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DOSAGE FORM (Part1)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 12hrs 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A product designed for administration to the body in the diagnosis or treatment of disease is called

a)

Drug

b)

Injection

c)

Dosage Form

d)

Resins

2.

A device that holds a drug and may be in direct contact with the drug

a)

Insert

b)

Container

c)

Labels

d)

Transdermal Drug Delivery

3.

A container that protects the contents from extraneous solids and from loss of article under ordinary conditions of handling and shipment storage and distribution

a)

Tightly Closed Container

b)

Hermetic Container

c)

Well Closed Container

d)

All

4.

What type of packaging is not easily tampered

a)

Tape Seal

b)

Bubble Pack

c)

Blister Pack

d)

Aerosol

5.

According to the USP, the instruction “protect from light” in a monograph indicates storage in a

a)

Light Resistant Container

b)

Dark Place

c)

Amber Glass Bottle

d)

Hermetic Container

6.

1. Single dose parenteral container


I. Permits withdrawal of successive portions of the content

II. Ampule

III. Is a hermetic container

a)

I and III

b)

II and III

c)

I and II

d)

I,II,III

7.

The USP limits the size of single dose containers to

a)

30mL

b)

50mL

c)

1000mL

d)

100mL

8.

According to USP Standards , a refrigerated can be used to store pharmaceutical that specify storage in a

a)

Cool Place

b)

Cold Place

c)

Freezer

d)

Room Temp

9.

Based on USP guidelines the stability of extemporaneous compounded aqueous liquids (reconstituted formulation) is

a)

Beyond use date of not later than 25% of the time remaining until the products’ expiration date or 6 months whichever is earlier

b)

Not less than the intended duration of therapy or 30 days whichever is earlier

c)

Not later than 14 days when stored at cold temperature

d)

A. Maximum beyond use date use 6 months or 25% of the remaining time between the compounding date and then the shortest expiration date of the ingredients whichever is earlier

10.

The expiry date on a pharmaceutical container states “expires Jul 20-17”. This statement means that by the expiry date, the product may have lost

a)

Up to 5% of its activity

b)

Up to 10% of its activity

c)

Up to 50% of its activity

d)

Sufficient activity to be outside USP Monograph requirements

11.

The following are examples of single-dose parenteral containers EXCEPT

a)

Fusion-Sealed Ampules

b)

Pre-filles syringe

c)

30mL-capacity vials

d)

Cartridges

12.

Photodegradation can be prevented by packaging drugs in a light resistant container. Which of the following containers is light resistant


I.Colorless bottle covered with aluminum foil

II.Plastic Bottle

III.Amber colored bottle

IV.Bottle covered with carbon paper

a)

I,II,III

b)

II,III,IV

c)

I,III,IV

d)

I,II,III,IV

13.

The following route of administration will provide the highest concentration of drugs in the blood

a)

Intavascular

b)

Intradermal

c)

Intramuscular

d)

Oral

14.

Type II glass container is

a)

Highly resistant borosilicate glass

b)

Treated soda lime glass

c)

Soda lime glass

d)

General purpose soda lime glass

15.

It is used to mask the bitter taste of the product

a)

Cacao

b)

Fruits or Citrus Fruits

c)

Cinnamon, Orange and Raspberry

d)

All

16.

The disadvantage of Sodium Saccharin as a sweetening agent is

a)

Contraindicated with phenylketonurics

b)

Bitter after taste

c)

It has a carcinogenic potential

d)

130X as sweet as sucrose

17.

Which is TRUE: FD&C yellow#5

a)

Can cause allergic reaction to patient allergy to penicillin

b)

Known to be Tartrazine

c)

It is permitted to used externally

d)

All

18.

In preparing lipstick which type of colorant should be used

a)

External D and C

b)

F D and C

c)

D and C

d)

All

19.

The following are frequently used as ophthalmic preservatives EXCEPT

a)

Benzalkonium chloride

b)

Chlorobutanol

c)

Phenylmercuric nitrate

d)

Propylparaben

20.

100% proof alcohol is

a)

50% ethyl alcohol

b)

Absolute alcohon

c)

50% methyl alcohol

d)

100% ethyl alcohol

21.

The term “impalpable” refers to a substances that is

a)

Colorless

b)

Greasy

c)

Tasteless

d)

Not perceptible to touch

22.

1. An approach to stabilize preparation against hydrolytic decomposition;


I. Removal of water

II.Use of antioxidant

III. Use of buffering agent

IV. Supplying the drug in dry form for reconstitution

a)

I,II and IV

b)

I,II and III

c)

I,III and IV

d)

II, III and IV

23.

1. Which of the following is an antioxidant?


A. Alpha-tocopherol

B. Butylhydroxyanisole

C. Ascorbic Acid

D.Sodium bisulfite

a)

ABC

b)

ACD

c)

BCD

d)

ABCD

24.

Which of the following is an example of oxidant of an organic, active drug molecule?

a)

Decrease in valence of the drug molecule

b)

Gain electron(s) by the drug molecule

c)

Addition of hydrogen to a carbon-carbon double bond

d)

Loss of hydrogen from alcohol hydroxyl group

25.

The major ingredients in most dosage forms of aqueous solution is

a)

Water

b)

Aromatic Water

c)

Alcohol

d)

Acidulated Water

26.

Dosage forms employed to combat infection

a)

Vaginal suppository

b)

Vaginal tablet

c)

Oral tablet

d)

All

27.

When incorporating potent substances in powder, the process used is

a)

Block and divide method

b)

Geometric dilution

c)

Levigation

d)

Pulverization by intervention

28.

The most accurate method of extemporaneously preparing divided powders although time consuming

a)

Weighing to individual doses

b)

Block and Dividing

c)

Estimation

d)

All of these

29.

Particle terminology is essential in the formulation and manufacture of:

a)

Powders

b)

Aerosols

c)

Capsules

d)

All

30.

Combinations of mixtures of drugs which liquefy due to a lowering of their melting point

a)

Deliquescent

b)

Hygroscopic

c)

Efflorescent

d)

Eutectic Mixture

31.

1. Hygroscopic and deliquescent substances may be incorporated in to powders by:


A. Addition of lubricant

B. Double wrapping

C. Addition of diluents

a)

A and C

b)

A and B

c)

B and C

d)

All

32.

A waterproof paper that is commonly used to wrap hygroscopic and deliquescent materials

a)

Vegetable Parchment

b)

Wax paper

c)

Glassine paper

d)

Bond paper

33.

The process of grinding a drug in a mortar to reduce the particle size is termed:

a)

Tumbling

b)

Trituration

c)

Spatulation

d)

Levigation

34.

What are the main ingredients of effervescent granules:

a)

Sodium carbonate, citric acid and tartaric acid

b)

Sodium bicarbonate, citric acid , tartaric acid

c)

Sodium carbonate , ascorbic acid and sodium tartrate

d)

Sodium bicarbonate, ascorbic acid and tartaric acid

35.

1. The following are true about granules ;


A. More stable physically and chemically than are the corresponding powders from which they were prepared

B. More easily “wetted” by a solvent than a certain powder

C. More likely to cake or harden upon standing that powders

D. Their surface area is less than of a powders

a)

A,B and D

b)

A,B and C

c)

B,C and D

d)

All

36.

1. In preparing effervescent salts, which of the following statement/s hold/s TRUE:


I. Effervescent granules can be prepared using two methods, the dry and the wet

II. The effervescent from the released CO2 serves to mask the bitter or salty taste of the drug

III. Using tartaric acid as the sole acid would result in a sticky mixture which is difficult to granulate

a)

I and II

b)

II and III

c)

I and III

d)

I,II and III

37.

Efflorescent powders when triturated or stored in low humidity releases

a)

CO2

b)

Dust

c)

Water

d)

Good Smell

38.

A very fine powdered chemical is defined as one that will;

a)

Completely pass through a #40 sieve and not more 40% through a #80 sieve

b)

Completely pass through a #20 sieve and not more than 40% through a #60 sieve

c)

Completely pass through #8 sieve and not more than 20% through sieve no. 60.

d)

Completely pass through a #80 sieve no limit to greater fineness

39.

Finely divided powders introduced into body cavity such as vagina, ears, nose, throat are

a)

Douche Powder

b)

Dusting

c)

Insufflations

d)

Triturations

40.

The following are appropriate actions when dispensing bulk medicated powders ;


A. Mixing oral powders with a liquid for administration

B. Inclusion of potent or low dosage active drug

C. Inclusion of antimicrobial drugs in topical preparations

D. Provision of supplemental device to measure the dosage amount

a)

A, B and D

b)

A, C and D

c)

B, C and D

d)

A, B, C and D

41.

Ideal containers for dispensing dusting powders

a)

Sifter top container

b)

Wide mouth bottles

c)

Paste board boxes

d)

Amber colored bottles

42.

Products for external uses

a)

White colored label

b)

Any color as long as the statement “For External Use Only”

c)

Red Colored Label

d)

Any will do gusto mo yon?

43.

Which pharmaceutical ingredient can be included in powders used to manufacture hard gelatin capsules that contain magnesium stearate as glidant?

a)

Sodium lauryl sulfate

b)

Pregelatized starch

c)

Silicon dioxide

d)

Croscarmellose

44.

Which of the following capsule is the largest

a)

1

b)

5

c)

0

d)

00

45.

Added to make capsule opaque

a)

Calcium oxide

b)

Salol

c)

Titanium dioxide

d)

Silicon dioxide

46.

The primary composition materials od capsule shells

a)

Gelatin

b)

Agar

c)

Acacia

d)

Tragacanth

47.

What substances are added to render soft gelatin capsule elastic or plastic like

a)

Glycerin

b)

Gelatin

c)

Mineral oil

d)

Sorbitol

48.

1. The main difference between hard and soft gelatin capsules is/are:

a)

Dyes are added to the capsule shell

b)

Hard gelatin shells are not plastiziced

c)

Hard gelatin capsules are plasticized

d)

All of these !

49.

Hard gelatin capsules are;

a)

In small scale compounding, pharmacist uses “punch” method

b)

Contain preservatives like parabens

c)

Commonly employed in clinical trials

50.

Soft gelatin capsules are;

a)

In small scale compounding, pharmacist uses “punch” method

b)

Are used to hermetically seal and encapsulated liquids, suspensions and pasty materials

c)

Contain more moisture than hard gelatin capsule

d)

It can be prepared by rotary die process

51.

The ideal excipient for the preparation of chewable tablets containing moisture sensitive drug

a)

Lactulose

b)

Saccharin Sodium

c)

Xylitol

d)

Dextrose

e)

Mannitol

52.

The following are used tablet formulation to reduce friction during tablet compression

a)

Calcium stearate

b)

Magnesium stearate

c)

Stearic acid

d)

Mineral Oil

e)

All

53.

Lubricants contribute to the preparation of compressed tablets by: EXCEPT!

a)

Improving the flow of the granulation

b)

Prevent adhesion of the tablet formulation to the punches dies during compression

c)

Reduce friction

d)

Give a sheen to the finished products

e)

None

54.

All of the following impart satisfactory compression characteristic to the formulation of the tablet EXCEPT;

a)

Sweetening agents

b)

Binder

c)

Diluents

d)

Lubricants

55.

TRUE statement about the function of excipients used in tablet formulation EXCEPT;

a)

Binder promote granulation

b)

Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet

c)

Glidants promote the flow of the tablet granulation

d)

Diluents make up the desired bulk of the tablet formulation

56.

The principal factor that makes enteric coated tablets unpredictable in drug therapy is

a)

Premature in release of the drug

b)

Varying thickness of the drug

c)

Failure to release the drug

d)

State of the health of the patient

57.

Which of the following is used as a binder for tablet

a)

Starch

b)

Liquid Glucose

c)

Talc

d)

Gelatin

58.

Any substance combined with an active ingredients to make letter agreeable to convenient dosage is called:

a)

Diluent

b)

Lubricant

c)

Disintegrator

d)

Excipients

59.

Type of tablet coating where the first coat in shellac is

a)

Enteric coating

b)

Micro-coating

c)

Film coating

d)

Sugar coating

60.

It is a common lubricant for tablets

a)

Mannitol

b)

Acacia

c)

Starch

d)

Magnesium stearate

61.

Formulation methods of achieving sustained drug release include

a)

Use of coating

b)

Microencapsulation

c)

Embedding the drug in a matrix

62.

Drugs that are destroyed by gastric acid or that irritate the gastric mucosa are usually formulated

a)

External preparation

b)

Enteric coated tablets

c)

Capsules

d)

Chewable tablet

63.

This is used as binder, diluents and disintegrant for tablet

a)

Magnesium stearate

b)

Talc

c)

Starch

d)

Kaolin

64.

Tablet dosage form not requiring disintegration

a)

Enteric coated

b)

Film coated

c)

Sustained release

d)

Chewable

65.

Type of coating for tablets consisting of thin of water insoluble polymeric substances is

a)

Film coated

b)

Sugar coated

c)

Enteric coated

d)

Chocolate coated

66.

The following are characteristics of pills

a)

Adhesive

b)

Chewable

c)

Plasticity property

d)

Firm

67.

Unit-dose packaging for tablets or capsules is exemplified by;

I. Strip packaging

II. Wide-mouthed bottles

III. Blister pack

a)

Only I

b)

I and II

c)

II and III

d)

I and III

68.

1. Flavoring agents are usually added to:

I. Buccal tablets

II. Film-coated tablets

III. Chewable tablets

a)

I, II and III are correct

b)

I and III are correct

c)

I and II are correct

d)

II and III are correct

69.

Uncoated , bullet- or ovoid- shaped tablets intended for localized effect;

a)

Vaginal tablet

b)

Sugar-coated tablet

c)

Effervescent tablet

d)

Multiple Compressed tablet

70.

Which method of tablet manufacture can be used to combine two incompatible substances in the same tablet:

a)

Sugarcoating

b)

Multilayer compression

c)

Film coating

d)

Enteric coating

71.

To protect drugs from decomposition from moisture, tablets are co-packaged with:

a)

Cotton wool

b)

Aluminum foil

c)

Fumed silica

d)

Dessicant package

72.

Which of the following factors does influence the speed of drug dissolution from tablets?

a)

Tablet hardness

b)

Particle size of the drug

c)

Solubility of the drug

d)

Weight Uniformity

73.

Which of the following tablet dosage forms avoids the hepatic first pass effect?

a)

Enteric coated

b)

Sublingual

c)

Chewable

d)

Instantly disintegrating

74.

Increase amount of this capsule/tablets excipient reduces wetting of particles thus slowing dissolution

a)

Surface active agents

b)

Disintegrant

c)

Lubricant

d)

Diluent

75.

Lozenges usually do not contain the following tableting excipients

a)

Cross linked povidone

b)

Sucrose

c)

Lactose

d)

Gelatin

76.

To what type of modified release formulation enteric coated tablet belongs?

a)

Controlled release

b)

Delayed-action

c)

Sustained-action

d)

Extended- action

77.

Advantages of controlled release drug dosage forms are:

a)

Decrease patient compliance

b)

Extended daytime and night activity of the drug

c)

Reduced incidience of side effects

d)

Increased dosage frequency

78.

Methods utilized to achieve controlled drug release from solid dosage forms

a)

Coated beads or granules

b)

Complex formation

c)

Ion exchange resist

79.

This type of dosage form allows a reduction in dosing frequency to that presented by a conventional dosage

a)

Extended-release

b)

Repeat Action

c)

Targeted release

d)

Delayed-release

80.

Which of the following statements hold true for extended-release dosage forms

a)

There is frequency reduction in dosing

b)

There is reduction in drug blood level fluctuation

c)

There is reduction in terms of adverse effects.

81.

Microencapsulation is;

a)

A process by which solids, liquids, or even gases maybe encapsulated int microscopic size

b)

The technology employed in Micro-K Extencaps

c)

Formed by applying thin coating of “wall” material around the substance being encapsulated

82.

The most common “wall” forming material used in microencapsulation is;

a)

Lactose

b)

Dextrose

c)

Gelatin

d)

Sorbitol

83.

Correct statements about repeat-action tablets includes;

a)

The tablet may be prepared with immediate-release dose in the tablet's outer shell

b)

The tablet’s second dose in the inner core

c)

An example of this type of product is the GITS(Gastrointestinal Therapeutic System)

84.

In preparing extended-release product by embedding drug in inert plastic matrix includes;

a)

The granulated drug is compressed into tablet

b)

The drug is granulated with an inert plastic material such as hydroxypropylmethylcellulose

c)

The inert tablet matrix, expended of drug, is excreted with the feces

85.

In ion-exchange resin technology of extended-release formulations, the release of the drug from the complex is;

a)

Dependent upon the pH of the GIT

b)

Dependent upon the electrolyte

c)

Both are correct

d)

Both are wrong

86.

Implants are;

a)

Inserted under the skin by special injector or by surgical incisions

b)

Examples of transdermal drug delivery system

c)

Designed to provide long-term drug therapy through the slow release of medication

87.

A TDDS used to prevent travel related motion sickness is;

a)

Transdermal nicotine

b)

Transdermal scopolamine

c)

Transdermal clonidine

d)

Transdermal estradiol

88.

1. Transdermal Drug delivery System (TDDS);


I. Facilitate the passage of therapeutic quantities of drug substances through the skin into the systemic circulation

II. often called “transdermal patches”

III. Avoid first-pass effect

a)

Only I is correct

b)

I and II are correct

c)

II and III are correct

d)

All are TAMA !

89.

Advantages of Transdermal Drug Delivery System include:

a)

Avoids the occurrence of contact dermatitis

b)

Avoids GI drug absorption incompatibilities

c)

Drug therapy cannot be terminated rapidly

90.

All of the following factors predict favorable transdermal drug absorption for systemic therapy EXCEPT;

a)

Molecular weight of 100 to 400

b)

A high partition coefficient of the drug

c)

Full hydration

d)

High aqueous solubility of the drug

91.

Which of the following polymers in a membrane ingredient in several TDDS products?

a)

Glyceryl polymethacrylate

b)

Ethylene-vinyl acetate

c)

Polyvinyl chloride

d)

Cellulose acetate phthalate

92.

Substances that increase percutaneous absorption

a)

Dimethyl sulfoxide

b)

Olive oil

c)

Agar

d)

Nonoxynol 9

93.

Percutaneous absorption in TDDS increases with

(MARAMI ANG SAGOT)

a)

Amount of drug

b)

Amount of rubbing

c)

Surface area

94.

The part of the transdermal drug delivery system which controls the release of the drug is the

a)

Adhesive paper

b)

Protective peel strip

c)

Drug reservoir

d)

Microporous membrane

95.

The following are example of oleaginous bases EXCEPT;

a)

Lanolin

b)

Yellow Ointment

c)

Petrolatum USP

d)

None

96.

Medicated or non-medicated semisolid preparation intended for external application

a)

Lotion

b)

Liniment

c)

Ointment

d)

All

97.

Package for ointments and other semisolid preparations.

a)

Large-mouth jars

b)

Metal tubes

c)

Plastic tubes

d)

Well-closed container

98.

These are solid or semi-solid adhesive masses spread upon a backing material of paper fabric, moleskin or plastic.

a)

Creams

b)

Plasters

c)

Lotion

d)

Paste

99.

A viscous preparation intended for warm, external application to a body surface is;

a)

Glycerite

b)

Ointment

c)

Poultice

d)

Glycerogelatin

100.

How many percent of ZnO is contained in Zinc Glycerogelatin

a)

15%

b)

35%

c)

45%

d)

10%