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Biology 1 Spring 2019 Final Exam Review

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 4hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many independent variable(s) should there be in an experiment?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

As many as possible

d)

One per constant

2.

All organic compounds contain ______________ because it can make a maximum of _______________ covalent bonds with other atoms.

a)

ATP, 3

b)

Carbon, 4

c)

Proteins, 2

d)

Nitrogen, 3

3.

Which of the four macromolecules provides a short-term supply of energy and carbon?

a)

Lipids

b)

Nucleic Acids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Proteins

4.

Where is the active site in this diagram?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

5.

After an enzyme has catalyzed a chemical reaction

a)

it cannot be reused

b)

it has been duplicated

c)

it can be reused

d)

it is denatured

6.

Which of the following are found in animal cells, but not plant cells

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Bacteria

d)

Centrioles

7.

Prokaryotic cells do not have

a)

membrane bound organelles

b)

genetic material

c)

proteins

d)

ribosomes

8.

During diffusion, molecules move

a)

by active transport

b)

from high concentration, to low concentration

c)

from low concentration, to high concnentration

d)

through pumps in the phospholipid bilayer

9.

Which of the following is not a component of the cell theory?

a)

living things are made up of one or more cells

b)

all cells have a nucleus

c)

cells arise from pre-existing cells

d)

cells are the basic unit of structure and function

10.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the cell membrane?

a)

Selective Permeability

b)

Bilayer

c)

Allows all large non-polar molecules to pass through it

d)

Contains phospholipids, cholesterol and proteins

11.

When placed in a hypotonic solution, a cells volume will

a)

stay the same

b)

swell

c)

shrink

d)

none of the above

12.

a net movement of molecules from one solution to another will continue until

a)

one solution is hypotonic to the other

b)

one solution is hypertonic to the other

c)

the solutions are isotonic

d)

the molecules explode

13.

Most multicellular organisms require aerobic respiration because

a)

it produces the most lactic acid

b)

it produces the most pyruvate

c)

it produces the most glucose

d)

it produces the most ATP

14.

How do autotrophs make their own food?

a)

Converting organic molecules into inorganic molecules

b)

Converting light energy into chemical energy

c)

They eat other organisms

d)

They use ATP to make DNA

15.

Plant produce glucose in their ______________, which is then used during cellular respiration in the __________________ to make ATP.

a)

chloroplasts, mitochondria

b)

mitochondria, chlorplasts

c)

cell wall, centriole

d)

Krebs Cycle, Calvin Cycle

16.

The first step of photosynthesis is

a)

the splitting of water

b)

chlorophyll trapping sunlight

c)

carbon fixation

d)

production of glucose

17.

Energy is released from ATP when

a)

The Adenine is broken off

b)

The chemical bond holding the third phosphate is formed

c)

the chemical bond holding the third phosphate is broken

d)

Cellular respiration is complete

18.

Which process requires carbon dioxide and water as reactants?

a)

Cellular respiration

b)

Fermentation

c)

Glycolysis

d)

Photosynthesis

19.

Where does the glucose needed to convert ADP to ATP in animal cells ultimately come from?

a)

Cellular Respiration in plants

b)

Photosynthesis in plants

c)

Lactic Acid Fermentation

d)

Glycolysis

20.

Before cell division, genetic material must first be

a)

replicated

b)

condensed

c)

refurbished

d)

reduced

21.

Asexual reproduction requires ___________, while sexual reproduction requires _____________.

a)

two parents, one parent

b)

binary fission, cloning

c)

genetically diverse offspring, genetically identical offspring

d)

one parent, two parents

22.

Variation within a population may occur through

a)

crossing over during meiosis

b)

independent assortment during meiosis

c)

mutation during DNA replication

d)

all of the above

23.

Mitosis and meiosis are very similar, but do have some differences. Which of the statements below is false?

a)

Meiosis involves two divisions, while mitosis involves only one division

b)

Meiosis starts with haploid cells, while mitosis starts with diploid cells

c)

During meiosis homologous chromosomes pair up, while in mitosis they do not

d)

Meiosis results in genetically varied gametes, while mitosis creates genetically identical cells

24.

If a fruit fly gamete contains 4 chromosomes, then the germ cells contain __________.

a)

4

b)

2

c)

8

d)

16

25.

In plant cells, mitosis is concluded once

a)

telophase ends

b)

a cleavage furrow is formed

c)

the cell plate is formed

d)

single stranded chromosomes move to opposite ends of the spindle

26.

DNA and RNA are both made up of monomers called

a)

glucose

b)

simple sugars

c)

nucleotides

d)

codons

27.

Which of the following are not proteins?

a)

Enzymes

b)

Glucose

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Polymerases

28.

When making RNA, Adenine is complementary to

a)

Thymine

b)

Uracil

c)

Amino Acids

d)

DNA

29.

The amino acid sequence of a _____________, is determined by the sequence of _______________ in DNA

a)

codon, phosphates

b)

protein, nucleotides

c)

polypeptide, codons

d)

nucleic acid, nitrogenous bases

30.

Replication and Transcription of DNA occur in the

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

ribosomes

d)

mitochondria

31.

The breeding of corn to have a particular seed size is an example of

a)

Natural selection

b)

Asexual Reproduction

c)

Artificial Selection

d)

Lamarckian Evolution

32.

Two amino acid sequences found in two different species of reptile are almost exactly the same. This suggests that the reptiles

a)

Are actually the same species

b)

Share a common ancestor

c)

Live in the same environment

d)

Are evolving into the same species

33.

A mutation in DNA results from

a)

a sudden change in the genetic material of the organism

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Artificial Selection

d)

Competition for resources such as food and water

34.

Species with analogous structures are considered to

a)

have a recent common ancestor

b)

live in a similar environment

c)

be evolving into the same species

d)

have no relation

35.

Evidence for evolution can come from all but

a)

Fossils

b)

Pictures of extinct dinosaurs

c)

Biochemical molecules like DNA or Proteins

d)

Embryological Studies

36.

The carrying capacity of this deer population is around

a)

80

b)

100

c)

10

d)

7.5

37.

90% of the energy originally found in a trophic level is transferred

a)

to the primary producer

b)

to the sun

c)

to the organism that eats it

d)

to the environment

38.

In a given food chain where would you find the smallest number of organisms living in the population?

a)

Primary Producers

b)

Secondary Consumers

c)

Tertiary Consumers

d)

Decomposers

39.

In a commensalistic relationship

a)

Both organisms benefit

b)

One organism benefits, and the other is neutral

c)

Both organisms are harmed

d)

One organism benefits, and the other dies

40.

A tertiary consumer is threatened by deforestation, global warming, and destruction of habitat. How could a conservationist assure that the population of consumers gets as much energy and resources as it possibly can?

a)

Increase the number of trophic levels

b)

Increase the number of decomposers

c)

Decrease the number of trophic levels

d)

Add an invasive species into the food web

41.

In an ecosystem which resource is not recycled?

a)

carbon

b)

energy

c)

water

d)

nitrogen

42.

During carbon cycling, __________________ removes carbon dioxide from the air

a)

Cellular Respiration

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Burning of Fossil Fuels

d)

Decomposition of waste and animal remains

43.

In DNA, cytosine always pairs with

a)

guanine

b)

uracil

c)

thymine

d)

adenine

44.

Vestigial structures show

a)

how an ancestor may have lived

b)

how old a fossil is

c)

what the organism is not related to

d)

usefulness in the organism that has it

45.

DNA is made up of phosphates, sugars, and

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

bases

d)

iodine

46.

A red flower bred to a white flower produces red and white spotted flowers. This is an example of

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

recessive genes

c)

epistasis

d)

co-dominance

47.

Organisms that rely on other organisms for food are called

a)

producers

b)

autotrophs

c)

consumers

d)

saprophytes

48.

The amount of energy expected to be transferred from one trophic level to another is ___?

a)

1%

b)

10%

c)

90%

d)

100%

49.

Identify the cellular organelle that the process of photosynthesis occurs in:

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplast

c)

nucleus

d)

vacuole

50.

Identify the gas that is an input (reactant) of photosynthesis:

a)

oxygen

b)

Water

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

nitrogen

51.

Identify the cellular organelle that the process of cellular respiration occurs in:

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplast

c)

nucleus

d)

golgi

52.

What is the simplest level of organization in the body?

a)

cell

b)

tissue

c)

organ

d)

organ system

53.

Which of the following levels of organization BEST represents the sequence from smallest to largest?

a)

Cell, tissue, organism, organ

b)

Cell, organism, organ, tissue

c)

Cell, tissue, organ, organ system

d)

Cell, organism, tissue, organ system

54.

A gene is_______________________.

a)

located only in sex cells

b)

a whole chromosome

c)

a section of DNA that codes for a trait

d)

not expressed in the dominant form

55.

The diagram shows homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis. Which of the following correctly describes the process being illustrated?

a)

Segregation of sister chromatids

b)

Mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is altered

c)

Crossing over in which alleles are exchanged

d)

Condensation and segregation of alleles

56.

What happens to the chromosome number during meiosis?

a)

doubles

b)

halves

c)

stays the same

d)

becomes diploid

57.
Animals are prokaryotic.
a)
True
b)
False
58.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
59.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
60.
Which is the correct phenotype for this organism?
a)
BB
b)
blue
c)
green
d)
bb
61.

Identify the type of molecule shown in the diagram:

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

lipids

d)

nucleic acids

62.

Identify the type of molecules shown in the diagram:

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

63.

Which row in the chart correctly matches the monomers with the Biomolecule category?

a)

Row 1

b)

Row 2

c)

Row 3

d)

Row 4

64.

Which row in the chart correctly matches the polymers with the Biomolecule category

a)

Row 1

b)

Row 2

c)

Row 3

d)

Row 4

65.

The graph provided below shows the activity of an enzyme called Glucosidase. What result can you conclude from the data about Glucosidase?

a)

Glucosidase breaks down glucose substrates

b)

Glucosidase works best around 70°C

c)

Glucosidase does not work below 70°C

d)

Glucosidase is not affected

66.

The diagram below demonstrates what type of cell?

a)

Eukaryotic Cells

b)

Prokaryotic Cells

c)

Bacterial Cells

d)

None of These

67.

The movement of water from an area of a higher concentration of water to an area of a lesser concentration of water through a selectively permeable membrane is termed:

a)

diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

exocytosis

68.

The picture below demonstrates active transport. What evidence is present in the picture that confirms active transport?

a)

the presence of a membrane

b)

the presence of an arrow

c)

the presence of ATP

d)

the presence of molecules

69.

What chromosome abnormality is shown in the provided karyotype picture?

a)

Tetrasomy

b)

Trisomy

c)

Monosomy

d)

There is no chromosomal abnormality in the provided karyotype

70.
The scientific study of life is called?
a)
Astronomy
b)
Chemistry
c)
Biology
d)
Physics
71.
A scientist noticed that the number of salamanders found in the lakes of the Rocky Mountains was declining. This is an example of a(n) …
a)
hypothesis
b)
theory
c)
observation
d)
control
72.
The English physician Ronald Ross wanted to find the cause of Malaria (a tropical blood disease). Based on his observations, Dr. Ross suggested that the mosquito might spread Malaria from person to person. This suggestion was a(n) ...
a)
prediction
b)
hypothesis
c)
observation
d)
control
73.
What are the six most important elements whose chemical combinations make up 98% of the molecules found in living organisms?
a)
carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, phosphorus, and sulfur
b)
carbon, hydrogen, neon, oxygen, plutonium, and sodium
c)
carbon, calcium, phosphorus, potassium, helium, and hydrogen
d)
carbon, calcium, copper, chromium, chlorine, and Cadmium
74.
Acidic solutions have a pH that is in what range of the scale?
a)
less than 7
b)
between 7 and 14
c)
between 0 and 14
d)
more than 7
75.
What is the purpose of the Nucleic Acid biomolecules?
a)
provide quick energy for a cell
b)
create a waterproofing barrier between the internal and external environment
c)
carry genetic information
d)
perform signaling, motor, transport, and enzymatic processes throughout the cell
76.
What is the purpose of the Protein biomolecules?
a)
provide quick energy for a cell
b)
create a waterproofing barrier between the internal and external environment
c)
carry genetic information
d)
perform signaling, motor, transport, and enzymatic processes throughout the cell
77.
What is the purpose of the Carbohydrate biomolecules?
a)
provide quick energy for a cell
b)
create a waterproofing barrier between the internal and external environment
c)
carry genetic information
d)
perform signaling, motor, transport, and enzymatic processes throughout the cell
78.
What is the purpose of the Lipid biomolecules?
a)
provide quick energy for a cell
b)
create a waterproofing barrier between the internal and external environment
c)
carry genetic information
d)
perform signaling, motor, transport, and enzymatic processes throughout the cell
79.
What term used to identify a Nucleic Acid monomer?
a)
Disaccharide
b)
Fatty Acid Chain
c)
Nucleotide
d)
Polypeptide
80.
Which of the following is NOT part of the cell theory?
a)
All cells come from other cells
b)
All cells are the basic units of life
c)
All living things are composed of cells with a nucleus
d)
All living things are composed of one or more cells
81.
A biologist is looking at a cell under the microscope. The cell lacks a nucleus and does not contain other organelles. What type of cell is the biologist looking at?
a)
eukaryotic cell
b)
prokaryotic cell
c)
plant cell
d)
animal cell
82.
A student wrote the following description of a cell after looking at it under the microscope: “The cell has a cell wall and many organelles, including mitochondria, a nucleus, a vacuole, and several chloroplast.” Which type of cell was the student most likely describing?
a)
plant cell
b)
animal cell
c)
fungal cell
d)
bacterial cell
83.

A student wrote the following description of a cell after looking at it under the microscope: “The cell has a cell wall and many organelles, including mitochondria, a nucleus, a vacuole, and several chloroplast.” Which type of cell was the student most likely describing?

a)

animal

b)

plant

c)

bacteria

84.
Which cell organelle will protect the genetic material of the cell?
a)
golgi apparatus
b)
nucleus
c)
cytoplasm
d)
ribosomes
85.
Diffusion is the movement of molecules from:
a)
a high concentration of molecules to a lower concentration of molecules
b)
a lower concentration of molecules to a higher concentration of molecules
c)
an area of equilibrium to an area of a higher concentration of molecules
d)
none of these
86.
Plant cells have a specific organelle that is able to convert the energy in sunlight into chemical energy … What is the name of this specific organelle?
a)
mitochondria
b)
nucleua
c)
golgi apparatus
d)
chloroplast
87.
Which of the following is the correct chemical equation for Photosynthesis?
a)
6CO2 + C2H12O6 + Light Energy → 6H2O + 6O2
b)
6 CO2 + 6H2O + Light Energy → 6O2 + C6H12O6
c)
C6H12O6 + Light Energy → 6O2 + 6CO2 + 6H2O
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 + Light Energy
88.
In Photosynthesis, Chlorophyll absorbs the energy in sunlight and uses that energy to …
a)
to covert NADP+ into NADPH
b)
to split water molecules into energized electrons, hydrogen ions, and oxygen gas
c)
to attach a third phosphate group onto ADP making ATP
d)
to fuse carbon dioxide molecules together forming Glucose
89.
Where do the Light-Dependent Reactions of Photosynthesis take place?
a)
in the cytoplasm of the cell
b)
in the thylakoid of the chloroplast
c)
in the mitochondria of the cell
d)
in the stroma of the chloroplast
90.
The Light-Independent Reactions use chemical energy to fuse carbon atoms together and form glucose molecules. What is another name for this portion of the photosynthetic process?
a)
the Electron Transport Chain
b)
the Krebs Cycle
c)
the Glyosidic Linkage
d)
the Calvin Cycle
91.
Which of the following is NOT a function of Photosynthesis?
a)
the release of energy by breaking down Glucose
b)
the provision of materials for plant growth and development
c)
the regulation of the Earth’s atmosphere by releasing oxygen gas and absorbing carbon dioxide
d)
the production of glucose to store energy
92.
What chemical REACTANTS are needed by plants to begin the process of Photosynthesis?
a)
Glucose and Carbon Dioxide
b)
Oxygen and ATP
c)
Water and Carbon Dioxide
d)
Oxygen and Glucose
93.
What PRODUCTS of the Light Dependent Reaction are used during the Light Independent Reaction?
a)
Oxygen gas and Hydrogen ions
b)
Chlorophyll and energized electrons
c)
ATP and NADPH
d)
Carbon Dioxide and Glucose
94.
What is the main purpose of Photosynthesis in plant cells?
a)
to change oxygen into carbon dioxide
b)
to convert sunlight energy into useable chemical energy
c)
to break down glucose into useable chemical elements
d)
to allow the passage of water from root to leaves
95.
Animal cells have a specific organelle that is able to convert food into chemical energy … What is the name of this specific organelle?
a)
mitochondria
b)
nucleus
c)
golgi apparatus
d)
chloroplast
96.
The breakdown of one Glucose molecule yields roughly how many ATP molecules?
a)
2 – 4
b)
5 – 15
c)
20 – 30
d)
30 – 40
97.
Where does the Krebs Cycle of Cellular Respiration take place?
a)
in the cytoplasm of the cell
b)
in the inner membrane of the mitochondria
c)
in the chloroplast of the cell
d)
in the matrix of the mitochondria
98.
How is energy Stored in a molecule of ATP?
a)
by adding a third phosphate group to ADP
b)
by combining a molecule of ATP with a molecule of ADP
c)
by removing the third phosphate group from ATP
d)
by lowering the activation energy of a phosphate group on ATP
99.
What is the purpose of the Electron Transport Chain?
a)
to break apart glucose into carbon dioxide, NADH, and FADH2
b)
to convert FADH2 and NADH molecules into useable ATP energy
c)
to absorb the energy of the sun to form glucose
d)
to covert carbon dioxide into oxygen gas
100.
What chemical Reactants are needed by animals to begin the process of Cellular Respiration?
a)
Glucose and Carbon Dioxide
b)
Oxygen and ATP
c)
Water and Carbon Dioxide
d)
Oxygen and Glucose
101.
What Products of the Krebs Cycle are used during the Electron Transport Chain?
a)
Oxygen gas and energized electrons
b)
Hydrogen ions and Water
c)
NADH and FADH2
d)
Carbon Dioxide and Glucose
102.
What is the main purpose of Cellular Respiration in animal cells?
a)
to change oxygen into carbon dioxide
b)
to break down glucose into useable chemical elements
c)
to convert sunlight energy into useable chemical energy
d)
to allow the digestion of food in the stomach
103.
What process breaks down Glucose into either alcohol or lactic acid when there is no oxygen present in the atmosphere?
a)
Aerobic Respiration
b)
Oxidation of Pyruvate
c)
Fermentation
d)
Citric Acid Cycle
104.
The disorder of cell cycle regulation and uncontrolled cell growth is called ...
a)
Apoptosis
b)
Cancer
c)
Cell Division
d)
Spindle Fibers
105.
What happens during Interphase
a)
Two daughter cells are formed
b)
DNA condenses into visible chromosomes
c)
The cell grows in size, copies the genetic material, and doubles the cellular content
d)
Sister chromatids separate into individual chromatids
106.
During which stage of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
Mitosis
107.
Which of these shows the correct order of Mitosis?
a)
Telophase Anaphase Metaphase Prophase
b)
Prophase Metaphase Anaphase Telophase
c)
Metaphase Prophase Telophase Anaphase
d)
Anaphase Metaphase Prophase Telophase
108.
How does the amount of DNA in the daughter cells compare to the amount of DNA in the original cell?
a)
Daughter cells have half the amount of DNA as the original cell
b)
Daughter cells have twice the amount of DNA as the original cell
c)
Daughter cells have the same amount of DNA as the original cell
d)
The amount of DNA in daughter cells and the original cell is not related
109.
What is the purpose of Mitosis?
a)
To prepare the cell for division
b)
To produce gametes (egg and sperm) for sexual reproduction
c)
The development, growth, and replacement of cells
d)
None of these
110.
The phase of mitosis, in which the chromosome pairs separate and move toward opposite sides of the cell.
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
111.
The phase of mitosis, when the chromosomes line up across the center of the cell
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
112.
What is the purpose of Cytokinesis?
a)
To check that the DNA replication process has completed correctly
b)
To double the amount of cytoplasm during G1 and G2
c)
To divide the cytoplasm equally between the two daughter cells
d)
To attach the spindle fiber from the centriole to the chromosomes
113.
What is the purpose of Meiosis?
a)
To prepare the cell for division
b)
To produce gametes (egg and sperm) for sexual reproduction
c)
The development, growth, and replacement of cells
d)
None of these
114.
Meiosis starts with 1 cell and ends with what number of cells?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
115.
Haploid means that the cell has ...
a)
twice the amount of chromosomes as the original parent cell
b)
the full amount of chromosomes as the original parent cell
c)
1/2 the amount of chromosomes as the original parent cell
d)
1/4 the amount of chromosomes as the original parent cell
116.
The production of genetically unique offspring from two parents and involves the joining of gametes is...
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Sexual Reproduction
d)
Asexual Reproduction
117.
The failure of Chromosomes to separate properly during Meiosis is called ...
a)
Nondisjunction
b)
Structural Chromosome Abnormality
c)
Carcinogen
d)
Autosomal
118.
In Humans, there are 23 sets of chromosomes, with the 23rd set determining biological sex. Which of the following is correct regarding the chromosomal arrangement for biological sex in Humans?
a)
Females are XX and Males are XY
b)
Males are XX and Females are XY
c)
Females are X and Males are Y
d)
Males are X and Females are Y
119.
Which is the correct sequence for the stages in Meiosis?
a)
Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, Telophase I, Prophase II, Metaphase II, Anaphase II, Telophase II
b)
Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, Telophase I
c)
Prophase I, Prophase II, Metaphase I, Metaphase II, Anaphase I, Anaphase II, Telophase I, Telophase II
d)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
120.
In Meiosis, what happens during the stage of Anaphase II?
a)
Homologous Chromosomes separate to opposite sides of the cell
b)
Sister Chromatids separate to opposite sides of the cell
c)
Chromatids align in the center of the cell
d)
Homologous Chromosomes align in the center of the cell
121.
A mutation in this cell type will NOT be passed on the future offspring.
a)
Somatic
b)
Germ-line
c)
Sex
d)
Gamete
122.
DNA helicase is an enzyme that:
a)
adds RNA primer on each DNA strand 
b)
unwinds and unzips the double helix 
c)
catalyzes appropriate nucleotides to each new DNA strand 
d)
puts the separated DNA strands back together 
123.
Each three base triplet in DNA or mRNA.
a)
Codon
b)
Colon
c)
Code
d)
Intron
124.

Chargraff's Rule says that

a)

Adenine will be equal to Thymine

b)

Cytosine will be equal to Thymine

c)

Uracil will be equal to Guanine

d)

Adenine will be equal to Cytosine

125.

What are the four nitrogen bases?

a)

adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine

b)

adenine, lysine, prolene, guanine

c)

arganine, cytosine, lysine, purine

d)

lysine, cytosine, lucine, guanine

126.
Ribosomes are the cell organelle that
a)
Break down food to produce energy for the cell.
b)
Produce proteins for the cell.
c)
Break down broken cell parts.
d)
Make food for the cell using the sun's energy.
127.
Which types of organisms are Prokaryotes?
a)
Animals
b)
Plants
c)
Fungi
d)
Bacteria
128.
Unicellular organisms are
a)
Prokaryotic
b)
Eukaryotic
c)
Made of many cells
d)
Made of one cell
129.
What is the difference between rough and smooth ER?
a)
There is no difference.
b)
Plants have rough ER, animals have smooth ER.
c)
What type of injuries the Doctors treat.
d)
Rough has ribosomes, smooth does not.
130.
The picture below is an example of _________________.
a)
osmosis
b)
isotonic
c)
diffusion
d)
active transport
131.
Permeable means
a)
things can pass through
b)
the concentration levels are different
c)
it is permanent
d)
things are stuck
132.
When both inside and outside of a cell have the same amount of water it is said that the cell has reached a state of
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion
c)
Equilibrium
133.
 A cell placed in a hypertonic solution will
a)
Stay the same
b)
Shrink- get smaller
c)
Swell- get bigger
134.
What do we call the process of turning DNA into mRNA?
a)
Translation
b)
Transcription 
c)
Replication
135.
What type of RNA carries the DNA message out of the nucleus to the ribosomes?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
RNA
d)
DNA
136.
When DNA is transcribed to RNA.... 
a)
A pairs with U
b)
C pairs with U
c)
A pairs with T
d)
C pairs with T
137.
When the RNA gets to the ribosomes, which molecule transfers to the mRNA to amino acids?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
Replicated RNA
138.
Amino acids are the building blocks of... 
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Atoms
d)
Proteins
139.
When transferring tRNA to amino acids, the process cannot begin until it reaches a...
a)
Beginning codon
b)
Start codon 
c)
Initiator codon
d)
Anticodon
140.
The process of transferring the codons to the amino acids ends with what codon?
a)
Stop
b)
Terminal
c)
End
d)
Cancel 
141.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA?
a)
 Met-Pro-Val-Stop
b)
Met-Pro-Arg-Stop
c)
 Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
142.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule? 
a)
contains ribose 
b)
made of amino acids
c)
contains Uracil
d)
double helix
143.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of:
a)
Uracil
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Guanine
144.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription? 
a)
AUGCUU 
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
145.
Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides?
a)
Topoisomerase
b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primase
146.
Which 2 molecules forms the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose and adenine
b)
deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond
c)
sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate
147.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
148.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
149.
What is a series of events a cell goes through as they grow and divide?
a)
Cell Division
b)
Cell Cycle
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Mitosis
150.
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
151.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
152.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
153.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
154.
During which phase of the cell cycle does the cell spend the most time?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Interphase
155.
During which part of the cell cycle does the cell divide?
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
S phase
156.
During which part of the cell cycle is DNA copied?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
S phase
157.
During which parts of the cell cycle does the cell grow?
a)
G1 and G2
b)
G1 and S
c)
M phase and cytokinesis
158.
Name this structure
a)
double helix
b)
nucelotide
c)
twisted ladder
d)
hydrogen bond
159.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
160.
Which of the following must happen first in order for DNA replication to occur?
a)
DNA polymerase binds to the leading strand
b)
DNA is unwound
c)
Hydrogen bonds form between bases
d)
chromosomes condense
161.
If T=Tall & t=short, what is the genotypic ratio?
a)
1:3
b)
3:1
c)
1:2:1
d)
2:2
162.
B=brown eyes
b= blue eyes
What is true about two brothers that have brown eyes?
One has genotype BB the other Bb.
a)
they have same phenotype and genotype
b)
they have different genotypes and phenotypes
c)
they have same phenotype but different genotypes
d)
they have same genotype but different phenotypes
163.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
164.
Which of the following cell types is formed by meiosis?
a)
muscle cells
b)
skin cells
c)
sperm cells
d)
blood cells
165.
How many times in meiosis does the cell divided?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
3
d)
1
166.
The sex of an offspring is determined by ______________________.
a)
the mother
b)
the father
c)
the mother and the father
d)
by the environment
167.
What is a phenotype?
a)
The expression of a trait; what you see.
b)
refers to the genetic makeup of an individual
c)
An organism that has the same genes for a trait (ex. TT or tt)
d)
the passing of traits from parent to offspring
168.
The inherited combination of alleles is known as the offspring's
a)
heredity
b)
phenotype
c)
genotype
d)
redigree
169.
An organism's appearance is known as its
a)
heredity
b)
phenotype
c)
genotype
d)
pedigree
170.
3 Types of RNA
a)
Messenger RNA, Transfer RNA, and Ribosomal RNA
b)
Transcription, Monomers, and Nucleus
171.
rRNA
a)
Messenger RNA
b)
Transfer RNA
c)
Ribosomal RNA
172.
What is the start codon?
a)
AUG
b)
MET
173.
Which amino acid is made from the RNA codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Leucine
c)
Serine
d)
Tyrosine
174.

What amino acid is coded for by the codon AUG?

a)

isoleucine

b)

phenylalanine

c)

leucine

d)

methionine

175.
According to the central dogma,
a)
DNA --> RNA--> Protein 
b)
RNA--> DNA--> protein 
c)
protein--> DNA--> RNA
d)
RNA--> protein--> DNA
176.

Which of the following are abiotic factors?

a)

Air temperature

b)

Disease

c)

Sunlight

d)

Plants

177.

Which of the following are density dependent factors?

a)

Disease

b)

Forest fire

c)

Competition for mates

d)

Parasites

e)

Volcano eruption

178.
As a predator population increases, what will happen to the prey population?
a)
They will increase
b)
They will decrease
179.

Organisms that get energy by eating other organisms are known as consumers or ________________

a)

heterotrophs

b)

producers

c)

autotrophs

d)

chemoautotrophs

180.
Nitrogen and phosphorous are found in fertilizers and are often leaked into bodies of water such as the ocean. This eventually causes a(n) _________________
a)
tsunami
b)
nuclear meltdown
c)
algal bloom
d)
flash mob
181.

What is the correct food chain for the pyramid?

a)

Hawk=>rodent=>insect=>grass

b)

grass=>insect=>rodent=>hawk

c)

insect=>grass=>rodent=>hawk

d)

There is no food chain possible

182.

Which would be the correct order for primary succession?

a)

Oaks, pines, moss, lichens, grass and ferns

b)

Grasses and ferns, moss, lichens, pines, oaks

c)

Oaks, pines, grasses and ferns, mosses and lichens

d)

lichens, mosses, ferns and grasses, pines, oaks

183.

Close and permanent relationships between organisms is known as

a)

Ecobiosys

b)

Symbiosis

c)

Completition

d)

Predation

184.
A robin and a lizard both eat worms. This is considered what?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Respiration
c)
Competition
d)
Parasitism
185.
What trophic level has the most amount of biomass?
a)
Primary producer
b)
Primary consumer
c)
Secondary consumer
d)
Tertiary consumer
186.

Autotrophs are also known as _________________

a)

Consumers

b)

Producers

c)

Polypeptides

d)

The Loch Ness Monster

187.

Which is an example of a parasite?

a)

A wolf pack hunting together

b)

A tapeworm attached to a dog's intestines

c)

A bee pollinating a flower

d)

A barnacle attached to a whale (the whale is unharmed)

188.
Which type of symbiotic relationship is occurring if both organisms benefit?
a)
Mutualism
b)
Commensalism
c)
Parasitism 
189.
Volcano eruptions and paving over forests to make parking lots are examples of which type of succession
a)
Primary succession
b)
Secondary succession
190.

The process of converting nitrogen in the atmosphere into organic compounds is called:

a)

Nitrogen fixation

b)

Nitrogenation

c)

Carbon fixation

d)

Carbonification

191.

What happens to a population if they grow larger than their carrying capacity?

a)

Birth rate increases

b)

Birth rate decreases

c)

The population size will start to decrease

d)

The population size will start to increase

192.

Which of the following is a group of the same species?

a)

Population

b)

Community

c)

Ecosystem

d)

Biosphere

193.
Genetic differences between organisms of the same species
a)
Variation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Behavior
d)
Environment
194.
The struggle for existence against other members of an organisms species is
a)
Competition
b)
Natural Selection
c)
gene flow
d)
genetic drift
195.
Remains of ancient organisms are called
a)
Extinctions
b)
Fossils
c)
Mutations
d)
Variations
196.
What is a change in an organism that allows for it to survive in its environment?
a)
homologous
b)
vestigial
c)
variation
d)
adaptation
197.
What is this an example of?
a)
diversity of species
b)
variation
c)
vestigial structures
d)
DNA studies
198.
What is this an example of?
a)
vestigial structures
b)
embryology
c)
homologous structures
d)
fossil record
199.
Which layer is the oldest?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
200.
When individuals choose traits possessed by the opposite sex it is called…
a)
Mutation
b)
Gene Flow
c)
Genetic Drift
d)
Sexual Selection

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