81.
Which of Piaget's stages of cognitive development take place in infancy?
a)
sensorimotor
b)
preoperational
c)
concrete operational
d)
formal operational
82.
Which types of schemas are used in infancy?
a)
behavioral
b)
cognitive
83.
Which of the following is an example of assimilation?
a)
an infant places everything into its mouth
b)
an infant learns that some things taste bad
84.
What term refers to the ability to understand that just because you can't see something doesn't mean it doesn't exist.
a)
perceptual constancy
b)
object permanence
c)
sensorimotor constancy
d)
none of these
85.
What type of memory do you use when you remember skills and procedures?
a)
implicit
b)
explicit
86.
What type of memory requires conscious recollection?
a)
implicit
b)
explicit
c)
none of these
87.
Inside your explicit memory is contained knowledge of
a)
skills, like riding a bike
b)
procedures
c)
your memory of the first day of school
d)
none of these
88.
Which area of the brain is responsible for memory?
a)
hypothalamus
b)
hippocampus
c)
brain stem
d)
none of these
89.
What is the sound system of language?
a)
phonology
b)
morphology
c)
syntax
d)
none of these
90.
What is a minimal unit of meaning in language?
a)
phoneme
b)
syntax
c)
morpheme
d)
none of these
91.
What language rule system involves vocabulary?
a)
phonology
b)
morphology
c)
syntax
d)
none of these
92.
What language rule system involves the appropriate use of language in different contexts?
a)
semantics
b)
pragmatics
c)
syntax
d)
none of these
93.
The way that words are combined in a language involves
a)
phonology
b)
syntax
c)
semantics
d)
none of these
94.
We should expect the vocabulary spurt to occur at about ___ months of age.
a)
6
b)
12
c)
18
d)
none of these
95.
Overextension means
a)
applying a word too generally
b)
applying a word too narrowly
c)
using improper syntax
d)
none of these
96.
Which area of the brain is responsible for production of language?
a)
Broca's area
b)
Wernicke's Area
c)
Suprachiasmatic Nucleus
d)
none of these
97.
Which brain area is responsible for language comprehension?
a)
Broca's area
b)
Wernicke's area
c)
Suprachiasmatic nucleus
d)
none of these
98.
Adults can enhance language acquisition by reprising things a child says, which is called
a)
recasting
b)
motherese
c)
child-directed speech
d)
expanding
99.
Which area of the limbic system is responsible for fear and aggression?
a)
hypothalamus
b)
amygdala
c)
thalamus
d)
hippocampus
100.
Which area of the limbic system is responsible for maintaining homeostasis?
a)
thalamus
b)
hypothalamus
c)
hippocampus
d)
none of these
101.
Which of the following is NOT a primary emotion?
a)
surprise
b)
happiness
c)
fear
d)
guilt
102.
Which cry involves breath holding?
a)
basic
b)
anger
c)
pain
d)
none of these
103.
True or False: A newborn's first smiles are reflexive in nature.
a)
True
b)
False
104.
What is Erikson's 1st stage of development that takes place in infancy?
a)
trust vs. mistrust
b)
autonomy vs. shame and doubt
c)
integrity vs. despair
d)
none of these
105.
When would we expect to see self-recognition develop in an infant?
a)
6 months
b)
12 months
c)
18 months
d)
none of these
106.
What is the ability to "read" emotions of others?
a)
social referencing
b)
perceptual constancy
c)
temperament
d)
none of these
107.
Which researcher studies attachment in monkeys?
a)
Piaget
b)
Freud
c)
Erikson
d)
none of these
108.
Which of Ainsworth's attachment styles is characterized by clinging and pushing away?
a)
securely attached
b)
insecure avoidant
c)
insecure resistant
d)
insecure disorganized
109.
What is Erikson's second stage of development?
a)
trust vs. mistrust
b)
integrity vs. despair
c)
initiative vs. guilt
d)
none of these
110.
In temperament studies, most children would be classified as:
a)
easy
b)
difficult
c)
slow-to-warm up
d)
none of these
111.
True or False: Child-Directed speech is typically an automatic behavior.
a)
True
b)
False
112.
Which theorist believed that humans are biologically wired to learn language at a certain time?
a)
Chompsky
b)
Bowlby
c)
Bandura
d)
none of these
113.
In middle and late childhood, the cortex of the brain thickens, particularly in the frontal and _____ lobes.
a)
occipital
b)
parietal
c)
temporal
114.
The amount of time that it takes to respond to a stimulus is called
a)
reaction time
b)
response time
c)
subitizing time
d)
none of these
115.
Which of the following is a general term describing a learning problem?
a)
learning disability
b)
mental retardation
c)
autism
d)
none of these
116.
Which of the following learning disabilities involves an impairment in the ability to read and spell?
a)
dyslexia
b)
dysgraphia
c)
dyscalculia
d)
none of these
117.
Alex has difficulty with phonology, rhyming, and determining meaning of written words. He would be diagnosed with
a)
dyslexia
b)
dysgraphia
c)
autism
d)
none of these
118.
Which area of the brain is associated with dyslexia?
a)
angular gyrus
b)
thalamus
c)
hippocampus
d)
none of these
119.
Which learning disability involves problems with writing?
a)
dyslexia
b)
dysgraphia
c)
dyscalculia
d)
none of these
120.
Which of the following learning disabilities involves math?
a)
dyslexia
b)
dysgraphia
c)
dyscalculia
d)
none of these
121.
Which of the following is one of the first symptoms of dyscalculia?
a)
problems with subitizing
b)
pain while writing
c)
difficulty with nonverbal communication
d)
none of these
122.
In ADHD, being overly forgetful and having difficulty with directions are symptoms of
a)
inattention
b)
hyperactivity
c)
impulsivity
d)
none of these
123.
In ADHD, excessive fidgeting is a symptom of
a)
inattention
b)
hyperactivity
c)
impulsivity
d)
none of these
124.
In ADHD, difficulty waiting turns is a symptom of
a)
inattention
b)
hyperactivity
c)
impulsivity
d)
none of these
125.
Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated with motivation?
a)
norepinephrine
b)
dopamine
c)
acetylcholine
d)
none of these
126.
Which brain area is responsible for voluntary movement of the facial muscles?
a)
putamen
b)
reticular activating system
c)
limbic system
d)
none of these
127.
Which area of the brainstem serves as a "filter" for attention?
a)
angular gyrus
b)
reticular activating system
c)
putamen
d)
none of these
128.
Which lobe of the brain is usually under-active in cases of ADHD?
a)
frontal
b)
temporal
c)
parietal
d)
occipital
129.
Brain injury to the ____ lobes of the brain can mimic symptoms of ADHD.
a)
frontal
b)
temporal
c)
parietal
d)
occipital
130.
Which of the following medications is a stimulant treatment of ADHD?
a)
Ritalin
b)
Kapvay
c)
Straterra
d)
none of these
131.
Which of the following medications is a stimulant treatment of ADHD?
a)
Ritalin
b)
Kapvay
c)
Straterra
d)
none of these
132.
Which type of medication treatment is most often prescribed for ADHD?
a)
nonstimulant medications
b)
stimulant medications
c)
benzodiazepines
d)
none of these
133.
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of autism spectrum disorders?
a)
problems with social interaction
b)
problems with nonverbal communication
c)
repetitive behaviors
d)
all of these are symptoms
134.
Which of the following is the idea that education to students with special needs should be given in a regular classroom full-time?
a)
Individualized Education Plan
b)
Least Restrictive Environment
c)
Inclusion
d)
none of these
135.
Which of Piaget's stages of cognitive development occurs in middle and late childhood?
a)
sensorimotor
b)
preoperational
c)
concrete operational
d)
formal operational
136.
Mental activities that are reversible are called
a)
transitivity
b)
conservation themes
c)
operations
d)
schemas
137.
The ability to logically combine relations to understand certain conclusions is called
a)
transductive reasoning
b)
accommodation
c)
subitizing
d)
transitivity
138.
The ability to order based on characteristics is called
a)
transitivity
b)
seriation
c)
inductive reasoning
d)
pre causal reasoning
139.
Which type of memory develops further in middle and late childhood?
a)
short-term memory
b)
long-term memory
c)
neither of these
d)
both of these
140.
Which of the following means thinking reflectively and productively while synthesizing and evaluating evidence?
a)
mindfulness
b)
self-regulation
c)
transitivity
d)
none of these
141.
Which of the following thinking produces one correct answer?
a)
divergent
b)
convergent
c)
inductive
d)
deductive
142.
Which thinking produces many answers to the same question?
a)
convergent
b)
divergent
c)
inductive
d)
deductive
143.
Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating IQ?
a)
MA/CA X 100
b)
CA/MA X 100
c)
MA/CA X 10
d)
MA/CA X 10
144.
Which of the following involve domain-specific evaluations of the self?
a)
self esteem
b)
self concept
c)
self efficacy
d)
self regulation
145.
Which of the following involve the belief that one can master a situation and produce a favorable outcome?
a)
self esteem
b)
self concept
c)
self efficacy
d)
self regulation
146.
Which of the following involve deliberate efforts to maintain and manage thoughts, emotions, and behavior?
a)
self esteem
b)
self concept
c)
self efficacy
d)
self regulation
147.
Who studied moral development using the Heinz dilemma?
a)
Kohlberg
b)
Piaget
c)
Bandura
d)
Vygotsky
148.
If a person responded to the Heinz dilemma by stating that Heinz was wrong because he would get in trouble, which stage would this person be in?
a)
Stage 1: Obedience and Punishment Orientation
b)
Stage 2: Individualism and Exchange
c)
Stage 3: Good Interpersonal Relationships
d)
Stage 4: Maintaining Social Order
149.
If a person responded to the Heinz dilemma by stating that Heinz was just being a good husband, this is an example of:
a)
Stage 4: Maintaining Social Order
b)
Stage 2: Individualism and Exchange
c)
Stage 5: Social Contract Orientation
d)
none of these
150.
If someone responded to the Heinz dilemma by stating that we have laws to prevent chaos and those laws should be upheld, this reflects:
a)
Stage 5: Social Contract Orientation
b)
Stage 4: Maintaining Social Order
c)
Stage 1: Obedience and Punishment Orientation
d)
none of these
151.
What is the average IQ score in the population?
a)
100
b)
130
c)
75
d)
none of these
152.
What is the average IQ score in the population?
a)
100
b)
130
c)
75
d)
none of these
153.
What is the "fuzzy" trace theory?
a)
remembering the "gist" of things
b)
improvement in working memory
c)
putting things into meaningful categories
d)
none of these
154.
What is the area of the brain that is associated with dyscalculia?
a)
angular gyrus
b)
intraperietal sulcus
c)
basal ganglia
d)
none of these
155.
By ___ years old, the brain has reached its adult size.
a)
2
b)
5
c)
7
d)
none of these
156.
In early childhood, there is rapid development in the ____ lobes, which relate to planning, organizing actions, and attention.
a)
frontal
b)
temporal
c)
parietal
d)
none of these
157.
What is the number one reported sleep problem among individuals in early childhood?
a)
sleep terrors
b)
somnambulism
c)
somniloquy
d)
none of these
158.
What is the term for sleepwalking?
a)
somnambulism
b)
somniloquy
c)
somnialocation
d)
none of these
159.
Which sleep related problem typically occurs during REM sleep?
a)
night terrors
b)
sleepwalking
c)
sleeptalking
d)
nightmares
160.
True or False: Picky eating is normal in early childhood.
a)
True
b)
False
161.
What is the number one cause of malnutrition among US children?
a)
marasmus
b)
kwashiorkor
c)
iron deficiency anemia
d)
none of these
162.
What is the number one cause of mortality among US children in early childhood?
a)
SIDS
b)
iron deficiency anemia
c)
accidents
d)
none of these
163.
What is Piaget's stage of cognitive development that occurs in early childhood?
a)
sensorimotor
b)
preoperational
c)
concrete operational
d)
formal operational
164.
What is the hallmark of the preoperational period of cognitive development?
a)
symbolic representation
b)
coordination of motor responses
c)
ability to think abstractly
d)
none of these
165.
In early childhood, children are literally the "center of their universe". What is this called?
a)
egocentrism
b)
artificialism
c)
sensorimotor function
d)
none of these
166.
Egocentrism is
a)
inability to take another's perspective
b)
belief that inanimate objects have feelings
c)
ability to identify a stimulus
d)
none of these
167.
Which of the following is the belief that natural phenomena or environmental features were made by people?
a)
egocentrism
b)
transductive reasoning
c)
conservation
d)
none of these
168.
The belief that inanimate objects have life-like qualities is called:
a)
artificialism
b)
animism
c)
transductive reasoning
d)
none of these
169.
When the causes of events are attributed to will, it is called ____ thinking.
a)
precausal
b)
transductive
c)
conservation
d)
none of these
170.
Reasoning that involves putting two isolated events together in a cause-and-effect fashion is called:
a)
precausal reasoning
b)
transductive reasoning
c)
egocentrism
d)
none of these
171.
Focusing attention on one characteristic at the exclusion of others is called:
a)
conservation
b)
egocentrism
c)
animism
d)
none of these
172.
Effortful, goal-directed engagement is called _____ attention.
a)
executive
b)
sustained
c)
working
d)
none of these
173.
The digit span test measures:
a)
phonology
b)
morphology
c)
semantics
d)
none of these
174.
On the digit span test, the average three year old should be expected to remember ____ digits.
a)
0
b)
2
c)
4
d)
none of these
175.
On the digit span test, the average 7 year old should be expected to remember ____ digits.
a)
0
b)
2
c)
4
d)
none of these
176.
Which of the following does NOT influence recall of memories in early childhood?
a)
age of the child
b)
individual differences between children
c)
interviewing techniques
d)
ALL of these are influential
177.
What is the awareness of one's own mental processes and the mental processes of others?
a)
Theory of Mind
b)
executive function
c)
transductive reasoning
d)
none of these
178.
The sound system of language is called:
a)
phonology
b)
morphology
c)
pragmatics
d)
none of these
179.
The WUG test measures
a)
morphology rules
b)
short-term memory
c)
semantics
d)
none of these
180.
What is Erikson's stage of psychosocial development that is associated with early childhood?
a)
autonomy vs. shame and doubt
b)
integrity vs. despair
c)
trust vs. mistrust
d)
none of these
181.
Which of the following parenting styles is healthiest in terms of emotional regulation?
a)
emotion-coaching
b)
emotion-dismissing
c)
none of these
d)
emotion-enhancing
182.
Which of Freud's concepts embodies moral reasoning?
a)
id
b)
ego
c)
superego
d)
none of these
183.
What is the idea that rules and justice are unchangeable properties of the world?
a)
heteronomous morality
b)
immanent justice
c)
transductive reasoning
d)
none of these
184.
Young children believe in _______, which reasons that if a rule is broken, punishment will occur immediately.
a)
immanent justice
b)
heteronomous morality
c)
transductive reasoning
d)
none of these
185.
Characteristics of people as male or female is referred to as
a)
gender
b)
gender role
c)
gender identity
d)
gender typing
186.
A cluster of traits and behaviors that are considered stereotypical of males and females is referred to as
a)
gender
b)
gender role
c)
gender identity
d)
gender typing
187.
A sense of one's own gender as being male or female is referred to as
a)
gender
b)
gender role
c)
gender identity
d)
gender typing
188.
Acquisition of a traditional masculine or feminine role is known as
a)
gender
b)
gender role
c)
gender identity
d)
gender typing
189.
Which gender theory focuses on operant conditioning?
a)
evolutionary
b)
social role
c)
social cognitive
d)
none of these
190.
Which of Baumrind's parenting styles is the healthiest?
a)
authoritarian
b)
authoritative
c)
indulgent
d)
none of these
191.
Which of the following is a restrictive, punitive parenting style?
a)
authoritarian
b)
authoritative
c)
neglectful
d)
indulgent
192.
Which form of child maltreatment is most common?
a)
physical abuse
b)
sexual abuse
c)
emotional abuse
d)
neglect
193.
Which of the following responses is recommended when dealing with sibling conflict?
a)
intervene and try to help resolve
b)
threaten
c)
do nothing and let them sort it out
d)
none of these
194.
According to research on birth order, which child is most likely to be outgoing, social, and humorous?
a)
first born
b)
middle children
c)
last born
195.
According to research on birth order, which children are more likely to have strong leadership skills?
a)
first born
b)
middle children
c)
last born
196.
According to research on birth order, which child is most likely to be flexible, independent, and a natural negotiator?
a)
first born
b)
middle children
c)
last born
197.
True or False: Research has shown significant differences in adjustment and mental health outcomes of children raised by same-sex parents.
a)
True
b)
False
198.
What type of play involves repetition of a behavior?
a)
sensorimotor play
b)
pretense play
c)
practice play
d)
none of these
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