wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Practice Test 3 - Part 1

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A work team that has the authority to decide how its members will complete their daily tasks is a:

a)

Problem-solving team

b)

Cross-functional team

c)

Self-managed team

d)

Virtual team

2.

Zoe is the leader of a problem-solving team. She is encouraging every member of the team to openly express differences and work through conflicts. Zoe's team is likely in the ______ stage.

a)

storming

b)

forming

c)

norming

d)

performing

3.

Giving employees authority and responsibility to make decisions about their work without traditional managerial approval and control means ______________.

a)

authority

b)

decision-making

c)

empowerment

d)

information sharing

4.

______ teams quickly achieve high levels of performance and consistently demonstrate high performance.

a)

Formal

b)

Cohesive

c)

Informal

d)

Virtual

5.

Research shows that teams achieve their best results with ____________ members:

a)

6 – 7

b)

2 – 3

c)

12 – 15

d)

10 – 12

6.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding team conflict?

a)

it helps team in achieving its goals

b)

It is bad for team performance

c)

It will be reduced if the team is diverse.

d)

It rarely occurs in most teams.

7.

Hamza's team has disagreement on the strategy for launching a new product. His team members are trying their best to overcome their differences to agree on a winning strategy. This type of conflict is called ________ conflict.

a)

internal

b)

affective

c)

cognitive

d)

external

8.

In a communication process, the person who writes an email message is called _________.

a)

receiver

b)

context

c)

grapevine

d)

sender

9.

Lisa works for an advertising agency and has presented her client with ideas for new commercials. After the presentation Lisa asks for ______ to determine if the clients correctly understood her message.

a)

a channel

b)

a decoded message

c)

less noise

d)

feedback

10.

Countries and cultures where explicit verbal and written messages are sent are called _________ culture.

a)

Rich culture

b)

Low-context culture

c)

High-context culture

d)

Medium-context culture

11.

A communication process is effective when

a)

a sophisticated communication channel is used.

b)

the communication channel is fast.

c)

the receiver understands the idea as has been intended by the sender.

d)

the language used is simple.

12.

Use of facial expressions and gestures are examples of __________ communication

a)

formal

b)

verbal

c)

nonverbal

d)

informal

13.

______ listening is the basis for effective communication.

a)

Polite

b)

Nonverbal

c)

Active

d)

Cynical

14.

Office memos are a form of _________ communication.

a)

informal

b)

verbal

c)

nonverbal

d)

written

15.

Giving feedback to top management about a recent company policy in a survey is called.

a)

Lateral communication

b)

matrix communication

c)

downward communication

d)

upward communication

16.

______ communication with customers should create goodwill and contribute to customer satisfaction.

a)

External

b)

Formal

c)

Every

d)

Written

17.

______ is the use of people and machinery to convert materials into finished goods or services.

a)

manufacturing

b)

production

c)

distribution

d)

marketing

18.

Which of the following are combined to result in mass production?

a)

mechanization, specialized labour, and standardization

b)

mechanization, specialized labour, and robots

c)

standardization, job-order production, and specialized labour

d)

analytic systems, synthetic systems, and continuous processes

d) mechanization, specialized labour, and standardization

19.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of assembly lines?

a)

It is inefficient for producing small batches.

b)

It moves the product along a conveyor belt past a number of workstations.

c)

Workers perform specialized tasks.

d)

It takes fewer hours to produce products.

20.

Grocery stores use scanners not only for faster check-out times, but as a tool to obtain merchandise sales data and create short-term forecasts. This system is known as ______ production.

a)

product-focused

b)

quality control

c)

customer-driven

d)

data marketing

21.

System for manufacturing products in large quantities by using effective combinations of employees with specialized skills, mechanization and standardization is called ____________ system

a)

Lean Production

b)

Cell Production

c)

Hybrid Production

d)

Mass-Production

22.

Engineers at Ford Motor Company use computers to build new car models in the virtual world before they are ever built in automobile plants. These engineers are using ______.

a)

computer-aided manufacturing

b)

computer-aided design

c)

computer-integrated manufacturing

d)

flexible manufacturing systems

23.

The process that enables manufacturers to use computers to analyze the steps a machine must take to produce a product or part is ______.

a)

computer integrated manufacturing

b)

computer-aided design

c)

computer-aided manufacturing

d)

The process that enables manufacturers to use computers to analyze the steps a machine must take to produce a product or part is ______.

24.

Yusted's company uses a computer to control its production process. The computer transmits signals to machines for performing the appropriate steps in the correct order. This is an example of ______.

a)

computer-integrated manufacturing

b)

computer-aided manufacturing

c)

flexible manufacturing

d)

computer-aided design

25.

Which type of company would be most interested in locating in an area close to its market?

a)

automobile manufacturers

b)

shipbuilding companies

c)

shipbuilding companies

d)

pharmaceutical companies

26.

The main reason for locating the manufacturing to offshore locations is _______________.

a)

Labor cost

b)

inexpensive energy

c)

Availability of technology

d)

Market opportunities

27.

Juan is a production manager. Which of the following tasks would Juan complete first?

a)

selecting the appropriate layout

b)

determining what products to produce

c)

planning the production process

d)

implementing the production process

28.

Which of the following layouts would be appropriate for manufacturers of bulky, heavy, or fragile products?

a)

process layout

b)

fixed-position layout

c)

customer-oriented layout

d)

product layout

29.

Which of the following would least likely be purchased on a long-term contractual basis?

a)

component parts for mass production

b)

office supplies purchased for a small office

c)

continuous supply products

d)

raw materials

30.

The critical path in a PERT chart represents the ______.

a)

areas of operations that require the least amount of technical support

b)

areas of operations that have abundant and extra time

c)

sequence of operations that requires the longest time for completion

d)

sequence of operations that involves outside suppliers

31.

______ chart tracks projected and actual work progress over time.

a)

Lead time

b)

PERT

c)

Gantt

d)

MRP II

32.

ISO 14000 certifies for

a)

product quality.

b)

government contract.

c)

improvements in environmental performance.

d)

quality improvement programs.

33.

Part of Vicky’s job as a production supervisor is to instruct each department on what work to do and the time in which they have to complete their work assignments. This part of her job is known as ______.

a)

routing

b)

dispatching

c)

scheduling

d)

planning

34.

Peter is a factory manager for Dell Computers and is conducting a visual inspection of component hardware and comparing against established quality standards. Peter is measuring ______.

a)

quality control

b)

benchmarking

c)

critical path

d)

production planning

35.

Elijah is a warehouse production manager and has been assigned a complex project that might result in lengthy delays. In order to coordinate all aspects of the production process, Elijah has created a(n) ______ chart.

a)

Gantt

b)

Pie

c)

PERT

d)

ISO

36.

One of the most important variables that determines how much a person saves is _____.

a)

the person’s age

b)

the person’s gender

c)

the person’s race

d)

what country he or she is from

37.

The difference between what you own and what you owe is called_____.

a)

gross worth

b)

net worth

c)

net value

d)

debt factor

38.

____ are short-term debt securities issued by governments, financial institutions, and corporations.

a)

Checks

b)

Bonds

c)

Stock

d)

Money market instrument

Bonds

39.

Government bonds are sold by _______________

a)

Canadian govt

b)

Commercial banks

c)

Credit unions

d)

Stock exchange

40.

The owner of this type of stock receives dividend payment before others.

a)

Common stock

b)

Standard Stock

c)

Preferred Stock

d)

Convertible securities

41.

When a company needs capital to purchase inventory, expand a plant, make major investments, acquire another firm, or pursue other business goals, it may sell a bond or stock issue to the investing public. This is done which market?

a)

Primary market

b)

Secondary market

c)

Government market

d)

Super market

42.

Previously issued securities are traded in _____________.

a)

primary market

b)

secondary market

c)

commodity market

d)

farmer's market

43.

Which is the most international stock market in the world?

a)

London Stock Exchange

b)

New York Stock Exchange

c)

Paris Stock Exchange

d)

Tokyo Stock Exchange

44.

According to a recent survey _________________ were the highest users of Internet banking.

a)

Americans

b)

Germans

c)

The Swiss

d)

Canadians

45.

____________ is the interest rate at which the Bank of Canada gives short term loans to member banks.

a)

federal funds rate

b)

margin rate

c)

discount rate

d)

reserve requirement

46.

Regulation of the federally chartered commercial banks is the responsibility of ___________________

a)

Federal Reserve Bank

b)

The Bank of Canada

c)

TSX

d)

Federal Comptroller

47.

The financial manager for a typical corporation is responsible for ________.

a)

designing the accounting system

b)

determining the most appropriate sources and uses of funds

c)

gathering, recording, and reporting financial information

d)

preparing operating budgets for various departments

48.

______________ has the direct responsibility for shareholder relations.?

a)

Chief Financial Officer

b)

Chief Executive Officer

c)

Treasurer

d)

Controller

49.

Financial risk is the

a)

possibility that an investment will lose money.

b)

possibility that an investment will earn a negative return.

c)

the uncertainty regarding the gain or loss from an investment

d)

the possibility that an investment's actual return will be less than its expected return

50.

A document that specifies the funds a firm will need for a period of time, the timing of inflows and outflows, and the most appropriate sources and uses of funds is called a ______________.

a)

budget

b)

financial plan

c)

strategic plan

d)

asset management plan

51.

A(n) ___________ that is short-term in nature can also be called an operating plan.

a)

budget

b)

asset intensity

c)

stock offering

d)

financial plan

52.

_____ are investment companies that raise funds from wealthy individuals and institutional investors and use the funds to make investments in both public and private companies.

a)

Venture capitalists

b)

Private placements

c)

Hedge funds

d)

Private equity funds

53.

A transaction in which one company buys another company is called _____________

a)

merger

b)

alliance

c)

take-over

d)

acquisition

54.

Leverage ________ the return to shareholders and ________ the risk of their investment.

a)

lowers; increases

b)

lowers; lowers

c)

increases, increases

d)

increases, lowers

55.

Bombardier needs to raise funds to buy new production equipment. The financial manager would probably suggest that his company raise debt capital by ________.

a)

borrowing money from a financial institution

b)

selling stocks

c)

selling marketable securities

d)

using accumulated earnings