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Sprinkler Fitting level 3

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A typical deluge system application would be____________.

a)

restaurant dining areas

b)

conveyors

c)

supermarkets

d)

any industrial structure

2.

Relative to the deluge valve, the fire department connection is located ______________.

a)

upstream

b)

anywhere convienant

c)

downstream

d)

to prevent flooding of the municipal water supply

3.

In a deluge valve, the release system operates the ___________ chamber.

a)

inlet

b)

valve

c)

outlet

d)

priming

4.

Most manufacturers require that the hydraulic release line piping be a minimum of __________.

a)

1/4"

b)

1/2"

c)

5/8"

d)

3/4"

5.

Returning the manual emergency release to the closed position will stop water flow through the deluge valve.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

A deluge release system that can only be installed where the ambient temperature can be reliably maintained at 40-degrees For above is a (n) ________ release.

a)

pnumatic

b)

electric

c)

fixed-temperature

d)

hydraulic

7.

Standard sprinklers, fixed-temperature, rate-of-rise, and manual emergency release devices are used with __________.

a)

pneumatic release lines

b)

pneumatic and hydraulic release lines

c)

hydraulic release line only

d)

electric release line only

8.

In the normal sequence of operation of an electric release mechanism, the next thing that happens after the solenoid valve opens is ____________.

a)

the electric release devices activates

b)

the control panel energizes

c)

water drains from the priming chamber

d)

water is held in the priming chamber

9.

In an electric release system, the purpose of the release control panel is to _____________.

a)

discharge water to all open discharge devices

b)

drain water from the priming chamber

c)

send power to the solenoid valve

d)

activate the alarm mechanism

10.

The sprinkler fitter is responsible for trouble-shooting and repairing all detection systems.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

If a fixed-temperature supplemental detector is selected for operation at 190-degrees F, the automatic sprinklers will be selected to operate at ____________.

a)

100-degrees F

b)

155-degrees F

c)

165-degrees F

d)

212-degrees F

12.

The area to the side and below heating ducts gets an intermediate degree rating at ___________.

a)

1'-0" or less

b)

more than 1'-0"

c)

2'-6" or less

d)

more than 2'-6"

13.

Protectowire is installed in _____________.

a)

limited-lengths runs only

b)

continuous runs with no than two taps

c)

continuous runs withouts taps or branches

d)

ceilings only

14.

The least specified and least installed preaction systems is the ___________ system.

a)

single-interlocked

b)

combination-interlocked

c)

double-interlocked

d)

non-interlocked

15.

Preaction systems other than single interlocked reaction systems require a minimum of __________psi in the piping.

a)

5

b)

7

c)

8

d)

10

16.

In order for the deluge valve in an electric-pneumatic double-interlocked system to open, the pneumatic actuator and solenoid valve must ___________.

a)

not open

b)

operate exactly at the same time

c)

be open at the same time

d)

both open within 12 seconds

17.

Under normal conditions in a double-interlocked water control valve, the water pressures under the clapper and the differential chamber are ____________.

a)

very high

b)

equal

c)

low

d)

zero

18.

After setting up the Grunau / Star single valve double-interlocked valve, no leakage or water flow should occur through the velocity drip check.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

A primary feature of the fire cycle system is that __________.

a)

it is non-proprietary

b)

it is water-based only

c)

the manufacturer is not involved with system installation

d)

if the fire rekindles, the system will reactivate

20.

Firecycle detectors have normally closed contacts and are wired in series ___________.

a)

for temperature control

b)

which allows faster operation

c)

so they can be supervised

d)

so they can easily be maintained

21.

When a fire is suppressed, Firecycle system action energizes a timer that __________.

a)

delays the system operation for 20 minutes

b)

is used to turn off the fire alarm

c)

allows water to discharge for a predetermined time

d)

shuts the flow control diaphragm

22.

Firecycle detectors _____________.

a)

operate at variable temperatures

b)

are not rate compensated

c)

are unaffected by bending or denting

d)

will automatically recycle

23.

A significant feature of the Firecycle III system is that it ________.

a)

is a single-interlocked system only

b)

uses the same components as the previous Firecycle systems

c)

is four different types of cycling systems

d)

not compatible with Firecycle II detectors and detector cables

24.

When it is necessary to deviate from shop drawings due to job conditions, the layout technician and the estimator are notified after the work is done.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Deluge and preaction systems ____________.

a)

are hydrostatically tested with open nozzles

b)

require the same pressure test as wet and dry systems

c)

are tested with dry-pipe valves locked closed

d)

use the DPV clapper as a pressure closure

26.

Standpipes are considered either ___________.

a)

Class II or Class III

b)

wet or dry

c)

automatic or semiautomatic

d)

commercial or residential

27.

The location and size of the construction standpipe is determined by the ___________.

a)

sprinkler fitter

b)

superintendent

c)

layout technician and AHJ

d)

sprinkler fitter foreman

28.

A standpipe system connected to a water supply that supplies the system demand any time required is called a (n) ________ system.

a)

combined

b)

automatic wet

c)

manual

d)

dry

29.

In tall buildings, standpipe systems are often divided into zones to limit system pressure exerted on fittings and components. Pressure limiting is done by reducing the height of the water column through zones.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Piping supplying the standpipe system is to be sized by what method criteria or method?

a)

Pipe schedule

b)

All structures over 75 feet tall require 6" standpipes

c)

All structures over 30 feet tall but less than 75 feet tall require 4" standpipes

d)

Hydraulically

31.

NFPA 14 requires actual flow test of newly installed standpipe system when ___________.

a)

the system has pressure-reducing valves installed

b)

the system utilizes a fire pump in the water supply

c)

it does not matter; all new systems require a flow test

d)

it does not matter: new systems never require a flow test

32.

A class I standpipe system is calculated to provide a minimum residual pressure at the top most 2-1/2 inch outlet of ___________ psi.

a)

65

b)

100

c)

125

d)

150

33.

The main drain connection is required to terminate where the discharge ___________.

a)

can be collected

b)

rate can be measured

c)

will not damage the surrounding area under full flow

d)

can be observed for foreign objects

34.

The size of the main drain connection for standpipes sized four inches and larger is __________ inches.

a)

3/4

b)

1-1/4

c)

2

d)

2-1/2

35.

When the maximum pressure of new systems is over 150 psi, the new system must be hydrostatically tested at ________ psi over the maximum pressure.

a)

20

b)

25

c)

50

d)

75

36.

If an interim air test is conducted in lieu of the standard hydrostatic test, this air pressure leakage test is done for 24 hours at _________ psi.

a)

20

b)

30

c)

40

d)

50

37.

The person responsible for ensuring that the system hydraulic information sign is made available and attached appropriately is the _________.

a)

AHJ

b)

layout technician

c)

job superintendent

d)

sprinkler fitter

38.

All standpipes within a given structure are required to be __________.

a)

interconnected

b)

exactly the same size

c)

activated independently and separately

d)

minimum 6" diameter

39.

The maximum flow capability for class I and class III standpipes for unsprinklered buildings is ___________ gpm.

a)

250

b)

500

c)

1,000

d)

1,250

40.

All fire departments must use national standard hose threads.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Hose connections and stations must be located not less than three feet above the floor or not more than _______ feet above the floor.

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

8

42.

The 130-foot travel distance limitation from all parts of each floor to a hose connection does not apply to ________ systems when the exception is taken sprinklered buildings.

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class I ir Class II

d)

Class III

43.

Underground pipe that supplies the standpipe system must be flushed and tested per ___________.

a)

NFPA 12

b)

NFPA 14

c)

NFPA 20

d)

NFPA 24

44.

For roof manifolds, usual building code requirement is for a __________ outlet.

a)

single

b)

dual

c)

three-

d)

four-

45.

NFPA 14 requires an approved PRV to limit pressures at any hose valve to _______psi.

a)

50

b)

75

c)

100

d)

125

46.

The single largest cause of PRV failure malfunction is ________.

a)

excessive presure

b)

improper sizing

c)

debris

d)

inadequate pressure

47.

For pip with a nominal diameter of six inches, the minimum nominal pipe sleeve size is ___________ inches.

a)

8

b)

10

c)

12

d)

13

48.

NFPA 13 requires that a riser with offsets be clamped (supported) ________ the offset.

a)

below

b)

above

c)

above and below

d)

directly

49.

Specific gravity is a measure of the ___________.

a)

viscosity of the water

b)

weight of a column of water 33.9 feet high

c)

weight of 29.92 inches of mercury

d)

relative weight of substances

50.

Water begins to covert to ice crystals at __________.

a)

32.0-degrees F

b)

32.9-degrees F

c)

39.0-degrees F

d)

39.2-degrees F

51.

One critical aspect of a fire sprinkler water supply is _________.

a)

it must be potable

b)

the duration must be adaquate

c)

it must be from a municipal water supply

d)

it must deliver 200 psi minimum

52.

Fire pumps are selected based on ___________.

a)

flow and pressure calculations

b)

pump-driven horspower

c)

NFPA 13D

d)

NFPA 24

53.

The type of water supply tank used, its capacity, location, foundations, and other features are specified by __________.

a)

NFPA 13

b)

NFPA 13D

c)

NFPA 20

d)

NFPA 22

54.

The nitrogen-driven pressure tank for NFPA 13D residential use is primarily designed for applications requiring a ________ minute duration.

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

d)

20

55.

An example of community infrastructure is ____________.

a)

roads, schools, and dry-pipe systems

b)

power plants, and municipal water supplies

c)

underground piping, risers, and fire pumps

d)

riser,sprinkler mains, and wet-pipe systems

56.

Under normal conditions, the result of gridding is that every potential tap location _________.

a)

will be supplied from exact North-South and East-West directions

b)

will be supplied from four locations

c)

will not have valve piping

d)

will be supplied water from two directions

57.

A measure of the available line pressure prior to flowing the hydrant is __________.

a)

static pressure

b)

residual pressure

c)

flow pressure

d)

relief pressure

58.

The test that measures the system supply capability at a particular time and season is a _______.

a)

static pressure test

b)

residual pressure test

c)

flow test

d)

simulated fire flow test

59.

When conducting a flow test, a difference in elevation between the static/ residual measuring point and the flow hydrant is important.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Pilot gauges should be calibrated by a testing laboratory_________.

a)

after each use

b)

quarterly

c)

annually

d)

every five years

61.

Velocity pressure is measured using a _________.

a)

normal pressure gauge

b)

dial indicator gauge

c)

PRV

d)

pilot tube

62.

When conducting a flow test, the pressure gauge reading is determined by __________.

a)

taking the mean of the high reading and the low reading

b)

using the low reading

c)

using the high reading

d)

averaging three odd the low readings

63.

NFPA 13 states that meters are prohibited from use on sprinkler systems.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

The type of meter used when flow rates are substantial most of the time is a _________.

a)

compound meter

b)

disc meter

c)

turbine meter

d)

strainerless compound meter

65.

Pressure losses between strainer and no strainer meters are significant.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Approved back flow protection assemblies are generally not required for AWWA fire system Class(es) _______.

a)

1 and 2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

4 and 5

67.

In a reduced pressure back flow preventer, the relief valve opens when ________.

a)

RP zone pressure drops below supply pressure

b)

RP zone pressure increases toward supply pressure

c)

demand for water increases

d)

there is a pressure loss across the inlet check valve

68.

So that the automatic water supply does not leak out through the FDC, a ________ must be installed in the FDC line.

a)

double check back flow preventer

b)

reduced pressure detector assembly

c)

double detector check assembly

d)

check valve

69.

The sizes of the relief valve and relief valve discharge line are established by NFPA 20. The nominal size of the discharge line is two sizes larger than the valve itself.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

The system that allows water to flow around the pump if the fire pump fails is the __________.

a)

pressure-relief valve

b)

check valve

c)

testting mechanism

d)

bypass

71.

As the rate of flow through a strainer increases, the head loss __________.

a)

decreases

b)

doesn't change

c)

increases

d)

is not affected in flow-through strainers

72.

Entrained air in the pump casing ____________.

a)

has little, if any affect on the pump out put

b)

enhances pump delivery

c)

is automatically expelled

d)

is related by the check valve

73.

According to NFPA 20, it is never permissible to pipe the discharge from the pressure-relief valve back to the suction side of the pump.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

When mounting a pump and driver, an acceptable formula for grout is ______________.

a)

three parts cement, one part sand, little water

b)

one part cement, three parts sand, little water

c)

three parts cement, one part sand, three parts water

d)

one part cement, three parts sand, four parts water

75.

If there is no positive head pressure on the intake or suction side of a centrifugal pump, a _____________ must be used.

a)

vertical turbine

b)

split-case

c)

in-line

d)

horizontal end suction

76.

Split-case pumps are rated from _____________.

a)

35 to 1,500 gpm

b)

100 to 500 gpm

c)

100 to 5,000 gpm

d)

250 to 5,000 gpm

77.

To convert feet of head to psi, multiply by ___________.

a)

0.433 psi/ft

b)

6.894 psi/ft

c)

433 ft

d)

6,894.757 ft

78.

NFPA 20 requires a pump at 65 percent of its pressure rating to deliver ___________ percent of its rated volume.

a)

100

b)

125

c)

150

d)

175

79.

The two basic requirements for electric drivers to function are _____________.

a)

adequate electrical input and ventilation

b)

conformance with NFPA 13 and NFPA 22

c)

light loads and protective guards

d)

conformance with NFPA 13R and NFPA 24

80.

NFPA 20 requires that the power supply to the fire pump be routed outside of building or _____________.

a)

encased in 6 inches of concrete

b)

through an equivalent of four hours of fire resistance

c)

encased in 2 inches of concrete

d)

have at least one disconnect in the pump feeder circuit

81.

The type of controller designed to reduce hydro-mechanical stress in the sprinkler system is a __________ controller.

a)

across-the-line

b)

soft-start

c)

primary resistor,reduced voltage

d)

wye-delta

82.

Variable-speed controllers are deigned to control pump output pressure by ___________.

a)

limiting the power available to the pump

b)

allowing the pump to free-wheel

c)

controlling suction pressure

d)

controlling the speed of the pump

83.

A transfer switch assembly consists of the transfer switch and _________.

a)

inrush current limiter

b)

sensing control module

c)

a step-down transformer

d)

starting-mode resistors

84.

NFPA 20 requires dual battery charging capabilities in diesel-drive controllers.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

If water pulsation causes erratic operation of the pressure switch on a sensing line, a _________ may be required.

a)

1/2-inch globe valve

b)

supplemental test connection

c)

control panel

d)

supplemental air chamber

86.

In sensing line arrangements, drilled orifices may not be used in place of check valves.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

The UL Playpipe is the only accepted method of testing fire pump capability.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

In an electric fire pump flow test, the pump should be tested at a minimum of ____________ test point(s).

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

89.

When inspecting a pump room, the most important item to be considered before entering the room is __________.

a)

access

b)

pump capacity

c)

safety

d)

pipe layout

90.

Piping should be installed so that the fire pump carries less than 100 pounds of the piping system weight.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Grouting a pump foundation should be done __________.

a)

before pump alignment

b)

after pump alignment and after running the pump

c)

at any convenient time

d)

after pump alignment and before running the pump

92.

The primary purpose of an engine block heater is to ________.

a)

keep the engine from freezing

b)

prevent condensation

c)

assist in the cranking cycle

d)

loosen sluge

93.

Nozzles are designed to be used _____________.

a)

to achieve appropriate thermal sensitivity

b)

to minimize the effects of obstructions

c)

as protection for special hazards such as switching equipment

d)

under horizontal or slopped ceilings

94.

Residential Sprinklers are designed to _____________.

a)

produce a larger water droplet

b)

distribute water at a high point on the wall

c)

throw water down both sides of a pitched roof

d)

have extra large K-factors

95.

Extended coverage upright and pendent sprinklers with a protection area of 144 square feet for high-piled storage can be spaced a maximum distance of _____________ feet apart.

a)

15

b)

16

c)

18

d)

20

96.

Extended coverage upright and pendent sprinklers may be installed within trusses where trusses are spaced greater than ____________ feet on center.

a)

7-1/12

b)

10

c)

12

d)

14

97.

In special cases, extended coverage sidewall sprinklers have been listed for use under smooth, flat ceilings with slopes up to ___________.

a)

3 inches per foot

b)

4 inches per foot

c)

5 inches per foot

d)

6 inches per foot

98.

Extended coverage sidewall sprinklers can cover an area of up to ___________.

a)

200 sq ft

b)

300 sq ft

c)

400 sq ft

d)

450 sq ft

99.

Residential sprinklers are designed to limit temperature 3 inches below the ceiling to _____________.

a)

500-degrees F

b)

550-degrees F

c)

600-degrees F

d)

650-degrees F

100.

The maximum spacing for CMSA sprinklers under obstructed combustible construction is _____________.

a)

6 feet

b)

8 feet

c)

10 feet

d)

12 feet

101.

Under normal conditions, the temperature rating of an ESFR should be ___________.

a)

150-degrees F

b)

165-degrees F

c)

180-degrees F

d)

200-degrees F

102.

ESFR sprinklers can be spaced up 19 feet apart because of their higher level of performance.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

In-rack sprinklers must be __________ degree rated.

a)

intermediate

b)

high

c)

ordinary

d)

any

104.

Dry sprinklers must be installed in a tee.

a)

True

b)

False

105.

In general, institutional sprinklers _____________.

a)

have special spray patterns

b)

are relatively difficult to install

c)

are available only as standard coverage pendents

d)

are available only as extended coverage sidewalls

106.

Specially designed attic sprinklers positioned at the peak of a sloping roof can protect a roof up to _________.

a)

40 feet wide

b)

50 feet wide

c)

60 feet wide

d)

70 feet wide

107.

All back-to-back attic sprinklers must be installed at least _______ inches away from the face of the truss.

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

108.

The minimum spacing between hip sprinklers is _____________.

a)

2 feet on center

b)

3 feet on center

c)

4 feet on center

d)

6 feet on center

109.

The maximum spacing between attic sprinklers is ___________.

a)

2 feet on center

b)

4 feet on center

c)

6 feet on center

d)

8 feet on center

110.

Sprinklers that have been turned into nozzles by removing the actuating elements are called ___________.

a)

conical pattern nozzles

b)

frame-style spray nozzles

c)

open sprinklers

d)

cooling tower nozzles

111.

Strainers are important where small orifice nozzles of less than _______ inch are installed.

a)

5/32

b)

7/16

c)

3/8

d)

1/2

112.

Listing agency testing of corrosion-resistance coatings and frame materials is applicable to all known corrosive atmospheres.

a)

True

b)

False