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Worksheets

Real Estate School

Total questions: 199

Worksheet time: 26hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes a parcel of land?

a)

The surface of the earth includes all things permanently attached and the control of all minerals and substances beneath

b)

The surface of the earth extending down to the center and upward to infinity

c)

The earth's surface clearly marked by certain boundaries

d)

The surface of the earth extending down a reasonable distance and up into the air a reasonable distance

2.

In determining whether an item is a fixture, which of the following would not be considered?

a)

Method of attachment

b)

Adaptation to the real estate

c)

Value of the item

d)

Legal interest of the annexing party

3.

The characteristic that distinguishes personal property from real property is:

a)

mobility

b)

scarcity

c)

durability

d)

flexibility

4.

When used in a deed or other real estate document, a legal description describes only the land because:

a)

a bill of sale is used to convey title to the building and other improvements

b)

artificial attachments, such as buildings, cannot be adequately surveyed

c)

buildings and other improvements are considered to be part of the real estate

d)

a street address is used to identify the buildings and improvements

5.

An item that was personal property but has been attached to and become part of the real property is known as:

a)

a trade fixture

b)

an emblement

c)

frutus industriales

d)

a fixture

6.

Crops planted and harvested each year are:

a)

personal property

b)

emblements

c)

frutus industiales

d)

all of the above

7.

The most distinctive physical characteristic of land is:

a)

homogeneity

b)

immobility

c)

situs

d)

improvements

8.

All of the following are real property except:

a)

oil below the earth's surface

b)

a concrete driveway

c)

cut timber

d)

air rights

9.

The law of capture refers to the:

a)

process of removing oil and gas from the land

b)

government's rights of eminent domain

c)

landowner's right to keep trade fixtures if not removed

d)

responsibility of lateral support while removing solid minerals

10.

The sum of all factors that affect value is called:

a)

location

b)

accession

c)

situs

d)

scarcity

11.

Ownership of personal property is transferred by:

a)

deed

b)

chattel deed

c)

bill of sale

d)

sales agreement

12.

A landowners rights to use water from a bordering stream or river is called:

a)

Littoral rights

b)

Rights of prior appropriation

c)

Riparian rights

d)

Correlative right

13.

If Smith builds a fence on Jones' land by mistake, in good faith, and thinking the fence is on Smith's land, then:

a)

Jones automatically acquires ownership of the fence by accession

b)

Jones may sell and keep the proceeds

c)

Jones may require Smith to remove the fence and/or pay for damages

d)

both A and B

14.

The fact that an acre of land in a rural area cannot fulfill as many needs as an acre of urban land describes the economic characteristic of:

a)

scarcity

b)

situs

c)

improvements

d)

location

15.

All of the following are true about a trade fixture except:

a)

it is personal property

b)

it is chattel real

c)

it may be removed only after the lease expires

d)

it belongs to the property owner if not removed in a timely manner

16.

Dawson sold his 500 acre farm to Harris, but reserved the right to drill for oil. Later when Dawson arrives with oil drilling equipment, he is denied the right of access to the land. Which party has correctly interpreted the agreement?

a)

Dawson, because he has an implied right of entry

b)

Harris, because the agreement was silent as to the right of entry

c)

Dawson, but he must pay Harris a reasonable fee for the right of access and reimburse him for any damages caused by the drilling operation

d)

Harris, but he may be liable if his denial was unreasonable

17.

A township contains how many square miles?

a)

6

b)

16

c)

640

d)

36

18.

Which of the following statement about air rights is true?

a)

Air rights can be leased but not sold unless the entire parcel is being sold

b)

The owner can sell the air rights and still retain the surface and subsurface rights

c)

Government controls such as zoning have no effect on air rights

d)

Structures are rarely erected on air lots

19.

A custom-made storm window would most likely be considered a fixture because of:

a)

its adaptation to the building to which it is attached

b)

the method of attachment

c)

the annexing party's intent to make it permanent

d)

the annexing party's interest in the real property

20.

The method of land description which identifies a parcel by specifying its boundary lines along with the terminal points and the bearing of each side is known as:

a)

lot, block, and tract

b)

recorded plat

c)

government survey

d)

metes and bounds

21.

Which of the following is not an acceptable method of legally describing a parcel of real estate?

a)

Street addresses, county, and state

b)

Metes and bounds

c)

Rectangular survey

d)

Recorded plats

22.

A base point from which height or depth can be measured to describe air rights or subsurface rights is a:

a)

topographic

b)

bench mark

c)

point of beginning

d)

datum

23.

Approximately how many acres are there in a farm that measures 470 feet along the road and 556 feet in depth?

a)

261

b)

6

c)

50

d)

320

24.

If Mr. Shern's lot has 65 front feet and contains 7,150 square feet, how deep is it?

a)

110 ft

b)

100 ft

c)

65 ft

d)

464,750 ft

25.

Real estate investors are not generally interested in how long buildings will last, but in how long they will be profitable. This characteristic is called:

a)

life expectancy

b)

profit margin

c)

net return

d)

economic life

26.

The government's right to make laws and regulations for the general welfare is known as:

a)

eminent domain

b)

police power

c)

escheat

d)

the bundle of rights

27.

The city of Atlanta has condemned Nelson's land in order to extend its rapid transit services. This procedure is made possible because of the city's right of:

a)

entry

b)

escheat

c)

eminent domain

d)

police power

28.

A private landowner has the right to:

a)

reject a claim for taxes

b)

repudiate a zoning ordinance

c)

disinherit heirs

d)

refuse to sell the property or otherwise prevent the city from taking it for use as a street

29.

In order to be effective, a lien should be

a)

recorded

b)

published

c)

renewed

d)

delivered

30.

The toal collection of rights that may be claimed by private ownership is best described as:

a)

the fee simple system

b)

an estate

c)

freehold

d)

the bundle of rights

31.

In real estate law, the word fee is closest in meaning to:

a)

possession

b)

an estate of inheritance

c)

a tax or assessment on land

d)

a real estate commission

32.

Which of the following is correct about an estate?

a)

It can exist simultaneously with another estate in the same property

b)

Upon the death of the owner, it either goes to the owner's heirs or to the state by escheat

c)

The owner is always assured of possession

d)

Its duration is either forever or for a lifetime

33.

Bob gives an estate to Jim for the life of Sue. Which of the following is true?

a)

Jim has an estate pur autre vie

b)

Bob has possessory estate

c)

Sue is the person in remainder

d)

Sue has a reversionary interest

34.

A right or claim of a creditor to have debt satisfied from the proceeds of the sale of the debtor's property in the event of default is:

a)

an attachment

b)

a judgement

c)

a writ of execution

d)

a lien

35.

Except for property tax liens and in some cases mechanic's liens, priority of liens is determined by the:

a)

amount of the debt

b)

date of default

c)

date of recording

d)

court at the time of foreclosure

36.

Jones, a life tenant, grants Smith an easement across Jones's land. Later Jones dies. The easement will:

a)

go to Jones's heirs

b)

terminate

c)

remain Smith's

d)

not be enforceable because a life tenant cannot grant an easement without committing waste

37.

The Joneses have purchased an acre of land in Elite Acres subdivision and are aware of the fact that covenants might limit the ways in which they use their property. Which is true of private restrictions?

a)

The covenants cannot restrict the type of architecture they choose for their home

b)

There could be a restriction on selling the home within the first three years after it is constructed

c)

If a covenant specifies one acre of land per dwelling but local zoning permits two houses per acre, they can build two

d)

Covenants can be based on aesthetic considerations

38.

Unauthorized intrusion of a building, improvement, or other attachment onto a neighboring land is:

a)

an easement

b)

an encroachment

c)

a lien

d)

an estate

39.

Smith signs an agreement with Jones to use and possess Jones's land until May 1st. Their agreement creates:

a)

a less-than-freehold estate for Jones

b)

a periodic tenancy

c)

an estate for years

d)

a reversionary estate for Smith

40.

All of the following can be characteristics of an easement except:

a)

an easement creates an interest that may be protected from third party interference

b)

an easement can be created by conveyance

c)

an easement is an incorporeal right in the land of another

d)

an easement may be revoked at will by the servient landowner

41.

Telephone lines are examples of

a)

an easement in gross

b)

a legally valid encroachment

c)

an easement appurtenant

d)

a non-revocable license

42.

The law allows a person furnishing labor or materials for he improvement of real property to file a mechanic's lien against the property so improved if he/she is not paid. Which of the following is correct concerning such liens?

a)

A mechanic's lien takes priority over all other liens

b)

A mechanic's lien is a general lien

c)

A mechanic's lien filed by a subcontractor is ineffective against a property owner who has proof of having paid the general contractor

d)

A mechanic's lien will expire if the claimant does not take the necessary steps to enforce it

43.

All of the following can be acceptable methods of terminating an easement except:

a)

abandonment of the easement by the owner of the dominant estate

b)

the owner of the servient estate openly and continuously prevents the easement owner from exercising his/her right of use for a statutory period of time

c)

express release to the owner of the servient estate by the owner of the dominant estate

d)

revocation of the easement by the owner of the servient estate

44.

Farmer Brown is tired of hard work. He is deeding 165 acres of his farm to his son and keeping only 5 acres and a house for his own use. He will need an easement across his son's land so that he can get to his own. How is the easement created

a)

Through a reservation in the deed

b)

By having the son sign a lease

c)

By recording a new plat map and survey

d)

Through an exception in the deed

45.

Which of the following is INCORRECT concerning a conventional life estate?

a)

The owner is called the life tenant

b)

The owner does not have to die for the estate to end

c)

Life estate always pass to the remainderman

d)

A life estate may be sold, leased, or mortgaged

46.

A "freehold estate" is defined as one that:

a)

has a condition attached to it

b)

includes an estate for years

c)

is similar to a leasehold

d)

will last indefinitely

47.

A "homestead" might be defined as a family home. Some states have Homestead Laws which afford some protection for the home from seizure to pay debts of a deceased owner/breadwinner. These laws are designed to protect:

a)

the mortgage lender

b)

the community

c)

the breadwinner

d)

the bereaved family

48.

Revocable permission granted to hunt on another's land is an example of:

a)

an incorporeal easement

b)

a license

c)

an easement by prescription

d)

an easement appurtenant

49.

What do dower and curtesy rights have in common?

a)

Legal life estate

b)

Possessory estate

c)

Leasehold estate

d)

Remainder estate

50.

Which of the following phrases would be most typical of a fee simple determinable estate?

a)

"provided that"

b)

"on the expressed condition"

c)

"with the intention of"

d)

"for so long as"

51.

The right of survivorship is associated with:

a)

tenancy in common and condominium ownership

b)

tenancy by the entireties and joint tenancy

c)

tenancy in common and joint tenancy

d)

tenancy by the entireties and community property

52.

A joint tenancy would be changed to a tenancy in common by:

a)

one joint tenant giving his/her interest to the other

b)

the death of one of three joint tenants

c)

one of two joint tenants selling his/her interest to a third person

d)

the death of one of two joint tenants

53.

Which of the following may own property in severalty?

a)

Husband and wife together

b)

Corporation

c)

A partnership

d)

A father and son together

54.

Title held by a husband and wife may include all of the following forms of ownership except:

a)

severalty

b)

tenancy by the entireties

c)

joint tenancy

d)

tenancy in common

55.

The ownership unities of time, title, interest, and possession are required in order to create:

a)

an undivided interest in the property as a whole

b)

separate ownership

c)

concurrent ownership

d)

the right of survivorship

56.

A broker is asked by a husband and wife how they should take title to the home they are buying. The broker should:

a)

recommend they consult an attorney

b)

recommend they ask the lender

c)

explain the difference between joint tenancy and tenancy in common so they can decide for themselves

d)

ask them what they want in terms of liability and survivorship and then suggest the best method according to the laws of their particular state

57.

Smith, Jones, and Black are joint tenants. Smith sells his interest to White. With regard to this conveyance:

a)

Jones, Black, and White are now joint tenants

b)

Jones, Black, and White are now tenants in common

c)

White owns a one-third interest as a tenant in common with Jones and Black who still own one-third each as joint tenants

d)

Smith cannot legally convey an interest without a partition suit terminating the co-ownership obligations

58.

Harper, Murphy, and Jackson own an investment property as tenants in common. Because of a recent business disagreement, Jackson wants to divest himself of the property. If the three owners cannot mutually agree on a plan to settle the matter, Jackson may seek an equitable distribution of the property by filing a:

a)

lis pendens

b)

partnership agreement

c)

partition suit

d)

declaration of severalty

59.

The land on which a high-rise condominium stands is owned by:

a)

a nonprofit corporation

b)

the individual unit owners as tenants in common

c)

a syndicate

d)

a limited partnership

60.

A deed in favor of James and Rosen with stated proportionate interests of one-third and two-third respectively, without the right of survivorship, creates:

a)

a joint tenancy

b)

tenancy in common

c)

severalty ownership of the property

d)

a general partnership

61.

Laura occupies an apartment in a multiple unit building. Each month she pays the association an assessment of her share of the mortgage payment, property taxes, and a fee for building maintenance. The form of ownership that Laura shares with the other individual unit owners is called:

a)

a condominium

b)

time sharing

c)

limited partnership

d)

a cooperative

62.

Which of the following is not compatible with joint tenancy?

a)

Probate

b)

Survivorship

c)

Equality of rights

d)

Rights of possession

63.

Certain unities are necessary for the creation of a joint tenancy. They are:

a)

possession and interest

b)

place and time

c)

time and survivorship

d)

survivorship and possession

64.

A form of condominium ownership especially desirable for properties in resort areas where each unit is sold to multiple buyers is called:

a)

proprietary leasing

b)

condominium cooperatives

c)

time sharing

d)

condominium syndicates

65.

Which of the following tenancies refers to ownership?

a)

In common

b)

At will

c)

At sufferance

d)

For years

66.

What is the one unity in a tenancy in common ownership?

a)

Interest

b)

Possession

c)

Time

d)

Title

67.

Prior to John's marriage to Mary he owned forty acres of land. While they were married, John paid $85,000 for a new home and Mary inherited an apartment building valued at $220,000. If they live in a state that recognizes community property ownership, which of the following represents their community property?

a)

Forty acres of land

b)

Home

c)

Apartment building

d)

None of the above

68.

A married woman and an unmarried man may not own real estate as:

a)

tenants in common

b)

joint tenants

c)

tenants by the entireties

d)

general partners

69.

Phil, Tom, and Bill form a partnership to buy investment property. Their first purchase is a duplex. Phil and Tom invest $15,000 each. Bill agrees to accept all management responsibilities and liability for the partnership. What kind of partnership did they form?

a)

General

b)

Limited

c)

Special

d)

Trust

70.

The owner of a cooperative apartment unit:

a)

owns stock in a nonprofit corporation

b)

holds fee simple title that may be sold, mortgaged, or leased

c)

owns the unit in fee simple with an undivided interest in the common elements

d)

holds title in partnership with the other unit owners

71.

A creditor may seek satisfaction of a debt from the personal assets of each co-owner of a:

a)

general partnership

b)

limited partnership

c)

cooperative

d)

all of the above

72.

Kristin has purchased a condominium apartment in Happy Gardens. Which of the following statements about Kristin's ownership rights is true?

a)

She is entitled to the exclusive use of the lawn in front of her unit

b)

She has no liability if another owner in her building is foreclosed

c)

Her monthly mortgage payment includes principal, interest, taxes and hazard insurance

d)

She can deduct the cost of swimming pool upkeep from her monthly maintenance fee if she does not swim

73.

A cooperative owner is assured of the exclusive use of an individual unit for the life of the corporation through the use of a:

a)

trust agreement

b)

cooperative declaration

c)

proprietary lease

d)

partnership agreement

74.

A form of ownership that involves one party holding title for the benefit of another who retains full control over the property is a:

a)

real estate investment trust

b)

land trust

c)

syndicate

d)

limited partnership

75.

The Directors of a condominium owners' association are elected by:

a)

the officers

b)

the owners

c)

the occupants

d)

the management company

76.

A deed made and delivered but not recorded is:

a)

invalid between the grantor and grantee

b)

valid between the grantor and grantee and has priority

c)

valid between the grantor and grantee but not valid against recorded claims of a subsequent purchaser who records the deed without having actual notice of any unrecorded interests

d)

invalid between the grantor and grantee but valid as to third parties with constructive notice

77.

A deed is acknowledged by:

a)

the grantor

b)

a notary public

c)

the grantee

d)

any authorized public officer

78.

A forged deed is:

a)

voidable

b)

unenforceable

c)

void

d)

valid if recorded

79.

Smith buys land from Jones. Two months after delivery of the deed they decide to rescind the sale. Which of the following is required to place them in the same legal position they held before the sale?

a)

Endorsement of the deed by Smith to Jones

b)

Delivery of a new deed from Smith as grantor to Jones as grantee

c)

Recorded acknowledgment of rescission

d)

Death of either party

80.

Ms. Jones dies leaving no will. She leaves real property valued at $75,000 and has no heirs. Her estate would:

a)

be held in trust pending appearance of heirs

b)

be distributed according to laws of succession

c)

revert to the state government

d)

revert to the United States government

81.

The donation of real estate for public use is known as:

a)

reverse condemnation

b)

eminent domain

c)

dedication

d)

escheat

82.

Involuntary alienation means:

a)

ownership of an estate is transferred by operation of law, by natural causes, or by court action

b)

ownership of an estate cannot be transferred without consent of owner

c)

ownership of an estate is transferred by a deed

d)

ownership of an estate belongs to someone from another country

83.

Pursuant to a valid contract, Smith agrees to convey Barrenacre to Jones. Smith prepares and signs a warranty deed and delivers it to his attorney in anticipation of closing. Smith dies before the closing takes place. Which of the following is correct?

a)

There has been constructive delivery of a valid deed

b)

The deed is not valid after Smith's death

c)

The attorney is acting as escrow agent in receiving the deed; therefore delivery to Jones is implied

d)

Smith drew up a deed. Jones, by contract, signified acceptance; therefore, the deed will convey Barrenancre

84.

Voluntary alienation can be accomplished by:

a)

contract for sale and warranty deed

b)

transfer of title by descent

c)

court action

d)

execution sale and sheriff's deed

85.

All of the following forms of deeds contain some covenants or warranties either expressed or implied except:

a)

general warranty deed

b)

quit claim deed

c)

special warranty deed

d)

grant deed

86.

Ms. Smith, who is in good health, makes a will leaving her real property to Mr. Jones. Under such circumstances, all of the following are true statements except:

a)

Jones has no interest in Smith's property despite being a devisee

b)

Smith's will must be probated after her death in order to pass title to Jones

c)

Smith can convey to a third party all the interest she has in the property despite the will

d)

Smith is Jones heir

87.

Ms. Smith properly executed a power-of-attorney authorizing Mr. Jones to sign a deed for her, pursuant to the closing of a sales contract. Unknown to Mr. Jones or to the purchaser at the time, Ms. Smith died the night before Mr. Jones signed the deed. Under these circumstances:

a)

the conveyance is probably valid

b)

the conveyance is not valid

c)

a power-of-attorney lasts until revoked by will of the grantor

d)

power-of-attorney is effective for 60 days after the lifetime of the person granting such authority

88.

Involuntary methods of conveying property include all of the following except:

a)

escheat

b)

condemnation

c)

quit claim

d)

adverse possession

89.

Under which of the following circumstances would title be transferred by descent?

a)

Testator has living heirs

b)

Voluntary alienation

c)

Intestate succession

d)

According to last will and testament

90.

Alienation expresses a meaning most completely opposite to:

a)

foreclosure of mortgage

b)

transfer of property

c)

acquisition of property

d)

action by the grantor

91.

With the permission of Jones, Smith occupied Jones' property for more than ten years. Smith made improvements, used the land exclusively and paid taxes on it. Now, Jones wants Smith to move.

a)

Jones must pay Smith for the improvements and taxes

b)

Smith probably has title to the property

c)

Smith will have to go

d)

While Jones still retains legal title. Jones must allow Smith a continuing possessory interest

92.

A properly executed and delivered quit claim deed will always convey:

a)

title to the property

b)

all the grantor's rights and title to the property

c)

any after acquired interest in the property

d)

any warranty that has already been transferred

93.

The creation of an easement by prescription is similar to:

a)

adverse possession

b)

unlawful detainer action

c)

accretion

d)

police power

94.

All of the following are legal requirements for making a valid will in most states except:

a)

legal age

b)

sound mind and testator's signature

c)

at least $1000 worth of property to dispose

d)

presence of witnesses and their signatures

95.

A valid deed must contain:

a)

signature of the grantor

b)

signature of the grantee

c)

habendum clause

d)

an acknowledgment

96.

Mother Nature can cause a piece of land to grow in size. This growth is called:

a)

erosion

b)

adverse possession

c)

alienation

d)

accretion

97.

Brenda and Janet own a piece of property as joint tenants. When they cannot agree on selling the property, what lawsuit must Brenda file to receive her share?

a)

Foreclosure

b)

Quiet title

c)

Partition

d)

Condemnation

98.

A person homesteading in the Indian territories received ownership of the land by means of what document?

a)

Treaty

b)

Land grant

c)

Quit claim deed

d)

Patent

99.

To correct a mistake in a deed you would use what document?

a)

Reformation deed

b)

Gift deed

c)

Fix-it deed

d)

Sheriff's deed

100.

Deeds executed by court appointed representatives include all the following except:

a)

Guardian's deed

b)

Testator's Deed

c)

Executor's deed

d)

Administrator's deed

101.

The Federal Lead-Based Paint Act requires the owners of property with improvements built prior to 1978 to do all of the following except:

a)

disclose any known lead-based paint

b)

give buyers copies of any reports dealing with the presence of lead-based paint

c)

give buyers a federally approved lead-based paint pamphlet

d)

remove all lead-based paint from the property

102.

Which of the following statements regarding building permits is true?

a)

If a lot owner is building his house, he does not need a building permit

b)

The demolition of a building does not require a permit

c)

A building permit must be acquired before new construction is completed

d)

Before a new building can be occupied, one must have a certificate of occupancy

103.

A white family is looking at homes and happens to notice some black children playing in a nearby park. They ask you what percentage of the people in the neighborhood are black. Your best response might be:

a)

that is something we never discuss

b)

there are not enough to matter

c)

I think it is around ten percent

d)

the local public school system could probably give you that information

104.

The law requiring business locations to reserve a certain number of convenient parking spaces for the handicapped is:

a)

the Federal Fair Housing law

b)

local zoning ordinances

c)

state health regulations

d)

the Americans with Disabilities Act

105.

Which of the following would provide the most desirable buffer zone between a single family residential community and an industrial land use zone?

a)

a rapid transit rail

b)

a six-lane thoroughfare

c)

a well-landscaped public park

d)

a government jurisdiction boundary line

106.

The Fair Housing Law of 1968 does which of the following?

a)

Builds equal housing for all people

b)

Guarantees separate but equal housing for everyone in the United States

c)

Provides fair housing opportunity for everyone in the United States

d)

Guarantees elimination of prejudices in the United States

107.

In developing a master plan for a community, all of the following might be "land use districts" except:

a)

industrial

b)

multi-family

c)

educational

d)

conservation

108.

In making a listing presentation, the salesperson is advised by the owner that the property is not to be shown to minorities. The licensee should:

a)

persuade the seller that no minorities are likely to call

b)

advise the seller that marketing in this fashion would be a violation of law

c)

take the listing and do as the seller requests

d)

take the listing and discourage minorities from viewing the property if asked

109.

Recent changes in Fair Housing Laws add protection for people who are discriminated against because of:

a)

age or marital status

b)

handicap or familial status

c)

religion or children

d)

country of origin or handicap

110.

Ad valorem taxes are:

a)

levied equally against all property owners

b)

based on the value of property

c)

determined by the benifit of services received

d)

paid only upon property transfer

111.

Floor area ratios are used:

a)

to determine building density

b)

by tax assessors to estimate value

c)

to estimate the amount of fire insurance needed

d)

appraised value

112.

A licensee is acting as a rental agent for a broker who has a contract with the owner to manage an apartment complex. Which of the following would represent an illegal basis for refusing to rent an apartment?

a)

the prospect has a poor credit rating

b)

the prospect has a two-year old child

c)

the prospect has pets

d)

the prospect has negative references from previous landlords

113.

The Interstate Land Sales Full Disclosure Act requires:

a)

a 7 day cooling off period after receipt of the report

b)

a 10 day cooling off period after receipt of the report

c)

a 14 day cooling off period after receipt of the report

d)

a 30 day cooling off period after receipt of the report

114.

A special assessment is:

a)

a reevaluation of a property's value made upon request from an arbitration board

b)

a tax based upon benefit received

c)

a tax levied equally against each property owner in the city or county

d)

a tax levied only if ad valorem tax is insufficient to fund the proposed budget

115.

Zoning designed to control population growth in a particular are is called:

a)

directive zoning

b)

incentive zoning

c)

aesthetic zoning

d)

bulk zoning

116.

A salesperson might be in violation of Fair Housing Laws in all of the following circumstances except:

a)

when asked to show property to a minority family, the salesperson refers them to another salesperson of their race

b)

when asked to list a house belonging to a minority owner, the sales person reuses on the grounds that it is outside of the area with which he/she is familiar

c)

the salesperson tells a minority prospect that a certain property will require a twenty percent down payment when in fact it can be had for ten percent down

d)

the sales person fails to use his/her best efforts to close the sale of a minority purchaser

117.

Which of the following permits land use because zoning is not retroactive?

a)

variance

b)

spot zoning

c)

nonconforming use

d)

bulk zoning

118.

When a licensee is making a listing presentation and the seller is questioning the rate of commission he wants to charge, federal Anti-Trust law indicates that the best reply would be:

a)

"It's the going rate in this city"

b)

"This is my company's policy"

c)

"Our Board of REALTORS recommends this rate"

d)

"Other brokers won't cooperate with anyone who charges less"

119.

If deed restrictions prohibit a use permitted by zoning, then:

a)

zoning controls

b)

the deed restrictions control

c)

neither will prevail until adjusted

d)

the nature of the use is alwas the controlling factor

120.

The tax rate of 34.7 mills is equivalent to:

a)

$34.7000 per $100 of assessed value

b)

$00.3470 per $100 of assessed value

c)

$03.4700 per $100 of assessed value

d)

$00.0347 per $100 of assessed value

121.

A home having a market value of $230,000 is assessed at 30% of such value. Of the total general real estate taxes on the property, the school tax represents $4.70 per $100 of assessed value. What is the dollar amount allotted school taxes?

a)

$320.43

b)

$6900.00

c)

$609.00

d)

$3243.00

122.

A married couple filing a joint tax return may be exempt from paying capital gains on the sale of their home under what conditions?

a)

They have lived in and owned the homes as their primary residence for any 2 of the last 5 years and the amount of the gain does not exceed $250,000

b)

They are over the age 55 and have not previously used a "once in a lifetime" exemption

c)

They have purchased another home of equal or greater value within 2 years from date of sale

d)

They have lived in and owned the homes as their primary residence for any 2 of the last 5 years and the amount of the gain does not exceed $500,000

123.

The Whitacres sold their house for $184,000 and paid a commission of $11,000. They had owned and occupied the home since it was built 3 years ago. It has=d originally cost $155,000. Which statement is true?

a)

The basis for the old house was $144,000

b)

The Whitacres must add $18,000 to their income for calculating purposes

c)

The gain is excluded from their taxes

d)

The gain is $29,000

124.

A property owner who feels the amount of an ad valorem tax is unfair should appeal to:

a)

the tax assessor

b)

the board of arbitration

c)

the courts

d)

the state board of equalization

125.

A licensee would be in violation of the Fair Housing Laws if he/she refused to show property to a family because:

a)

the fact they cannot qualify for price levels in the area

b)

the fact the computer shows nothing available that meets their needs

c)

the fact they have seven children

d)

the fact the property is already under contract and the owner has stated no back-up contracts

126.

Which of the following statements most closely describes a listing contract?

a)

It serves as an employment agreement between a broker and a seller

b)

It is a list of all of the salable features in a property that is to be placed on the market

c)

Its language is designed to serve as a guide for a closing attorney when a sale is completed

d)

it authorizes a licensee to accept or reject an offer

127.

In some cases a broker's commission can be earned if the broker can prove he/she set in motion a series of events that resulted in the sale. To do so means the broker:

a)

had an exclusive right-to-sell listing

b)

secured the buyer's signature on the sales contract

c)

was the procuring cause of sale

d)

showed the property to the buyer

128.

When a salesperson performs the duties of a licensee, the salesperson does so:

a)

on behalf of himself/herself

b)

as a special agent for the seller

c)

as a general agent for his/her broker

d)

on behalf of the buyer

129.

If a sales person acts as an independent contractor, then:

a)

he/she is responsible to his/her broker to how the work is performed

b)

he/she controls his/her own working hours

c)

all of his/her listings belong to him/her

d)

his/her broker must withhold income tax from commission checks

130.

The listing broker and salesperson owe all but which of the following to the purchaser?

a)

Negotiation of the lowest possible price

b)

Honesty

c)

Integrity

d)

Disclosure of defects

131.

If asked by prospective buyer, the listing agent must disclose all of the following except:

a)

the previous occupant died on the property

b)

a murder had taken place on the grounds

c)

the home was the site of illegal drug activity

d)

the previous occupant had AIDS

132.

The term fiduciary best describes:

a)

a principal

b)

an agent

c)

both an agent and principal

d)

neither an agent nor a principal

133.

The amount of a broker's commission is:

a)

based upon standard rates established in the area

b)

established by agreement between the broker and the seller

c)

established by the real estate commission

d)

six or seven percent for single-family residences, depending on the area

134.

A listing broker has noticed that there has been water in the basement of the house he is marketing, but the seller states that the problem was solved and he does not want it mentioned. Should this fact be revealed by the broker to a prospective purchaser?

a)

The broker owes absolute loyalty to the seller so he must obey the request that the water problem not be mentioned

b)

Yes, the problem is clearly a "material fact" and must be disclosed

c)

As long as the problem was corrected, it is no longer relevant

d)

The broker should mention the water only if asked

135.

An agency may be terminated by all but which of the following?

a)

The property is condemned by the county for the purpose of building a new road

b)

The broker files for bankruptcy

c)

The listing salesperson dies

d)

The seller believes the broker has not marketed the property as promised and revokes the listing

136.

Owner Brewer authorized Broker Owens to sign a contract of sale. This authorization was granted by:

a)

a special provision in the exclusive right-to-sell listing

b)

making Owens a general agent

c)

making Owens an ostensible agent

d)

executing a power of attorney

137.

A general agency empowers the agent to:

a)

transact matters of all types for the principal

b)

transact the principal's affairs in a certain business

c)

perform only specific acts for the principal

d)

perform any legal act for the principal

138.

A listing that allows the owner to sell the property without being liable for a commission, but also appoints only one broker to act as sole agent is an:

a)

exclusive agency listing

b)

open listing

c)

exclusive right to sell listing

d)

sole listing

139.

Exclusive listings must include:

a)

a safety clause

b)

permission for the listing broker to appoint subagents

c)

a definite date of expiration

d)

both B and C

140.

When a third party relies upon the principal's representation that a particular broker is his/her agent, even though the broker is unaware of the fact, the principal's actions create a/an:

a)

agency by ratification

b)

ostensible agency

c)

buyer agency

d)

estoppal agency

141.

If a listing agreement does not specifically authorize a broker to accept and hold an earnest money deposit on behalf of the seller, then the:

a)

deposit must be turned over to the seller immediately

b)

purchaser cannot be required to pay a deposit

c)

broker has implied authority to accept such deposits

d)

broker must obtain power of attorney from a prospective purchaser to hold the deposit

142.

Acting as a dual agent without the consent of all parties is a breach of a broker's duty of:

a)

loyalty

b)

personal performance

c)

due care

d)

accountability

143.

A provision in a contract of sale that obligates the purchaser to list the property with a specific broker when the property is resold is:

a)

in violation of antitrust laws

b)

good business practice and perfectly legal

c)

called a tie-in

d)

both A and C

144.

An owner desires to net $147,600 from the sale of her home. Broker Baily accepts the listing with a 6.5% commission. The list price will be?

a)

$157,900

b)

$157,200

c)

$138,000

d)

$227,100

145.

The one-hundred percent commission plan means:

a)

the listing broker is obligated to share the fee with the subagent

b)

there are no fees to be deducted for MLS or franchise services

c)

the salesperson receives half of the fee

d)

the salesperson receives the entire fee but pays the broker a monthly fee for office space, administrative services, and use of the broker's name

146.

Which of the following is characteristic of an exclusive right to sell listing?

a)

It may allow more than one broker to share a commission paid by the seller

b)

the seller may sell the property without being obligated to pay a broker's commission

c)

the seller must sell to a ready, willing, and able buyer found by the broker

d)

the broker may sign a contract of sale on behalf of the seller

147.

Ronald is acting as a buyer broker for his sister, Regina, who is looking for a house. Since he has a written contract authorizing him to consider her a client, he is authorized to do all the following except:

a)

share with her any information he knows about why the seller is selling

b)

let the lender she has chosen know that Regina might not be planning to be an owner/occupant

c)

write an offer for her signature and present it to the listing agent

d)

accept a counter offer on Regina's behalf while she is out of town

148.

Alice has listed a property for an out-of-town investor. Her advertising is producing calls, but a hostile tenant is denying her access for showings. When told of this, the seller replies, "That's your problem." Which is true?

a)

Alice might ask for help from the local police

b)

A really motivated buyer might be found who would offer even without seeing the interior

c)

Alice should have discovered this problem before she listed the property

d)

Alice can renounce her listing since the owner refuses to cooperate

149.

A statement of exaggeration which a reasonable person would recognize as untrue is an example of:

a)

misrepresentation

b)

actual fraud

c)

puffing

d)

innocent misrepresentatioon

150.

If a contract for sale provides for the owner to sell a home in "as is" condition, then:

a)

caveat emptor applies

b)

latent defects must still be disclosed to the purchaser

c)

the owner is generally immune from liability

d)

the broker must assist the buyer in making a thorough inspection

151.

Smith enters into a contract with Jones. Unknown to Smith, Jones has previously been judicially determined of unsound mind. Under these conditions, the contract is:

a)

valid

b)

void

c)

voidable

d)

unenforceable

152.

A broker holding an earnest money deposit:

a)

holds the money to guarantee commission

b)

is a trustee for the principal

c)

must refund it to the purchaser on demand

d)

may keep the money in a personal checking account

153.

Mr. and Mrs. Brown want to have the house Mrs. Richardson is selling, but the Browns might have trouble getting mortgage loan because they recently started a business. The parties agree to enter into a five-year land contract (installment sale). Which is true?

a)

The Browns will now own the property. Mrs. Richardson will receive monthly payments and the balance of the sale price in five years

b)

Mrs. Richardson will be the landlady and the Browns will move in as tenants

c)

The Browns will not be able to occupy the property until five years have passed

d)

The land contract allows the Browns occupancy and also equitable title

154.

Contract law requires that parties to a contract be "competent" to enter into the agreement. Which of the following would probably be qualified to sign?

a)

A young man who has been declared to be an "emancipated minor"

b)

A woman who is being treated for a dependency on prescription drugs

c)

A somewhat confused old lady who is being coaxed by a grandson to sign

d)

A laborer who is illiterate but wants to sign with an X

155.

Smith is trying to sell a property to Jones for $50,000. Jones is anxious to buy but unsure about whether he can raise the money. Therefore, he pays Smith $500 for a 30-day option. Under such circumstances, which is true?

a)

If Jones cannot raise the money in 30 days, his $500 will be refunded

b)

If Jones does raise the money he needs, Smith must sell and the price is not negotiable

c)

If Smith receives another offer for the property for $60,000, he can revoke the option by returning the $500

d)

If Smith does buy the property, the $500 will automatically be applied to the purchase price he has to pay at the closing

156.

Johnson made an offer to Quick to purchase Quick's land. Quick accepted the offer but, before notifying Johnson, Quick died. Under these circumstances Johnson:

a)

may enforce the contract

b)

is protected by the statue of frauds

c)

is protected by supervening illegality

d)

will have to renegotiate the contract with Quick's heirs

157.

After the signing of a valid sales contract, purchaser Bob Clark discovered the land he was buying had no oil underneath it as he had thought. He may:

a)

rescind because of his mistake

b)

have to complete the transaction

c)

sue for damages

d)

make a counter-offer to the seller

158.

In the event of a default, the predetermined amount, which represents the total compensation the injured party will receive, is known as:

a)

punitive damages

b)

statutory damages

c)

constructive damages

d)

liquidated damages

159.

Ben and Will are both mistaken as to the parcel of land that Ben is buying from Will. Under these circumstances:

a)

they each have a voidable contract

b)

there is no contract

c)

they each have an unenforceable contract

d)

each is technically guilty of constructive fraud against the other

160.

The Lawsons are being transferred to another city. They have reached a binding agreement for the sale of their condominium to Jennifer. Three weeks before the closing they learn that the job transfer has been cancelled and ask their agent to let Jennifer know they no longer intend to sell. Which of the following is true?

a)

The Lawsons are not in default since their change of plans was not something they caused

b)

If Jennifer still wants this condominium she should sue the Lawsons for damages

c)

If Jennifer agrees to rescission, she gets her earnest money back, but the listing broker is no longer entitled to a commission

d)

The Lawsons might be forced to sell if Jennifer sues for specific performance

161.

Which of the following would NOT be legally sufficient to support the consideration in a sales contract?

a)

money

b)

property

c)

service

d)

love and affection

162.

Oral contracts for the sale of real property may be valid, but they are unenforceable because of:

a)

the law of agency

b)

the statue of limitations

c)

the statue of frauds

d)

the doctrine of laches

163.

Which of the following actions is most likely to result in constructive fraud:

a)

Broker Jones conceals from Buyer Smith the fact that the roof leaks

b)

Broker Jones tells Buyer Smith that the plumbing works when Broker Jones knows it does not

c)

Broker Jones thinks property values in the neighborhood have gone up 20% in the last year and informs Buyer Smith when careful examination of records would have shown a 5% increase

d)

Broker Jones suggests to Buyer Smith that a duplex will rent for $350 per unit when Jones actually thinks $250 is the maximum

164.

Smith enters into a contract with Jones to buy Jones' land. Before closing, Smith changes her mind. Brown, an acquaintance of Smith, says he would like to buy the land, so Smith transfers her rights and obligations under the contract to Brown. Smith's actions are:

a)

legal if not restricted by the contract

b)

illegal whether mentioned in the contract or not

c)

a novation

d)

a breach of contract

165.

A bilateral contract is one:

a)

in which one party agrees to perform

b)

in which one party is given an option to perform

c)

in which a promise by one party is given in exchange for a promise by another party

d)

that applies only to leases

166.

Undue influence or duress applied to one party to a contract makes the contract:

a)

void

b)

voidable

c)

invalid

d)

unenforceable

167.

In order for a real estate Purchase and Sale Agreement to be valid contract, it must include:

a)

a provision for earnest money of at least one dollar

b)

a complete legal property description

c)

a list of all liens and encumbrances

d)

a financing contingency

168.

Robert made an offer to Dan who immediately made a counter-offer. Which of the following statements is false?

a)

Dan's counter-offer was a qualified acceptance

b)

Robert may make yet another offer to Dan

c)

Robert may call the whole thing off without penalty

d)

If Robert refuses Dan's counter-offer, then Dan may accept the original offer and bind Robert to the contract

169.

Jane, who is seventeen years old, enters into a contract to buy George's home. The contract is:

a)

valid

b)

void

c)

voidable

d)

unenforceable

170.

Between the signing of a contract and the closing, the contract is:

a)

intoxicated

b)

executory

c)

menacing

d)

illegal

171.

When a corporation contracts to buy property, the contract is signed by:

a)

the attorney

b)

the designated officers

c)

the board of directors

d)

the mentally incompetent

172.

The phrase "Time is of the Essence" in the contract means:

a)

the contract is executed

b)

the parties have a reasonable leeway

c)

each party gets one time out

d)

time limits must be strictly observed

173.

All of the following will discharge the contractual obligations except:

a)

performance

b)

destruction

c)

agreement

d)

statue of limitations

174.

If a person who is a minor or mentally incompetent has property to be sold or leased, the contract is signed by:

a)

power of attorney

b)

making a mark

c)

a guardian

d)

an agent

175.

An assignment of a lease is:

a)

a transfer of the entire remaining leasehold

b)

a transfer of less than the entire remaining leasehold

c)

the same as subletting the leasehold

d)

both A and C

176.

Bouton owns an apartment building free of an encumbrance. Bouton has leased an apartment to Frazier who, in turn sublets to Gresham. What is the probable outcome?

a)

Frazier transferred the entire right, title, and interest in the leasehold

b)

Gresham should pay rent to Bouton

c)

If Gresham does not pay rent to Frazier, then Frazier is not liable to Bouton for rent. Bouton must proceed directly against Gresham

d)

Bouton's agreement with Frazier is not affected by the sublease in terms of Frazier's liability

177.

When a tenant is in possession of property and the tenancy may be terminated by notice from either party, there exists:

a)

an estate for years

b)

a periodic estate

c)

a determinable estate

d)

an estate at sufferance

178.

All of the following describe a percentage lease except one based upon a:

a)

percentage of net income

b)

percentage of gross income

c)

minimum rental plus a percentage of the gross income in excess of stated minimum

d)

certain percentage of the property's value

179.

Under a lease, the leasehold estate is a right belonging to the:

a)

landlord

b)

tenant

c)

remainderman

d)

reversioner

180.

Tenant Kelly read her lease very carefully and could find no restrictive covenant regarding the use of the property. Since zoning permitted, Kelly changed her business from a shoe store to a fish market. Landlord Hines objected. What is the probable outcome?

a)

Kelly may operate her fish market for the duration of the lease

b)

Kelly may not change the business purpose of her lease without permission from Hines

c)

Kelly may operate her fish market, until she receives written notice from Hines of his intent to terminate the lease

d)

While Hines may not evict Kelly, he may file suit for damages resulting from the unauthorized use of the property

181.

Angela has allowed her nephew, Josh, to occupy a house she owns while it is on the market. He pays no rent but is required to pay the utility bills and keep the house and yard in "showing" condition. When a buyer is found and an offer accepted, she expects Josh to move out immediately. Under Georgia law, which is true?

a)

Josh is entitled to a 60 day notice

b)

Josh never had a legal lease contract, so Angela could put him out at any time

c)

Josh has a tenancy for years, so no notice is required

d)

Josh should have at least 30 days notice

182.

When real estate under a lease is sold, the lease:

a)

expires with the conveyance

b)

binds the new owner

c)

is subject to termination at the option of either party with proper notice

d)

is valid but unenforceable

183.

A lease is all of the following except:

a)

a conveyance

b)

an option

c)

a contract

d)

an agreement

184.

Able leased certain property to Baker for tree years. With Able's consent, Baker subsequently leased the property to Clemmons. If Baker dies, which of the following is true?

a)

Clemmons' leasehold is still valid and enforceable

b)

Baker's lease is terminated

c)

Clemmons must renegotiate the lease with Able

d)

Clemmons' lease is terminated

185.

A valid written lease does not require:

a)

legal capacity of both parties

b)

an offer and acceptance

c)

valuable consideration

d)

the signatures of both parties

186.

After expiration of a lease, any remaining trade fixtures:

a)

may be removed by the tenant

b)

belong to the tenant and landlord jointly

c)

become the property of the landlord

d)

may be removed by the tenant with compensation to the landlord for their depreciated value

187.

A landlord and tenant's mutual agreement to cancel a lease is best described as:

a)

release and surrender

b)

rescission and acceptance

c)

surrender and acceptance

d)

none of the above

188.

In the absence of an agreement to the contrary, a tenant may:

a)

change the use of the property

b)

mortgage the leasehold estate

c)

lease the property to a third party

d)

all of the above

189.

Roberts signs an agreement with Green for the possession and use of Green's land until October 1st. Their agreement creates:

a)

an estate for years for Robert

b)

a reversionary estate for Green

c)

an estate at will for Roberts

d)

both A and B

190.

All of the following are less than freehold estates except:

a)

conditional fee estate

b)

estate at sufferance

c)

estate at will

d)

periodic estate

191.

A tenant who continues in possession of the premises after rightful possession has ended is called a:

a)

tenant at sufferance

b)

periodic tenant

c)

trespasser

d)

tenant at will

192.

A lease in which the tenant pays rent at a fixed rate during the lease term with the landlord paying expenses associated with ownership is called a:

a)

set lease

b)

straight lease

c)

ground lease

d)

step-up lease

193.

When a landlord leases property, the landlord retains as:

a)

leasehold estate

b)

leased fee estate

c)

quiet title estate

d)

remainder estate

194.

The type of maintenance which reduces down time by conducting regular inspections to identify needed repairs is known as:

a)

routine

b)

corrective

c)

preventative

d)

remedial

195.

The landlord has the right to enter the leased premises:

a)

at reasonable times to make necessary repairs

b)

upon reasonable notice to the tenant

c)

at reasonable times and upon reasonable notice

d)

only with the tenant's permission, unless the lease provides otherwise

196.

Georgia Law requires that the notice to terminate an estate at will is:

a)

60 days from the landlord, 30 days from the tenant

b)

30 days from the landlord, 30 days from the tenant

c)

30 days from the landlord, 60 days from the tenant

d)

no notice is required by either party

197.

Jennifer runs a property management company specializing in apartment houses. Her experience in tenant selection has generally taught her that:

a)

asking for reference is useless because the tenant will always name ones who will say something good

b)

any tenant is preferable to an empty apartment

c)

turnover is not necessarily costly

d)

fewer vacancies occur if the premises are well maintained

198.

A flower shop owner has been occupying a small commercial building for seven years and still has three years to go on his lease. Which of the following is true?

a)

If business falls off because of changes in the neighborhood, he can cancel the balance of the lease and move

b)

When the building is sold, the new owner is not free to raise the rent or give notice to vacate

c)

If the tenant sells the flower shop business, the purchaser must enter into a new lease with the property owner

d)

When the building is condemned for an expressway project, neither the owner nor the tenant is entitled to compensation

199.

A lease provision which allows the landlord to subsequently secure a first mortgage on the leased property is called:

a)

a subordination clause

b)

an escalation clause

c)

a surrender clause

d)

a leasehold clause