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Cardiac Rehab (week 10)

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 20hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The heart has ventricles and the atrium. Blood comes from the lungs and into the left atrium where it then reaches the ____, the big powerhouse that pumps it out to the rest of the body.

a)

Right atrium

b)

Right ventricle

c)

Left ventricle

d)

Left sinus node

2.

The heart has to have blood supply to keep going. This blood supply is provided by the ______

a)

Left atrium

b)

Coronary arteries

c)

All of the major veins

d)

Supracava vein

3.

Coronary arteries are divided into the ____ and _____ arteries

a)

Up coronary artery and down coronary artery

b)

Inside coronary artery and outside coronary artery

c)

Left coronary artery and right coronary artery

d)

Front coronary artery and back coronary artery

4.

If there is damage to the _____, an inferior MI will occur. This is because the back inferior wall of the left ventricle is affected.

a)

Lower coronary artery

b)

Right coronary artery

c)

Left coronary artery

d)

Upper coronary artery

5.

The ______ branches into the anterior descending branch and the circumflex branch.

a)

Lower coronary artery

b)

Right coronary artery

c)

Left coronary artery

d)

Upper coronary artery

6.

Damage to the ______ leads to damage in the descending ventricle of the heart

a)

Lower coronary artery

b)

Left coronary artery

c)

Right coronary artery

d)

Upper coronary artery

7.

An inferior MI causes damage to:

a)

Front of left ventricle

b)

Back left ventricle

c)

Bottom left ventricle

d)

Lateral wall of the heart

8.

A lateral MI causes damage to

a)

The lateral wall of the heart

b)

Back left ventricle

c)

Bottom left ventricle

d)

Front of left ventricle

9.

An anterior MI causes damage to:

a)

Bottom left ventricle

b)

Front of left ventricle

c)

Lateral wall of the heart

d)

Back left ventricle

10.

____ is used to measure the electrical activity of the heart

a)

EEG

b)

EFG

c)

EKG

d)

EEC

11.

The P Wave is the first part of an EKG. The P wave looks at_____

a)

How the atrium is contracting

b)

How the ventricles are contracting

c)

How the arteries are pumping blood

d)

How the veins are functioning

12.

After the P-wave, the next component of the EKG is the QRS complex. The QRS complex looks at

a)

How the ventricles are contracting

b)

How the atrium is contracting

c)

How the veins are functioning

d)

How the arteries are pumping blood

13.

After the QRS complex, the next stage of an EKG is the T part. This T-part indicates

a)

The reflection of the heart

b)

The repolarization of the heart

c)

The refraction of the heart

d)

The depolarization of the heart

14.

True or False: A heart attack will change how an EKG appears

a)

True

b)

False

15.

There are ___ types of heart attacks

a)

2

b)

5

c)

6

d)

90

16.

Which of the following indicates the different types of heart attacks?

a)

QRS

b)

P

c)

STEMI

d)

Non-STEMI

17.

In this kind of heart attack, all three layers of the heart are damaged. As a result, there is a new "Q" added to the EKG

a)

P

b)

RS

c)

STEMI

d)

Non-STEMI

18.

In this kind of heart attack, there is no cardiac damage. As a result, it is not considered significant and usually results in no changes to the EKG.

a)

STEMI

b)

P

c)

Non-STEMI

d)

QRS

19.

Before taking blood pressure, it is ideal to rest for _____

a)

2 days

b)

30 minutes

c)

15 minutes

d)

95 minutes

20.

Normal blood pressure should be at or less than

a)

120/80

b)

160/50

c)

90/75

d)

185/95

21.

A very common condition, _____ means that the heart pump is not as effective as it should be.

a)

QRS complex

b)

Congestive heart failure

c)

Coronary artery disease

d)

STEMI

22.

Congestive heart failure is caused by

a)

Too much exercise

b)

Coronary artery disease

c)

Being underweight

d)

Kidney stones

23.

Signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure include

a)

Excess fluid (edema)

b)

Sudden weight gain

c)

Fatigue and shortness of breath

d)

Swelling in ankles and feet

e)

Persistent dry hacking cough

24.

Elevated _____ are a tell-tale sign that a patient has experienced a MI

a)

Temperatures

b)

Enzymes

c)

Blood pressures

d)

Heart rates

25.

Patients will have blood drawn to measure their _____ levels and _____ levels. This is done to see whether a MI has occured, and how severe it was.

a)

Liver

b)

Troponin

c)

Dopamine

d)

CPK

26.

After a heart attack, _____ proteins rise within 3-6 hours and stay elevated for up to 14 days.

a)

Troponin

b)

CPK

c)

BNP

d)

Pro-BNP

27.

One of the enzymes used to measure the presence of a heart attack, _____ shows up within 6 hours, and peaks within 24 hours

a)

Troponin

b)

CPK

c)

BNP

d)

Pro-BNP

28.

Which of the following neurohormones are used to diagnose congestive heart failure?

a)

BNP and Pro-BNP

b)

Troponin

c)

CPK

d)

Dopamine

29.

Conducted before and after a treadmill test, a ______ is performed to see how hard the body is pumping blood.

a)

Troponin-Activator Test

b)

Stress Echocardiogram (ECHO)

c)

BNP

d)

Pro-BNP

30.

A score of 60% of better on an ECHO indicates

a)

Normal heart functioning

b)

Mildly impaired heart functioning

c)

Moderately impaired heart functioning

d)

Significantly impaired heart functioning

31.

A score of 50%-59% on the ECHO indicates

a)

Normal heart

b)

The heart is mildly impaired

c)

The heart is moderately impaired

d)

The heart is significantly impaired

32.

A score of 40 % or less on the ECHO indicates

a)

Normal heart

b)

The heart is mildly impaired

c)

The heart is moderately impaired

d)

The heart is significantly impaired

33.

This kind of test allows doctors to see how hard the heart is pumping during activities by pumping an injection (of a radioactive isotope) into the heart after use of a treadmill

a)

BNP

b)

Nuclear stress test

c)

Stress Echocardiogram (ECHO)

d)

Transesophageal Echo

34.

A ____ is the most definitive test for coronary artery disease. It involves the use of a catheter and a dye.

a)

Blood test

b)

Coronary angiography

c)

Stress Echocardiogram (ECHO)

d)

Nuclear Stress Test

35.

Performed by probing the esophagus, the ____ can evaluate cardiac structures, valves, tumors, atrial septal defects, congenital abnormalities

a)

Blood test

b)

Stress Echocardiograph (ECHO)

c)

Nuclear stress test

d)

Transesophageal Echo

36.

The coronary angiography is inserted into the _____ and is pushed up to the coronaries of the heart. A stent or "roto rooter" can accompany it to cut plaque, and leave the stent in.

a)

Middle cerebral artery

b)

Tibial artery

c)

Femoral artery

d)

Brachial artery

37.

_____ are diseases of the heart muscle. There are 3 known types.

a)

Cardiobrachial

b)

Cardiomyopathy

c)

Cardiographs

d)

Cardioencephalic

38.

One form of cardiomyopathy, the _____ type is due to an enlarged left ventricle. It is the most common type of cardiomyopathy.

a)

Plain

b)

Dilated

c)

Hypertrophic

d)

Restrictive

39.

One type of cardiomyopathy, the ____ type is due to abnormal thickening of heart muscle. It can develop at any age, but is more severe if it occurs during childhood.

a)

Dilated

b)

Restrictive

c)

Mediated

d)

Hypertrophic

40.

Which of the following can cause dilated cardiomyopathy?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Viruses

c)

Coronary artery disease

d)

MI

41.

One type of cardiomyopathy, the ____ type occurs when the heart muscle is rigid and less elastic. It can't expand very well to get good pump contraction, leading to lowered heart functioning.

a)

Refund

b)

Restrictive

c)

Dilated

d)

Hypertrophic

42.

Causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy include

a)

Diabetes

b)

Idiopathic (random, unknown) causes

c)

Excess iron built up in heart muscle

d)

Dehydration

43.

____ is the first choice is cardiac interventions. It helps open up ventricles to allow blood to get through.

a)

Artherectomy

b)

Nitroglycerin

c)

Angioplasty

d)

Open Heart Surgery

44.

Also known as a percutaneous coronary intervention, the _____ is done by entering the femoral vein and unclogging whatever can be unclogged from there.

a)

Nitroglycerin

b)

Angioplasty

c)

Artherectomy

d)

Open Heart Surgery

45.

Often performed with an angioplasty, an _____ involves the use of a rotated blade that cuts out plaque. It is usually followed immediately by a placement of a stent to keep the artery open.

a)

Nitroglycerin

b)

CABG

c)

Arthrectomy

d)

Open Heart Surgery

46.

True or False: There are usually better outcomes when stents are placed than in cases when they are not.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Usually done as a last resort, _____ is done to replace heart vessels and valves. (It is appreviated as "CABG)

a)

Open Heart Surgery

b)

Arthrectomy

c)

Angioplasty

d)

Nitroglycerin

48.

____ are objective measurements that are seen or read by another person.

a)

Signs

b)

Symptoms

c)

Objects

d)

Glances

49.

____ can only be described by the person feeling them

a)

Signs

b)

Symptoms

c)

Glances

d)

Hints

50.

Examples of vital signs include

a)

Heart Rate

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Respiration rate

d)

Feelings of pain, pressure, or dizziness

51.

"Patient is itchy" is an example of

a)

Sign

b)

Symptom

52.

"Patient scratches his/her arm" is an example of

a)

Sign

b)

Symptom

53.

"Patient is nauseated" is a

a)

Sign

b)

Symptom

54.

"Patient throws up on the floor" is

a)

A sign

b)

A symptom

55.

OT's role in cardiac rehabilitation include

a)

Modifying ADLs

b)

Psychosocial adjustment

c)

Improving functional activity tolerance

d)

Education & energy conservation techniques

e)

Gait training

56.

As part of a patient's sternal precautions, it is not recommend that they bend, twist, or lift anything more than ____ to ____ pounds for 6 to 12 weeks.

a)

50 to 55

b)

8 to 10

c)

1 to 2

d)

15 to 20

57.

As part of a patient's sternal precautions, they should not use their _____ when getting in and out of bed or up and down from a chair.

a)

Legs

b)

Fingers

c)

Trunk

d)

Arms

58.

Which of the following is true about a patient's sternal precautions?

a)

No one sided pulling

b)

No bending, lifting, or twisting

c)

No MMT, or overhead ROM. (Don't bring elbows above shoulders)

d)

No sexual activity for at least 6 weeks to 8 weeks.

e)

Hugging a pillow is recommended when coughing, for pain, and to re-learn how to hold onto to things

59.

True or False: Everyday that a person is in bed, their muscles continue to atrophy.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Cardiac rehabilitation in in-patient begins within _______

a)

7 to 14 days

b)

72-120 hours

c)

24-48 hours

d)

5 to 10 days

61.

Which of the following are specifically monitored during cardiac rehabilitation?

a)

Symptoms

b)

Exercise EKG

c)

BP

d)

Heart Rate

e)

Color of patient's distal extremities

62.

When a patient is discharged from cardiac rehabilitation, they are provided with a home program. Which of the following are elements of the home program?

a)

Activity and exercise guidelines

b)

Work simplification

c)

Pacing

d)

Signs/symptoms of exercise intolerance

e)

Sexuality

63.

Which of the following is our maximum heart rate?

a)

350

b)

220

c)

180

d)

200

64.

Which of the following is the equation to find our maximum age adjusted heart rate (MAHR)

a)

350 - age

b)

100- age

c)

220-age

d)

280 - age

65.

Which of the following is the formula for exercise heart range?

a)

1% - 10 % of MAHR (maximum age adjusted heart rate)

b)

90 - 95% of MAHR (maximum age adjusted heart rate)

c)

50 - 85% of MAHR (maximum age adjusted heart rate)

d)

40 - 49% of MAHR (maximum age adjusted heart rate)

66.

A measure of blood pressure, the ______ is the measurement of our workload or oxygen demand.

a)

MAHR (maximum age adjusted heart rate)

b)

EHR (Exercise heart range)

c)

CPB (cardio pressure balance)

d)

RPP (rate pressure product)

67.

Which of the following is the formula to determine rate pressure product (RPP)?

a)

50 - 85 % of 220

b)

220 - age

c)

BP x 220

d)

HR x SBP (systolic blood pressure)

68.

A person's blood pressure should rise at peak exertion and return to baseline after ____ to ___ minutes of rest.

a)

1 to 2

b)

15 to 20

c)

30 to 45

d)

5 to 10

69.

The Borg Rating of Perceived Exertion Scale (RPE) uses a 6 to 20 scale. 6 means no exertion, while 20 means _____

a)

Maximal exertion

b)

Cardiac arrest

c)

Minimal exertion

d)

Moderate exertion

70.

True or False: The BORG (Borg Rating of Perceived Exertion Scale or RPE) allows patients to know their own exertion while monitoring exercise tolerance.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

True or False: If a patient indicates a score of 19 or 20 on the BERG, it indicates that he or she feels that they are about to pass out and cannot continue with exercise.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

A unit of measure of metabolic equivalents, the _____ focuses on the amount of oxygen that the body needs to perform an activity.

a)

RPMs

b)

BORGs

c)

METs

d)

RPEs

73.

The more the body moves and has to work against resistance, the _____ the MET level will be.

a)

Less

b)

Higher

c)

Lower

d)

Softer

74.

A score of 6 to 11 on the Perceived Rate of exertion indicates very light activities, including which of the following?

a)

Sleeping

b)

Riding in a car

c)

Reading a book

d)

Anything that makes them short of breath

e)

Sitting at a computer

75.

Which of the following are primary symptoms of COPD?

a)

Dysphagia

b)

Cough

c)

Dyspnea

d)

Fatigue

76.

Which of the following are activities that can be challenging to patients with COPD?

a)

Eating

b)

Basic ADLs

c)

Leisure Activities

d)

Sleeping

77.

When we ____, we have to hold our breath. As a result, eating is really challenging for people with COPD. They are gasping for breath all the time. As a result, they need to work on strategies to improve their _____.

a)

Chew

b)

Swallow

c)

Taste

d)

Breathe

78.

Improving functional endurance by teaching breathing techniques during ADLs is part of ______

a)

Pulmonary rehabilitation

b)

Cardiac rehabilitation

c)

Muscular rehabilitation

d)

Skeletal rehabilitation

79.

Which of the following are components of pulmonary OT rehabilitation?

a)

Work simplification

b)

Energy conservation

c)

Providing adaptive equipment for leisure and daily tasks

d)

Stress management and relaxation techniques

e)

UE strengthening to treat UE weakness caused by age, hypoxia and steroids

80.

Sometimes, some patients try to use their ______ muscles for breathing. This is problematic because breathing like this does not let their upper arms to be available for functional use

a)

Scapula muscles

b)

Clavicle muscles

c)

Shoulder girdle muscles

d)

Trapezius muscles

81.

Which of the following are some breathing techniques for someone with COPD?

a)

Postures to control dyspnea

b)

Pursed lip breathing

c)

Diaphragmatic breathing active expiration

d)

Relaxation

e)

Mental practice (progressive muscle relaxation)