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WorksheetsATA243142
Total questions: 194
Worksheet time: 2hrs 37mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The primary function of the AC normal generation is to supply electrical power to the users on ground or in flight through the sources that follow: (level 3)
a)
Ground Power Unit(s) (GPU(s)), Auto Transformer Units (ATUs), APU generator, Variable Frequency Generators (VFGs),
b)
Ground Power Unit(s) (GPU(s)), Auto Transformer Units (ATUs), APU generator, Integrated Driven Generators (IDGs),
c)
Ground Power Unit(s) (GPU(s)), APU generator, Variable Frequency Generators (VFGs),
2.
In normal configuration, the APU generator supply the aircraft electrical network: (level 2)
a)
Three phases, 115VAC, 400Hz constant frequency.
b)
Three phases, 230VAC, frequency range from 360Hz and 800Hz.
c)
Three phases, 230VAC, 400Hz constant frequency.
3.
The SGCU (Starter Generator Control Unit) manages: (level 2)
a)
The regulation and protection for the Generate mode of the APU SG (Auxiliary Power Unit Starter Generator),
b)
The regulation and protection for the Generate mode of the air starter and generator,
c)
Both answer are correct
4.
What are functions of SGCU (Starter Generator Control Unit)? (level 2)
a)
It supplies power to Electrical network.
b)
It manages the regulation and protection APU Starter Generator in Generate mode.
c)
It sends command to ECB to control APU.
5.
Maximum continuous power of VFG (Variable Frequency Generator) is: (level 3)
a)
90 kVA,
b)
100 kVA,
c)
150 kVA.
6.
Properties of the VFGs (Variable Frequency Generators) are: (level 3)
a)
Three phases, 230VAC, 400Hz constant frequency.
b)
Three phases, 230VAC, frequency range from 360Hz and 800Hz depending on the N3 rotor speed.
c)
Three phases, 115VAC, frequency range from 360Hz and 800Hz depending on the N3 rotor speed.
7.
On ELEC panel the DRIVE P/BSW controls: (level 2)
a)
The thermal disconnection of the VFG (Variable Frequency Generator).
b)
The exciter generator cut off.
c)
The mechanical disconnection of the VFG (Variable Frequency Generator).
8.
The FAULT legend of the DRIVE P/BSW comes on when: (level 2)
a)
The VFG (Variable Frequency Generator) is mechanically defective.
b)
The VFG (Variable Frequency Generator) is electrically defective.
c)
The VFG (Variable Frequency Generator) is electrically or mechanically defective.
9.
In case of VFG (Variable Frequency Generator) is mechanically disconnect from engine accessory gearbox and If the troubleshooting is satisfactory: (level 3)
a)
These VFG must be replaced by the new one.
b)
These VFG can re-connect to the gearbox with the related reset pushbutton on the ELEC panel.
c)
These VFG can re-connect to the gearbox with the related reset handle.
10.
After the VFG (Variable Frequency Generator) has an automatic thermal-disconnection: (level 3)
a)
It is necessary to remove the defective VFG.
b)
The VFG can be reconnect to the gearbox with the related reset pushbutton on the ELEC panel
c)
If the troubleshooting is satisfactory, the VFG can be reconnect to the gearbox with the related reset handle.
11.
The regulation and the protection of each VFG (Variable Frequency Generator) are managed by two components: (level 2)
a)
EDMU (Electrical Distribution management unit) and ENMU (Electrical Network Management Unit).
b)
GCU (Generator control unit) and EDMU (Electrical Distribution management unit).
c)
One GCU (Generator Control Unit) and one OPU (Overvoltage Protection Unit).
12.
The minimum rating of each GPU (Ground Power Unit) must be: (level 2)
a)
90 kVA.
b)
115 kVA.
c)
60 kVA.
13.
The regulation and the protection of each VFG (Variable Frequency Generator) are managed by: (level 2)
a)
One GCU (Generator Control Unit) and two OPU (Overvoltage Protection Unit).
b)
One GCU (Generator Control Unit) and one OPU (Overvoltage Protection Unit).
c)
Two GCU (Generator Control Unit) and two OPU (Overvoltage Protection Unit).
14.
The manual control of the VFG (Variable Frequency Generator) is done through the GCU (Generator Control Unit): (level 2)
a)
The GEN P/BSW for the electrical connection/disconnection of the VFG to/from the aircraft main electrical network.
b)
The DRIVE P/BSW for the electrical connection/disconnection of the VFG to/from the aircraft main electrical network.
c)
The GEN P/BSW for the mechanical disconnection of the VFG.
15.
Which are functions of OPU (Overvoltage Protection Unit)? (level 2)
a)
Gives overload protection by automatic commercial-load shedding.
b)
Open GLC (Generator Line Contactor) when overvoltage occurs.
c)
Over voltage and open cable protection.
16.
the DC normal generation is to supply electrical power to the users through the sources that follow: (level 3)
a)
Two Transformer Rectifiers (TRs), four batteries.
b)
Two Transformer Rectifiers (TRs), two batteries.
c)
Four Transformer Rectifiers (TRs), four batteries.
17.
The main Function of a TR (Transformer Rectifier) is to convert: (level 3)
a)
115 VAC to 28VDC or 28VDC to 115VAC.
b)
230VAC to 28VDC.
c)
230VAC to 28VDC or 115 VAC to 28VDC.
18.
The TR (Transformer Rectifier) Line Contactor is controlled by the: (level 3)
a)
EPCU (External Power Control Unit).
b)
Related TR itself.
c)
EDMU (Electrical Distribution management unit).
19.
How to do the reset of the TRs (Transformer Rectifiers) protection functions? (level 3)
a)
On the overhead panel, on the RESET sections, TR1 and TR2 switches are used.
b)
By the Reset p/b on the front face of TRs.
c)
On the overhead panel, on the ELEC sections, TR1 and TR2 switches are used.
20.
The NBPT (No Break Power Transfer) functions of batteries: (level 2)
a)
To keep the 28VDC available at the related 28VDC busbars during electrical power transfers and/or electrical network reconfigurations.
b)
Is permanently connected to its related 28VDC HOT BUS.
c)
Start of the APU when no AC main power source is available.
21.
For the 230VAC power, in normal configuration, the AC emergency network is supplied by: (level 3)
a)
230VAC busbar AC 1B, 2A.
b)
230VAC busbar AC 1B, 2B.
c)
230VAC busbar AC 1A, 2B.
22.
In flight, Ram Air Turbine (RAT) will be automatic deployed if: (level 3)
a)
Green reservoir low level.
b)
Total Engine Flame Out (TEFO) or Loss of Main Electrical Supply (LMES).
c)
Loss of Green and Yellow Hydraulic pressure.
23.
The GPUs (Ground Power Units) are monitored by: (level 2)
a)
The GPCU (Ground Power Control Unit),
b)
The EPDCs (Electrical Power Distribution Centers),
c)
The PPDBs (Primary Power Distribution Box),
24.
How to deploy the RAT (Ram Air Turbine) manually? (level 3)
a)
The flight crew can push the guarded MAN ON pushbutton switch.
b)
The flight crew can active in MFD (Multi-Function Display).
c)
The flight crew can push the guarded RAT MAN ON pushbutton switch.
25.
On the ground, for a de-energized aircraft: (level 2)
a)
It is possible to deploy the RAT on the ground, because the auto/manual solenoid is supplied from EMER HOT BUS 2.
b)
It is not possible to deploy the RAT on the ground.
c)
It is possible to stow the RAT on the ground, because the auto/manual solenoid is supplied from EMER HOT BUS 2.
26.
Both RAT (Ram Air Turbine) generator heaters operate: (level 1)
a)
Automatically when the aircraft is in flight and the RAT is stowed.
b)
Automatically when the aircraft is energized and the RAT is stowed.
c)
Automatically when the aircraft is energized.
27.
The RAT (Ram Air Turbine) generator properties are related to the aircraft speed: (level 2)
a)
Three phases, 115VAC, 400Hz constant frequency.
b)
Three phases, 230VAC, frequency range from 360Hz and 800Hz.
c)
Three phases, 230VAC, 400Hz constant frequency.
28.
The static inverter changes: (level 2)
a)
The 28VDC from emergency battery 1 into single phase 230VAC 400Hz.
b)
The 28VDC from emergency battery 2 into single phase 115VAC 400Hz.
c)
The 28VDC from emergency battery 1 into single phase 115VAC 400Hz.
29.
The static inverter operates in the conditions that follow: (level 1)
a)
In flight, when the main AC power is lost (LMES/TEFO).
b)
On the ground, if the BAT EMER 1 pushbutton switch is pushed, and no AC source is available.
c)
Both answer are correct
30.
The emergency ATUs (Auto Transfer Units) and the main ATUs: (level 1)
a)
Are the same and interchangeable.
b)
Are not interchangeable.
c)
The same power rating.
31.
The function of the emergency ATUs (Auto Transfer Units) is to change: (level 3)
a)
The 230VAC into 115VAC.
b)
The 115VAC into 230VAC.
c)
The 230VAC into 115VAC or the 115VAC into 230VAC.
32.
The emergency TRs (Transformer Rectifiers) and the main TRs are: (level 1)
a)
Are the same and interchangeable.
b)
Are not interchangeable.
c)
They have a different power rating.
33.
The emergency batteries and the main batteries: (level 3)
a)
Are fully interchangeable.
b)
Are not interchangeable.
c)
They have a different power rating.
34.
What happen if only one GPU (Ground Power Unit) supply Aircraft network? (level 2)
a)
One GPU (Ground Power Unit) can supply power for aircraft.
b)
It can supply all of the aircraft electrical network but the automatic shedding inhibits some commercial (cabin) loads.
c)
We need both GPU (Ground Power Unit) in all cases.
35.
Each side of the EPDS (Electrical Power Distribution System) has one EPDC (Electrical Power Distribution Center), one CBP (Circuit Breaker Panel) and: (level 2)
a)
Twelve SPDBs (Secondary Power Distribution Boxes): eight cabin SPDBs and four cargo SPDBs.
b)
Six SPDBs (Secondary Power Distribution Boxes): four cabin SPDBs and two cargo SPDBs.
c)
Eight SPDBs (Secondary Power Distribution Boxes): six cabin SPDBs and two cargo SPDBs.
36.
The EPDCs (Electrical Power Distribution Centers) and CBPs (Circuit Breaker Panels) are installed: (level 1)
a)
The cabin and cargo compartments.
b)
In the bulk cargo compartments.
c)
In the avionics compartment.
37.
The Secondary Power Distribution Boxes (SPDBs) are installed: (level 1)
a)
The cabin and cargo compartments.
b)
In the bulk cargo compartments.
c)
In the avionics compartment.
38.
The primary distribution part of the EPDC (Electrical Power Distribution Center) supplies electrical power to technical loads which have an electrical power consumption of: (level 1)
a)
More than 15 A.
b)
Less than or equal to 15 A.
c)
More than 25 A.
39.
The secondary distribution part of the EPDC (Electrical Power Distribution Center) supplies electrical power to technical loads which have an electrical power consumption of: (level 2)
a)
More than 15 A.
b)
Less than or equal to 15 A.
c)
More than 25 A.
40.
The CBP (Circuit Breaker Panel) include following protection and/or switching devices? (level 1)
a)
RCCBs (Remote Control Circuit Breakers), SSPCs (Solid State Power Contactors), Contactors.
b)
SSPCs (Solid State Power Contactors).
c)
Classic CB (Circuit Breaker) and SSPC (Solid State Power Contactor).
41.
The functions of External Power Control Units (EPCU1 in EPDC1 and EPCU 2 in EPDC2) is/are: (level 2)
a)
GPU (Ground Power Unit) monitoring,
b)
Protections,
c)
GPU (Ground Power Unit) monitoring and protections.
42.
The functions of the Electrical Distribution Monitoring Units (EDMU1A and EDMU1B in EPDC1, EDMU2A and EDMU2B in EPDC2) is/are: (level 3)
a)
Load shedding commands,
b)
External power parameters transmission,
c)
Load shedding commands and External power parameters transmission.
43.
External power “AVAIL” information of the GPU (Ground Power Unit) is shown in the cockpit on the “ELEC” panel and on the: (level 3)
a)
Nose wheel steering box
b)
External power Panel
c)
Integrated Refuel Panel
44.
The function of the ATUs (Auto Transfer Unit) is to change: (level 3)
a)
The 230VAC into 115VAC.
b)
The 115VAC into 230VAC.
c)
The 230VAC into 115VAC or the 115VAC into 230VAC.
45.
In normal configuration, the VFGs (Variable Frequency Generators) or the APU generator supply the aircraft electrical network: (level 2)
a)
115VAC
b)
230VAC
c)
28VDC
46.
VFG Low Oil Lever trigged when (level 1)
a)
In flight
b)
On Ground and after 6 min after Engine Shutdown
c)
On ground and engine running
47.
The Power Distribution Maintenance Interface (PDMI) is used for maintenance. The PDMI can be operated: (level 3)
a)
only on the ground through the related ELEC REMOTE C/B CTL pushbutton switch set to ON
b)
only in flight through the related ELEC REMOTE C/B CTL pushbutton switch set to ON
c)
on the ground or in the flight through the related ELEC REMOTE C/B CTL pushbutton switch set to ON
48.
The ESN standard parts are identified by (level 3)
a)
Blue identification labels and sleeves
b)
Red identification labels and sleeves
c)
Green identification labels and sleeves
49.
Where is RAT install? (level 3)
a)
On the Left hand belly fairing
b)
On the Right hand Belly fairing
c)
On the Left hand Number 4 flap track fairing
50.
EPCU (External Power Control Unit) and EDMU (Electrical Network Management Unit) Cards are part of the? (level 1)
a)
EPDC (Electrical Power Distribution Center).
b)
CPIOM (Core Processing Input/Output Module).
c)
ENMU (Electrical Network Management Unit).
51.
The functions of External Power Control Units (EPCU1 in EPDC1 and EPCU2 in EPDC2): (level 2)
a)
GPU (Ground Power Unit) monitoring and Protections.
b)
Connection and disconnection of the EPLCs (External Power Line Contactors).
c)
GPU (Ground Power Unit) monitoring and Protections, Connection and disconnection of the EPLCs (External Power Line Contactors).
52.
The Protection of EXT PWR channel is made by? (level 2)
a)
One External Power Control Unit (EPCU) for each Channel.
b)
Electrical Distribution Monitoring Units.
c)
Electrical Load management Function in CPIOM.
53.
The electronic cards in the EPDC (Electrical Power Distribution Center) that give direct communication with AFDX network are the: (level 2)
a)
Electrical Network Management Function (ENMF).
b)
Electrical Load Management Function (ELMF).
c)
Electrical Distribution Management Unit (EDMU).
54.
EPDC1 (Electrical Power Distribution Center 1) and EPDC2 (Electrical Power Distribution Center 2) supply 115VAC and 28VDC electrical power from the EPGS (External Power Generation System) to the SPDBs (Secondary Power Distribution Boxes) to supply the cabin and cargo loads. There are: (level 2)
a)
7 SPDBs for cabin and 7 SPDBs for cargo.
b)
4 SPDBs for cabin and 8 SPDBs for cargo.
c)
8 SPDBs for cabin and 4 SPDBs for cargo.
55.
Towing on Battery Configuration, which functions are available? (level 2)
a)
VHF1, Flight interphone, Cockpit ambient lighting (limited), PARK BRAKE ON light (amber) on the steering disconnect panel.
b)
Alternate braking on accumulators, VHF1, Flight interphone, Cockpit ambient lighting (limited).
c)
Alternate braking on accumulators, VHF1, Flight interphone, Cockpit ambient lighting (limited), - PARK BRAKE ON light (amber) on the steering disconnect panel.
56.
The refuel on battery system uses: (level 1)
a)
Emergency Battery 1 and Emergency Battery 2.
b)
Battery 1 and Battery 2.
c)
Battery 1 and Battery Emergency 1.
57.
For each VFGs (Variable Frequency Generators), Which component gives a thermal exchange between the VFG oil and the fan air flow? (level 2)
a)
VFG Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger.
b)
a Surface Air/Oil Heat Exchanger (SAOHE)
c)
VFG Hyd/Oil Heat Exchanger.
58.
VFG (Variable Frequency Generator) Low Oil Lever trigged when: (level 1)
a)
In flight.
b)
On Ground and after 6 min after Engine Shutdown
c)
On ground and engine running.
59.
In case of VFG (Variable Frequency Generator) was disconnected during flight. (level 1)
a)
That VFG must be replaced.
b)
That VFG can reconnect maximum 15 times
c)
That VFG must be reconnected before next flight.
60.
Where is RAT (Ram Air Turbine) install on: (level 2)
a)
The Left hand belly fairing.
b)
The Right hand Belly fairing.
c)
The Left hand Number 4 flap track fairing.
61.
The RAT (Ram Air Turbine) stow panel installed on: (level 3)
a)
The Green hydraulic Ground Service Panel (GSP) in the belly fairing.
b)
The Yellow hydraulic Ground Service Panel (GSP) in the belly fairing.
c)
On the Right hand Belly fairing.
62.
Which hydraulic system power to the actuator during retraction of the RAT (Ram Air Turbine) module? (level 1)
a)
Yellow
b)
Green
c)
Blue
63.
Power used to stow the RAT (Ram Air Turbine) is the: (level 1)
a)
Green Hydraulic System.
b)
Yellow hydraulic System.
c)
Both answer are correct
64.
Which sentences are correct? (level 3)
a)
The ESN (Electrical Structure Network) parts are identified with Blue labels and sleeves.
b)
The ESN (Electrical Structure Network) parts are identified with Red labels and sleeves.
c)
The ESN (Electrical Structure Network) parts are identified with green labels and sleeves.
65.
The ESN (Electrical Structure Network) standard parts are identified by? (level 1)
a)
Green identification labels and sleeves.
b)
Blue identification labels.
c)
Specific part number.
66.
How many External Power Receptacles (EXT PWR RCPTs) are available to connect one or two 115VAC 400Hz three-phases GPUs and to supply the aircraft electrical network on ground? (level 1)
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
67.
The minimum rating of each GPU must be(level 1)
a)
90KVA
b)
110KVA
c)
220KVA
68.
EPCU Cards are part of the(level 1)
a)
Electrical Distribution Monitoring Units (EDMU)
b)
Electrical Network Management Units(ENMU)
c)
External Power Control Units (EPDC)
69.
External power “AVAIL” information of the GPU is shown in the cockpit on the “ELEC” panel and on the(level 1)
a)
Nose wheel steering box
b)
External power Panel
c)
Integrated Refuel Panel
70.
Which card gives protection of the external power supply (Over/under voltage, Over/under frequency..)? (level 1)
a)
Electrical Distribution Monitoring Units (EDMU)
b)
Electrical Network Management Units(ENMU)
c)
External Power Control Units (EPDC)
71.
the status and parameters of the external power supply is shown on(level 1)
a)
the ELEC AC page of the ECAM SD.
b)
the ELEC DC page of the ECAM SD.
c)
the CB page of the ECAM SD.
72.
How many interchangeable main ATUs in A350 aircraft? (level 1)
a)
1
b)
2
c)
4
73.
The function of the ATUs is to change(level 1)
a)
the 230VAC into 115VAC
b)
The 115VAC into 230VAC
c)
Both answer are correct
74.
In normal configuration, the VFGs or the APU generator supply the aircraft electrical network(level 1)
a)
115VAC
b)
230VAC
c)
28VDC
75.
The Starter Generator (SG) of APU has(level 1)
a)
a start function and an electrical power-generation function
b)
a start function only
c)
an electrical power-generation function only
76.
The frequency of APU starter generator is(level 1)
a)
Variable from 360Hz to 800Hz
b)
400Hz constant frequency
c)
115Hz constant
77.
The FAULT legend of the DRIVE P/BSW comes on when(level 1)
a)
the VFG is mechanically defective
b)
the VFG is electrically defective
c)
the VFG is electrically or mechanically defective
78.
In case of VFG is disconnect from engine accessory gearbox and If the troubleshooting is satisfactory. (level 1)
a)
these VFG must be replace by the new one
b)
these VFG can be reconnect to the gearbox with the related reset pushbutton on the ELEC panel
c)
these VFG can be reconnect to the gearbox with the related reset handle
79.
After the VFG has an automatic thermal-disconnection(level 1)
a)
these VFG must be replace by the new one
b)
these VFG can be reconnect to the gearbox with the related reset pushbutton on the ELEC panel
c)
these VFG can be reconnect to the gearbox with the related reset handle
80.
The regulation and the protection of each VFG are managed by: (level 1)
a)
One GCU and two OPU
b)
One GCU and one OPU
c)
Two GCU and two OPU
81.
The main Function of a TR is to convert(level 1)
a)
115 VAC to 28VDC
b)
230 VAC to 115 VAC
c)
230VAC to 28VDC
82.
How to do the reset of the TR protection functions? (level 1)
a)
On the overhead panel, on the RESET sections, TR1 and TR2 switches are used
b)
By the Reset p/b on the front face of TRs
c)
By OMT
83.
The TR Line Contactor is controlled by the(level 1)
a)
EPCU
b)
Related TR itself
c)
EDMU
84.
The TOWING ON BAT section of the maintenance panels can give the charge level of(level 1)
a)
Battery 2 only
b)
Battery 1 only
c)
Both Batteries
85.
Which case the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) will be automatic deployed? (level 2)
a)
Loss Green hydraulic pressure
b)
Total Engine Flame Out (TEFO) or Loss of Main Electrical Supply (LMES)
c)
Loss of both Hydraulic pressure
86.
How to deploy the RAT manually? (level 2)
a)
the flight crew can push the guarded MAN ON pushbutton switch
b)
the flight crew can active in MFD
c)
the flight crew can push the guarded RAT MAN ON pushbutton switch
87.
For a de-energized aircraft (level 2)
a)
It is possible to deploy the RAT on the ground, because the auto/manual solenoid is supplied from EMER HOT BUS 2.
b)
It is not possible to deploy the RAT on the ground
c)
It is possible to stow the RAT on the ground
88.
What is the function of static inverter? (level 2)
a)
It changes the 28VDC from emergency battery 1 into single phase 230 VAC 400Hz
b)
It changes the 28VDC from emergency battery 1 into single phase 115VAC 400Hz
c)
It changes the 28VDC from emergency battery 1 into three phases 230 VAC 400Hz
89.
The EPDCs and CBPs are installed (level 2)
a)
the cabin and cargo compartments
b)
in the bulk cargo compartments
c)
in the avionics compartment
90.
The Secondary Power Distribution Boxes(SPDBs) are installed (level 2)
a)
the cabin and cargo compartments
b)
in the bulk cargo compartments
c)
in the avionics compartment
91.
The RCCB are used for protection and/or switching of loads which (level 2)
a)
Have an electrical power consumption of less than 15A
b)
Have an electrical power consumption of more than 15A
c)
Have an electrical power consumption of less than 10A
92.
The CBP include following protection and/or switching devices (level 2)
a)
Classic CB and RCCB
b)
Classic CB and SSPC
c)
RCCB and Contactors
93.
The electronic cards in the EPDC that give direct communication with AFDX network are the (level 2)
a)
Electrical Network Management Function (ENMF)
b)
Electrical Load Management Function (ELMF)
c)
Electrical Distribution Management Unit(EDMU)
94.
EPDC1 and EPDC2 supply 115VAC and 28VDC electrical power from the EPGS to the SPDBs to supply the cabin and cargo loads. There are: (level 2)
a)
7 SPDBs for cabin and 7 SPDBs for cargo
b)
4 SPDBs for cabin and 8 SPDBs for cargo
c)
8 SPDBs for cabin and 4 SPDBs for cargo
95.
When the A/C receives GND PWR to energize only system for ground service, the mechanic can use (level 3)
a)
GND SVCE CTL Switch installed on the EXT PWR RECEPTACLES and on cabin door 1L
b)
GND SVCE CTL Switch installed on the nose landing gear and on cabin door 1L
c)
GND SVCE CTL Switch installed on the nose landing gear and on Integrated Refuel Panel
96.
To do the servicing of the oil systems of the VFGs (level 3)
a)
it is necessary to open the left fan-cowl door for access
b)
it is necessary to open the right fan-cowl door for access
c)
it is necessary to open the left c duct for access
97.
To keeps the VFG oil in a correct temperature range, oil of VFG must be thermal exchange with (level 3)
a)
FCOC
b)
ACOC
c)
Surface Air/Oil Heat Exchanger (SAOHE)
98.
For each VFG, a magnet that collects metal particles is installed (level 3)
a)
On the separate chip detector
b)
On the drain plug
c)
On the SAOHE
99.
At the end of VFG oil servicing procedure (level 3)
a)
the oil level must be near the top of this green area.
b)
the oil level must be near the top of this red area.
c)
the oil level must be near the bottom of this green area.
100.
Reengagement of a disconnected unit is a ground operation conducted with the VFG installed while (level 3)
a)
the engine is running
b)
the engine is stopped
c)
the engine is run above idle speed
101.
How many times VFG can disconnect before send to shop? (level 3)
a)
One time
b)
No limit
c)
15 times
102.
Power used to stow the RAT is the (level 3)
a)
Green Hydraulic System
b)
Yellow hydraulic System
c)
Both answer are correct
103.
RAT heater operation when (level 3)
a)
RAT extend and in flight
b)
Rat extend and on ground
c)
RAT Stow and Inflight
104.
The control panels used in the A350 cockpit are: (level 1)
a)
Integrated Control Panels (ICPs)
b)
Standard control panels (VUs).
c)
ICP and VUs
105.
The FWS acquire data through the? (level 1)
a)
AFDX only
b)
AFDX, ARINC 429 and CAN Buses
c)
CAN buses only
106.
The HMI between FWS and the Crew is done through ? (level 1)
a)
ECAM Control Panel
b)
MFD
c)
FCU and EFIS Control Panel
107.
To display on the DUs the video signal (cabin video monitoring, TAC...), Which type of transmit signal CDS receive? (level 1)
a)
Optical fibers
b)
Aluminum cable
c)
Wireless signal
108.
How to update the Airport Navigation database? (level 1)
a)
Import database for 6 DUs.
b)
Import database for FMCs.
c)
Import database for AESU.
109.
In case of Inner DU of CAPT or FO inoperative. (level 3)
a)
The Inner DU CAPT or F/O image appears on the lower center DU
b)
The Inner DU CAPT or F/O image appears on the upper center DU
c)
The Inner DU CAPT or F/O image appears on the relevant OIS (DU-OUTER CAPT or DU-OUTER F/O)
110.
To display on the DUs the video signal (cabin video monitoring, TAC..), Which type of transmit signal CDS receive? (level 1)
a)
Optical fibers
b)
Aluminum cable
c)
Wireless signal
111.
Which type of Ecam Control Panel (ECP)? (level 1)
a)
VU type
b)
VM type
c)
Analog type
112.
The Cursor of KCCU on the captain side can be control: (level 2)
a)
F/O outer DU, F/O Inner DU, Upper DU, lower DU
b)
CAPT outer DU, F/O Inner DU, Upper DU, lower DU
c)
CAPT outer DU, CAPT Inner DU, Upper DU, lower DU
113.
The Permanent Data normally shown on: (level 1)
a)
Inner DU
b)
Lower DU
c)
Upper DU.
114.
When the CED(cooling effect Detetor) give the high air temperature in air cooling system. (level 2)
a)
The Dus will not show the weather radar image
b)
The DUs automatic reduce the brightness
c)
The Outer DUs will be automatic switch off.
115.
Each Display Unit of the CDS hosts the following software and files: (level 3)
a)
Applications related to EFIS and ECAM
b)
remote user application definition files and database
c)
Applications related to EFIS and ECAM, remote user application definition files and databases
116.
How to update the Airport Navigation database? (level 1)
a)
Import database for 6 DUs.
b)
Import database for FMCs.
c)
Import database for AESU.
117.
How to show the airport map in the ND zone of Inner DU? (level 2)
a)
Push the ARPT push button on the EFIS control panel
b)
Push the TAXI push butoon on the EFIS control panel
c)
Turn the ND range seletor to the ZOOM position
118.
Which application caculate the flight phase? (level 1)
a)
CMS
b)
FWS
c)
OMS
119.
In case of Inner DU of CAPT or FO inoperative. (level 3)
a)
The Inner DU CAPT or F/O image appears on the lower center DU
b)
The Inner DU CAPT or F/O image appears on the upper center DU
c)
The Inner DU CAPT or F/O image appears on the relevant OIS (DU-OUTER CAPT or DU-OUTER F/O)
120.
Level 1 alert activation not cause visual or aural attention getters but causes (level 2)
a)
An amber caution message on the WD
b)
An ADV memo on the WD
c)
A red warning message on the WD
121.
The interface between the flight or maintenance crew and the FWS is made through (level 1)
a)
the DU
b)
the ECAM control panel
c)
the OMT
122.
Which page shows maintenance messages impacting the dispatch of the aircraft and is linked to MMEL? (level 1)
a)
The Status Page
b)
The Cruise page
c)
The DISPATCH page
123.
The Tail Strike event detection is done by one sensor that has the following number of electrical circuits (level 1)
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
124.
The ICPs (VMs) are installed: (level 2)
a)
The overhead panel, the pedestal, the main instrument panel.
b)
The overhead panel, the glareshield, the main instrument panel.
c)
The overhead panel, the pedestal, the glareshield.
125.
The different ICPs are divided into two classes: (level 2)
a)
Digital ICP and CAN ICP.
b)
Digital ICP or CAN ICP and No CAN ICP.
c)
Digital ICP and Analog ICP.
126.
In case of loss air cooling capacities is sensed by the cooling effect detectors: (level 3)
a)
The CDS control to turn of the DUs
b)
The CDS control to reduce brightness of the DUs
c)
The CDS control to increase brightness of the DUs
127.
The Control and Display System (CDS) has: (level 2)
a)
Four identical Display Units (DUs), Two Keyboard and Cursor Control Units (KCCUs).
b)
Six identical Display Units (DUs), Two Keyboard and Cursor Control Units (KCCUs).
c)
Eight identical Display Units (DUs), Two Keyboard and Cursor Control Units (KCCUs).
128.
The dialog between the DUs is done: (level 2)
a)
through the AFDX network.
b)
through the Controller Area Network (CAN).
c)
through the AFDX network and the Controller Area Network (CAN).
129.
The dialog between the KCCUs and DUs is done: (level 2)
a)
through the AFDX network.
b)
through the Controller Area Network (CAN).
c)
through the AFDX network and the Controller Area Network (CAN).
130.
In relation to the DU location in the cockpit, each function is activated or not through: (level 3)
a)
pin programming.
b)
Software of each DUs
c)
Dedicated positions in the OMT
131.
The ECAM modes are activated in relation to a decreasing priority order: (level 3)
a)
Manual mode, Failure related mode , Advisory mode, Normal mode (flight phase related mode).
b)
Failure related mode , Manual mode, Advisory mode, Normal mode (flight phase related mode).
c)
Failure related mode , Advisory mode, Normal mode (flight phase related mode), Manual mode.
132.
The FWS has two fully redundant flight warning applications hosted: (level 2)
a)
in two same CPIOMs, which do the same computation in parallel.
b)
in one CPIOM which do the same computation in parallel.
c)
in two different CPIOMs, which do the same computation in parallel.
133.
An independent failure is : (level 2)
a)
a failure which only refers to an isolated system or a system component (it does not refer to other system)
b)
a failure of a system or a system component which causes the loss of other systems or equipment
c)
the loss of a system or a system component which is the result of a primary failure.
134.
Primary failures are shown as follows: (level 3)
a)
Amber asterisked message, System indication underlined, Warning text surrounded.
b)
Red or amber message, System indication underlined, Warning text surrounded.
c)
Red or amber message, System indication underlined.
135.
The types of failures: (level 1)
a)
Independent failure, Primary failure , Secondary failure.
b)
Class 1, Class 2, Class 3.
c)
Level 1, Level 2, Level 3.
136.
If a flight phase computation failure occurs, the FWS will select by default the following flight phase: (level 3)
a)
Phase 1
b)
Phase 8 cruise
c)
Phase 6 cruise
137.
In normal configuration, if the DISPLAY CYCLE P/B is used, the following will occur: (level 1)
a)
The CAPT OIS will be switch to MFD
b)
The F/O OIS will be switch to MFD
c)
There is no effect because this P/B is deactivated in normal configuration
138.
An EMER/CANC key action on the ECP: (level 2)
a)
cancels the related display, the audio signal and the MASTER WARN light if there are level 3 alerts.
b)
only cancel the audio signal and the MASTER WARN light if there is a level 3 alert.
c)
only cancel the audio signal and the MASTER CAUT light if there is a level 2 alert.
139.
If a Tail Strike event occurs during take-off or landing, the FWS will trigger a: (level 3)
a)
DISPACH message.
b)
Tail Strike Alert with audio warning
c)
Tail Strike Alert with visual and aural messages
140.
The RCDR GND CTR pushbutton switch lets you set the SSFDR in the record mode manually, if: (level 3)
a)
The A/C is on ground, the A/C electrical network is energized, with a minimum of one engine master switch ON.
b)
The A/C is on ground, the A/C electrical network is energized, engine master switch on.
c)
The A/C is on ground, the A/C electrical network is energized, No engine master switch on.
141.
For the internal communication inside the CDS, each DU is connected to AFDX and the following number of CAN buses (level 1)
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
142.
The FWS acquire data through the (level 1)
a)
AFDX only
b)
AFDX, ARINC 429 and CAN Buses
c)
CAN buses only
143.
The HMI between FWS and the Crew is done through the (level 1)
a)
ECAM Control Panel
b)
MFD
c)
EFIS Control Panel
144.
During Level 2 alert, Master Caution, Caution message, system page and a (level 2)
a)
Repetitive chime
b)
Master Warning
c)
Single Chime
145.
The Audio Warning generated by the FWS and broadcast through the cockpit audio equipment come from the (level 2)
a)
Audio Management Unit-AMU
b)
Loudspeaker
c)
MFD
146.
Information related to installed option such as landscape camera is given to the CMV by (level 2)
a)
Software programming inside CMV
b)
Soft Pin Program
c)
FWS
147.
Which unit receives and controls the recorded data of the SSFDR (level 2)
a)
The FWS application
b)
The DU
c)
The Centralized Data Acquisition Unit (CDAU) with a Flight Data Interface Function (FDIF)
148.
The FWS is a central alerting system that includes: (level 2)
a)
One dedicated application that operates in one different CPIOM
b)
One dedicated application that operates in two different CPIOM
c)
Two applications that operates in two different CPIOM
149.
The SSFDR automatically does the records that follow: (level 2)
a)
On ground, for the first five minutes after that the A/C electrical network is energized or On ground, with a minimum of one engine master switch ON or On ground, for five minutes after the last engine shutdown.
b)
Permanently in-flight.
c)
Both answers are correct
150.
When does ADV indication comes into view? (level 3)
a)
When a monitored parameter deviates from its specifed operational range.
b)
When a failure occurred and warning messages appeared on WD.
c)
When in failure related mode and the SD automatically shows the display page of the related system.
151.
What will happen if ECP fail ? (level 3)
a)
Some keys (CLR, RCL, STS, EMER CANC, VALID keys ) which directly connected to FWS or CDS are still doing the primary function of the ECP.
b)
Some keys (CLR, RCL, STS, EMER CANC, VALID keys, SCROLL UP/DOWN device and ALL key) which directly connected to FWS or CDS are still doing the primary function of the ECP.
c)
ECP is still working normally due to backup connection with AFDX network by CRDC.
152.
In case of Inner DU of CAPT or FO inoperative. (level 3)
a)
The Inner DU CAPT or F/O image appears on the lower center DU
b)
The Inner DU CAPT or F/O image appears on the upper center DU
c)
The Inner DU CAPT or F/O image appears on the relevant OIS (DU-OUTER CAPT or DU-OUTER F/O)
153.
A FWS Level 3 alert is: (level 3)
a)
an abnormal situation of the A/C for which crew awareness and subsequent corrective or compensatory crew actions are necessary
b)
a configuration for which the crew monitoring and also crew action can be necessary
c)
An A/C emergency situation that requires immediate crew action
154.
The Guarded P/B “EMER CANC” on the ECP is used to: (level 3)
a)
Clear the ECAM warning messages
b)
Stop audio signal associated to a triggered warning
c)
Stop the Master caution light
155.
The priority between audio warnings from FWS and audio messages from AESS is managed as follows: (level 2)
a)
The AESS gives authorization or inhibition orders to the FWS
b)
The FWS gives authorization or inhibition orders to the AESS
c)
The FWS and AESS don’t have any priority
156.
The FIN numbers of ICP are? (level 1)
a)
xxxVM.
b)
xxxVU.
c)
xxxVE.
157.
The general function of the IMA (Integrated Modular Avionic) is (Level 01)
a)
to organize shared resources.
b)
to supply a centralized computing and data communication capability.
c)
to organize shared resources and supply a centralized computing & data communication capability.
158.
Relating to upload software for CPIOM (Level 01)
a)
Specific sequence upload must be strictly follow MP task
b)
No specific sequence upload
c)
No need to upload the software for new CPIOM.
159.
The physical architecture of the AFDX network contains network subscribers that are interconnected through AFDX links. (Level 03)
a)
These links include Quad cables and Quadrax contacts.
b)
These links include Copper cables and Copper contacts.
c)
These links include Fiber Optic cables and Fiber optic contacts.
160.
Which type of component ensure that defines all data flow paths between transmitters and receivers over the network (Virtual Link (VL) concept). (Level 02)
a)
CPIOM
b)
CRDC
c)
AFDX Switches.
161.
For redundancy function, the AFDX network is divided into (Level 03)
a)
Two identical networks.
b)
Three identical networks.
c)
Four identical networks.
162.
The IMA contains these modules: (Level 02)
a)
CPIOMs, CRDCs, AFDX Switchs.
b)
CPIOMs, CRDCs.
c)
CPIOMs, AFDX Switch.
163.
The CRDCs collect, convert and exchange data between (Level 02)
a)
the AFDX network and the equipment without AFDX capability.
b)
the CPIOM and the equipment without AFDX capability.
c)
the AFDX network and the CPIOM without AFDX capability.
164.
Which CPIOMs can be interchangeable with no core software loading necessary ? (Level 01)
a)
The same type CPIOMs.
b)
The same group CPIOMs.
c)
The same type and the same group CPIOMs.
165.
The CPIOMs of the same type but of different group can be swapped (Level 03)
a)
if their core software is uploaded and if the A/C system applications are uploaded.
b)
with no other requirement than A/C systems applications uploading.
c)
Impossible.
166.
The modules contained in IMA (Integrated Modular Avionic) are (Level 02)
a)
Core Processing Input /Output Modules (CPIOMs) &Common Remote Data Concentrators (CRDCs)
b)
Core Processing Input / Output Modules (CPIOMs).
c)
Common Remote Data Concentrators (CRDCs).
167.
What statement is correct for CPIOMs (Core Processing Input / Output Modules)? (Level 02)
a)
The CPIOM collect, convert and exchange data between the AFDX network and the equipment without AFDX capability.
b)
The CPIOM host no avionics application.
c)
The CPIOM is a computer that can do multiple applications at the same time.
168.
Can you swap the CPIOM-H and CPIOM-J? (Level 02)
a)
No, because they do not have the same hardware.
b)
No, because they do have the same hardware but do not have the same software.
c)
Yes, if their core software is uploaded and if the A/C system applications are uploaded.
169.
The CPIOMs of the same type but of different group can be swapped (Level 03)
a)
with no other requirement the A/C systems applications uploading.
b)
if their core software is uploaded and if the A/C system applications are uploaded.
c)
You cannot swap two CPIOMs of the same type but different group.
170.
How many types are the CPIOM hardware there? (Level 02)
a)
Two types: Type H and type J.
b)
Seven types: H3, H4, H6, J1, J2, J5, J7.
c)
Only one type CPIOM.
171.
How many types are the CRDCs there? (Level 02)
a)
Two types: Type H and type J.
b)
Only one type.
c)
Two types: Type A and type B.
172.
All LRU without AFDX capability exchange data with an AFDX network through (Level 02)
a)
CPIOMs
b)
CPIOMs and CRDCs
c)
AFDX switch.
173.
Two A/C system applications hosted in the same CPIOM, which want to communicate with each other (Level 01)
a)
must do it through the AFDX network.
b)
by internal data bus.
c)
must do it through the CAN bus.
174.
The CRDCs are divided into two types: (Level 03)
a)
CRDC-H and CRDC-J.
b)
CRDC-A and CRDC-B.
c)
CRDC-A and CRDC-H.
175.
The CRDCs are installed: (Level 02)
a)
in the avionics compartment.
b)
in pressurized areas along the A/C.
c)
in the rear avionics rack.
176.
The AFDX network is divided into: (Level 03)
a)
Two identical networks: Network A and Network B.
b)
Only one network.
c)
Network A and Network B, they are not identical.
177.
The AFDX switches are installed (Level 02)
a)
in the avionics compartment.
b)
in pressurized areas along the A/C.
c)
. in the rear avionics rack.
178.
All the AFDX switches must be uploaded with (Level 01)
a)
the same software Part Number (P/N) for the operational software and configuration table.
b)
the same software Part Number (P/N) for the operational software.
c)
the same software Part Number (P/N) for configuration table.
179.
Which CRDCs can be interchangeable with no core software loading necessary ? (Level 01)
a)
The same type CRDCs.
b)
The same group CRDCs.
c)
The same type and the same group CRDCs.
180.
To upload software to the CPIOMs through the Data Loading and Configuration System (DLCS), you must follow the sequence:. (Level 01)
a)
Core software, configuration table software, RB configuration-table software, avionics application(s), database(s) if applicable.
b)
Configuration table software, core software, and RB configuration-table software, avionics application(s), database(s) if applicable.
c)
No specific sequence.
181.
If you remove/install all the AFDX switches and then upload the software related to these switches, you must do the upload in three steps, in the sequence that follows: (Level 01)
a)
AFDX switches 09 and 19, AFDX switches 01, 02, 03, 04, 11, 12, 13 and 14 3,then AFDX switches 05, 06, 15 and 16.
b)
AFDX switches network A then AFDX switches network B.
c)
No specific sequence.
182.
When you upload the software to each AFDX switch, you must: (Level 01)
a)
first upload the operational program software, then when the uploading is completed, upload the configuration table software.
b)
first upload the configuration table software, then when the uploading is completed, upload the operational program software.
c)
No specific sequence.
183.
When uploading the software to AFDX switch If the “NO RESPONSE FROM TARGET” error message is shown at the end of the uploading of the operational program software : (Level 01)
a)
You must reset related AFDX switch.
b)
you can ignore it and continue the procedure.
c)
You must restart DLCS in BackUp menu.
184.
When you upload software to all the CRDCs, you must do:
a)
the uploading CRDC type A first then CRDC type B.
b)
the uploading of each CRDC one at a time.
c)
the uploading CRDC type B first then CRDC type A
185.
All the LRU without AFDX capability exchange data with an AFDX subscriber through: (Level 01)
a)
CRDC
b)
CPIOM
c)
CRDC or CPIOM.
186.
The CPIOMs software that are field_loadable are one core software, one resource BITE configuration table and: (Level 01)
a)
One configuration table.
b)
System software.
c)
One configuration table and System software.
187.
Where are the CPIOMs installed in? (Level 02)
a)
Main avionics compartment.
b)
Aft avionics Rack.
c)
Main avionics compartment and the aft avionics Rack.
188.
How to two A/C system applications hosted in the same CPIOM communicate with each other ? (Level 02)
a)
must do it through the AFDX network.
b)
do it through the internal Bus inside CPIOM.
c)
They can not communicate with each other.
189.
The CRDC have the following features -Data acquisition, input-output conversion and? (Level 03)
a)
Simple and combinatory computation
b)
Central Processing Unit (CPU)
c)
Avionics applications.
190.
The CPIOM are installed in the (Level 03)
a)
Installed in pressurized areas along the A/C
b)
Main avionic compartment
c)
In the cocpits.
191.
what are true about CPIOM? (Level 03)
a)
The CPIOM-H and CPIOM-J are interchangeable because they have the same hardware.
b)
The CPIOMs of the same type can be swapped with no other requirement than A/C systems applications uploading.
c)
The CPIOMs of the same type but of different group can be swapped if their core software is uploaded and if the A/C system applications are uploaded
192.
What is Virtual Link ? (Level 03)
a)
A cable which permited data transfer through it as a one-way “pipe” in the network.
b)
It isolates the data transfers between a transmitter and receivers (segregated channels within the network).
c)
A Quad cable with two pairs of wires (one pair for transmission and one for reception).
193.
The physical architecture of the AFDX network contains network subscribers that are interconnected through AFDX links. (Level 03)
a)
These links include Quad cables and Quadrax contacts
b)
These links include Copper cables and Copper contacts
c)
These links include Fiber Optic cables and Fiber optic contacts
194.
In case of CRDC A09 failed, which CRDC can be swap? (Level 03)
a)
CRDC B01
b)
CRDC A12
c)
Both answer are correct
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