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Earth Science 1st Semester Exams

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of these is an OBSERVATION?

a)

Hobbes is enjoying a good nap

b)

Hobbes has his feet in the air

c)

Both

d)

Neither

2.

Which of the following is an INFERENCE?

a)

Calvin would like to wake up Hobbes

b)

Calvin envies Hobbes' ability to nap

c)

Both

d)

Neither

3.

What is the study of meteors and comets?

a)

Astronomy

b)

Geology

c)

Meteorology

d)

Rockology

4.

The study of the physical properties of the sea is called...?

a)

Rockology

b)

Seascape

c)

Oceanography

d)

Geology

5.

Once a scientific relationship has been proven many times and is not proved wrong it becomes a(n)...?

a)

Hypothesis

b)

Mega-theory

c)

Law

d)

Conclusion

6.

A tornado has been spotted. Which type of earth scientists will be on the TV?

a)

Astronomer

b)

Geologist

c)

Meteorologist

d)

Oceanographer

7.

Which of the following BEST explains the nature of science?

a)

Experimentation gives us the right answer

b)

More evidence gets us closer to the truth

c)

A collection of facts

d)

A series of hypotheses

8.

If a scientific law is proved wrong:

a)

The law breaker is put in jail

b)

Nothing, it was just an educated guess

c)

The law must be changed

d)

The new evidence is mixed in with all the other facts

9.

Which of the following is true about density?

a)

More dense things float

b)

Density is equal to mass

c)

Density is a mass to size ratio

d)

All of these are true

10.

The point in the earth's orbit when it is farthest from the sun

a)

Apogee

b)

Aphelion

c)

Perihelion

d)

Perigee

11.

Day and night is caused by the earth's ---

a)

Rotation

b)

Revolution

c)

Atmosphere

d)

Magnetosphere

12.

When a satellite views the whole earth as it travels north to south, it is in a --- orbit

a)

Revolutional

b)

Geosynchronous

c)

Polar

d)

Rotational

13.

The day in September that the sun shines directly on the equator is called --

a)

Vernal equinox

b)

Summer solstice

c)

Winter solstice

d)

Autumnal equinox

14.

What do we call the part of earth made up of gases?

a)

Magnetosphere

b)

Revolution

c)

Rotation

d)

Atmosphere

15.

The solid part of earth

a)

Aquasphere

b)

Geosphere

c)

Magnetosphere

d)

Atmosphere

16.

The time when an extra day is added to equal out the 0.24 days in the Earth's rotation

a)

Leap year

b)

February

c)

Jump year

d)

Hop year

17.

The day with the most daylight hours

a)

Autumnal equinox

b)

Winter solstice

c)

Summer solstice

d)

Vernal equinox

18.

The point in the moon's orbit when it is closest to the sun

a)

Apogee

b)

Perigee

c)

Aphelion

d)

Perihelion

19.

The day when the sun shines directly on the Tropic of Capricorn

a)

Winter solstice

b)

Vernal equinox

c)

Leap year

d)

Summer solstice

20.

The earth's circumference is smallest if measured around the:

a)

Equator

b)

Poles

c)

Oceans

d)

It is the same all ways

21.

During daylight savings time...?

a)

The sun shines directly on the equator

b)

We get an extra hour a day

c)

We shift the time when daylight hours occur

d)

We get an extra hour of daylight

22.

The earth's magnetosphere is not symmetrical because:

a)

The solar wind stretches it towards the sun

b)

The solar wind stretches it away from the sun

c)

The north pole is more magnetic than the sun

d)

The south pole is more magnetic than the north pole

23.

Seasons are caused by the earth's...?

a)

Constant tilt and rotation

b)

Constant tilt and revolution

c)

Changing tilt and rotation

d)

Changing tilt and revolution

24.

In what month is the earth farthest from the sun?

a)

January

b)

March

c)

July

d)

September

25.

The area of the earth that gets at least one day of direct sunlight per year is:

a)

The equinoxes

b)

The solstices

c)

The tropics

d)

The whole earth

26.

The structure of the interior of the earth was determined by:

a)

Drilling deep wells

b)

Radio waves

c)

Spectroscope

d)

Seismic waves

27.

Which of the following is true about weight?

a)

It is constant at all locations

b)

It varies with altitude

c)

It varies with the solar wind

d)

None of these are true

28.

Which type of seismic wave can ONLY travel through solids?

a)

P

b)

S

c)

Both

d)

Neither

29.

Summer occurs because a part of the earth:

a)

Is closer to the sun

b)

Has more direct rays

c)

Both

d)

Neither

30.

The stress that involves pulling rocks apart

a)

Compression

b)

Shearing

c)

Tension

d)

None of these

31.

Cool rocks are more likely to ----- when subjected to compression

a)

Wear sunglasses

b)

Fold

c)

Fault

d)

Diverge

32.

Oceanic crust is more likely to subduct than continental crust because oceanic crust is:

a)

More dense

b)

Less dense

c)

More gas rich

d)

More likely to undergo convection

33.

When all the land was joined we had one big OCEAN which Wegener called:

a)

Great Sea

b)

Panthalassa

c)

Pangea

d)

Pandamonium

34.

The surface between two fault blocks along which movement occurs is called:

a)

A fault plane

b)

A strike

c)

A footwall

d)

A subduction zone

35.

Which letter indicates the footwall in this diagram?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

36.

Scientists think that the convection currents that are responsible for the movement of lithospheric plates are found in the:

a)

Lithosphere

b)

Asthenosphere

c)

Continents

d)

Oceans

37.

Paleomagnetic data can be used:

a)

As evidence of seafloor spreading

b)

To determine past positions of continents

c)

To show the position of magnetic north at different times

d)

All of the above

38.

Which is a thrust fault?

a)
b)
c)
d)
39.

Which is a normal fault?

a)
b)
c)
40.

The direction of the imaginary line where a fault plane intersects the earth's surface is called the:

a)

Strain

b)

Stress

c)

Linearity

d)

Strike

41.

The change in the size and/or shape of rocks due to applied pressure is called:

a)

Strike

b)

Strain

c)

Stress

d)

Linearity

42.

The sketch shows rock layers in which of the following fold types?

a)

Anticline

b)

Syncline

c)

Monocline

d)

Anyolecline

43.

Which of the following would cause continental crust to sink?

a)

Mountain building

b)

Erosion

c)

Glaciers melting

d)

All of these

44.

If the earth is not getting bigger and new material is being added to the crust at one boundary, what must be happening at another?

a)

Material is being ejected into outer space

b)

Material is sinking back into the mantle

c)

Material is floating on the ocean

d)

People are using the extra rock for buildings

45.

Folds tend to occur:

a)

Near the surface because rocks are hotter

b)

Near the surface because rocks are colder

c)

Deep in the earth because rocks are hotter

d)

Deep in the earth because rocks are colder

46.

What type of mountain is formed when magma pushes up but does not erupt onto the surface?

a)

Folded

b)

Volcanic

c)

Dome

d)

Fault block

47.

High flat land pushed upward but not close enough to a plate boundary to be folded by plate collisions is called a(n):

a)

Panthalassa

b)

Graben

c)

Plateau

d)

Island arc

48.

The Himalayan Mountains are an example of a convergent boundary with ----- crust.

a)

2 oceanic

b)

2 continental

c)

One of each

d)

Convectional

49.

The Mid Atlantic Ridge is an example of a ------- boundary.

a)

Transform fault

b)

Isostatic

c)

Convergent

d)

Divergent

50.

Convection occurs because heated material becomes

a)

More dense and rises

b)

More dense and sinks

c)

Less dense and rises

d)

Less dense and sinks

51.

A scientific theory is:

a)

Similar to a hypothesis

b)

Your best guess

c)

Supported by a great deal of evidence

d)

All of these

52.

Seafloor spreading occurs as magma rises at ----- boundaries

a)

Transform fault

b)

Isostatic

c)

Convergent

d)

Divergent

53.

What type of mountain is formed when chunks of rock are shifted and uplifted?

a)

Folded

b)

Volcanic

c)

Dome

d)

Fault block

54.

Volcanism occurs in Hawaii because:

a)

Of subduction

b)

Of hotspots

c)

Of earthquakes

d)

It's on a divergent boundary

55.

Which of the following natural disasters of occurs with the least warning?

a)

Earthquakes

b)

Hurricanes

c)

Volcanic eruptions

d)

None of these can be predicted

56.

Subduction causes melting because of:

a)

Gravity

b)

Meteorites

c)

Entering hot mantle

d)

All of these

57.

During an earthquake you should:

a)

Stand near a window to watch it happen

b)

Get in the corner or doorway

c)

Call your family and friends to warn them

d)

All of these are good ideas

58.

Dark colored lava is also called

a)

AA

b)

Felsic

c)

Mafic

d)

Pyroclastic

59.

Earthquakes tend to occur at – – – boundaries

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform fault

d)

All of these

60.

When a solid rock erupts on the surface it is a liquid known as:

a)

Lava

b)

Volcano juice

c)

Pyroclastic material

d)

Magma

61.

While exploring the volcano that has been dormant you observed volcanic lapilli first and ash later. You are therefore most likely to be moving––––– the volcano

a)

Towards

b)

Away from

c)

Inside

d)

Impossible to tell

62.

Some attempt is made to predict earthquakes using information about:

a)

Nervous chickens

b)

Gases released from the rock

c)

The area's past history

d)

All of these

63.

The elastic rebound theory states that as rock becomes stressed, it first

a)

Shifts position

b)

Breaks

c)

Deforms

d)

Melts

64.

Lock tubes are formed when:

a)

Rock on the surface hardens but lava keeps flowing inside

b)

Lava boils seawater

c)

Fresh lava cracks open a crust under water

d)

All of these are ways

65.

A large seismic sea wave is called a:

a)

S wave

b)

P wave

c)

Tsunami

d)

None of these

66.

The point along a fault where the slippage of the earthquake begins is called the

a)

Seismic gap

b)

Surface wave

c)

Epicenter

d)

Focus

67.

Olympus Mons is the tallest volcano in the solar system because:

a)

It is heated by scratching due to gravity

b)

It does not move off its hotspot

c)

It is heated by a meteorite bombardment

d)

It mainly erupts sulfur and sulfur dioxide

68.

Earthquakes do not occur, in general, at depths below 650 km because:

a)

Nothing can move at that depth

b)

High heat and pressure makes the rocks flexible

c)

Seismographs cannot record earthquakes that deep

d)

All of these are true

69.

The type of earthquake that the most damage is:

a)

Shallow focus

b)

Deep focus

c)

Intermediate focus

d)

All do the same amount of damage

70.

The depression that results when a cone collapses into an empty magma chamber is a:

a)

Caldera

b)

Fissure

c)

Crater

d)

Vent

71.

Factors that allow magma to push its way upward include temperature and:

a)

Crust

b)

Thickness

c)

Color

d)

Density

72.

Explosive volcanoes tend to contain large amounts of:

a)

Iron

b)

Gas

c)

Magnesium

d)

All of these

73.

Most magma reaches the surface at:

a)

Hot spots

b)

Continental crust collisions

c)

Mid-ocean ridges

d)

Transform fault boundaries

74.

Areas of volcanism within lithospheric plates not at plate boundaries are known as:

a)

Island arcs

b)

Hot spots

c)

Mid-ocean ridges

d)

Subduction zones

75.

Lava with a wrinkled, ropey surface that forms when mafic lava hardens is known as:

a)

Tephra

b)

Lapilli

c)

Aa

d)

Pahoehoe

76.

A stratovolcano is also called a ---- cone.

a)

Cinder

b)

Composite

c)

Lava

d)

Shield

77.

The easiest way to distinguish between volcanic ash and volcanic dust is to compare their:

a)

Size

b)

Density

c)

Color

d)

Weight

78.

The heat that causes the melting of the Moon's interior is probably generated by:

a)

Friction from stretching due to gravitational attraction

b)

Constant meteorite bombardment

c)

Solar radiation

d)

Plate tectonic activity

79.

According to the elastic rebound theory, after an earthquake, the rocks on either side of a fault are in:

a)

A new shape and position

b)

A new shape but the same position

c)

The same shape and position

d)

A new position but the same shape

80.

The point on the earth's surface directly above the focus is the:

a)

Epicenter

b)

Focus

c)

Seismic gap

d)

Surface wave

81.

The ratio of the mass of a mineral to its volume (how heavy it is for its size) is the mineral's

a)

Atomic weight

b)

Luster

c)

Streak

d)

Density

82.

color is not a reliable clue to the identity of a mineral because:

a)

the same mineral can be more than one color

b)

weathered surfaces can distort the color

c)

different minerals can be the same color

d)

all of these are reasons

83.

which of the following groups of nonsilicates are also known as salts?

a)

anhydrides

b)

halides

c)

carbonates

d)

sulfides

84.

Which of the following groups of non-silicates are also known as salts?

a)

Anhydrides

b)

Halides

c)

Carbonates

d)

Sulfides

85.

Which of the following types of silicates has the tetrahedrons arranged in a line?

a)

Double chain

b)

Network

c)

Sheet

d)

Single chain

e)

Ionic

86.

All silicates, carbonates, and sulfates contain:

a)

Feldspar

b)

Oxygen

c)

Quartz

d)

Tetrahedrons

e)

Silicon

87.

Which of the following minerals could scratch corundum?

a)

Apatite

b)

Fluorite

c)

Calcite

d)

None of the above

88.

The two most common minerals in the earth's crust are quartz and...?

a)

Feldspar

b)

Biotite

c)

Calcite

d)

Diamond

e)

Hematite

89.

Which of the following is NOT part of the definition of a mineral?

a)

Naturally occurring

b)

Organic

c)

Solid

d)

All of these are part of the definition

90.

Some crystals like calcite split light so much that one dot looks like two. This is called:

a)

Double refraction

b)

Fluorescence

c)

Luster

d)

Streak

91.

The tendency to glow under ultraviolet light is called:

a)

Double refraction

b)

Fluorescence

c)

Luster

d)

Streak

92.

When a mineral does NOT break in straight lines it is said to have:

a)

Fracture

b)

Streak

c)

Cleavage

93.

The color of the powdered form of a mineral is:

a)

Double refraction

b)

Fluorescence

c)

Luster

d)

Streak

94.

The appearance of the light reflected from the surface of a mineral is called:

a)

Double refraction

b)

Fluorescence

c)

Luster

d)

Streak

95.

The splitting of slate into flat layers illustrates its:

a)

Composition

b)

Sedimentation

c)

Formation

d)

Foliation

96.

The changes during which rock changes from one type to another and back again is called:

a)

A rock family

b)

A rock cycle

c)

Foliation

d)

None of these

97.

Which of the following is an organic sedimentary rock?

a)

Basalt

b)

Coal

c)

Conglomerate

d)

Sandstone

98.

Magma that solidifies underground forms rock masses known as:

a)

Extrusions

b)

Intrusions

c)

Plateaus

d)

Necks

99.

Rock that is formed from magma is called:

a)

Clastic

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

d)

Sedimentary

100.

What rock is formed by the metamorphism of sandstone?

a)

Granite

b)

Quartzite

c)

Marble

d)

Gneiss

101.

What is formed when water deposits minerals in holes in existing rocks?

a)

Fossils

b)

Foliations

c)

Geodes

d)

Intrusions

102.

Which type of metamorphism occurs due to plate tectonic activity over a large area?

a)

Extrusive

b)

Foliated

c)

Contact

d)

Regional

103.

Large crystals form in igneous rocks when they cool:

a)

Quickly because they form underground

b)

Slowly because they form underground

c)

Quickly because they form above ground

d)

Slowly because they form above ground

104.

Sedimentary rocks that form from rock fragments are called:

a)

Organic

b)

Chemical

c)

Clastic

d)

Felsic

105.

Which of the following rock types could form from a metamorphic rock?

a)

Igneous

b)

Metamorphic

c)

Sedimentary

d)

Any of these

106.

When metamorphic rocks have layers they are said to have:

a)

Cleavage

b)

Foliation

c)

Stratification

d)

None of these

107.

What type of rock forms when existing rock is changed by heat, pressure, or chemical reaction?

a)

Igneous

b)

Metamorphic

c)

Sedimentary

d)

Impossible to tell

108.

Which rock type is most likely to contain fossils?

a)

Igneous

b)

Metamorphic

c)

Sedimentary

d)

All of them

109.

Which type of rock forms from pieces of other rock?

a)

Igneous

b)

Metamorphic

c)

Sedimentary

110.

When schist is exposed to heat and pressure but does not melt, it may change to:

a)

Sandstone

b)

Basalt

c)

Gabbro

d)

Gneiss

111.

Sedimentary rocks that form from minerals that were once dissolved in water are known as ----- sedimentary rocks.

a)

Chemical

b)

Clastic

c)

Organic

d)

Wet

112.

What rock is also known as volcanic glass?

a)

Granite

b)

Gabbro

c)

Obsidian

d)

Marble

113.

What type of rock forms when magma begins to crystallize underground, then erupts and finishes crystallizing?

a)

Pumice

b)

Limestone

c)

Gneiss

d)

Porphyry

114.

Coquina is the rock that makes up the fort in St. Augustine, Florida. What is it made of?

a)

Pebbles

b)

Basalt

c)

Ripple marks

d)

Seashells

115.

The remains or traces of ancient plants and animals are called:

a)

Artifacts

b)

Fossils

c)

Clastics

d)

Geodes