WorksheetsIB BIO HL Semester 1 Review Topic 1, 2, 3
Total questions: 61
Worksheet time: 3580secs
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which process is occurring at the cell membrane labeled B?
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Exocytosis
c)
membrane pumps
d)
facilitated diffusion
2.
What is the organelle labeled A?
a)
Rough ER
b)
Golgi Apparatus
c)
Lysosome
d)
Smooth ER
3.
What structures are found in eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes?
a)
Naked DNA and mitochondra
b)
Golgi apparatus and 70S ribosomes
c)
70S ribosomes and nuclear membrane
d)
mitochondria and nuclear membrane
4.
Which structure is not a component of all cells?
a)
cell wall
b)
cell membrane
c)
genetic material
d)
ribosomes
5.
The major locomotor structures in bacteria are
a)
flagella
b)
pili
c)
fimbriae
d)
cilia
6.
What is the function of A?
a)
movement through watery environment
b)
store genetic instructions
c)
stick to host cells
d)
store genes for antibiotic resistance
7.
A cell will __________________ in a hypotonic solution.
a)
swell and perhaps burst (lyse)
b)
shrink
c)
the size of the cell will not change
d)
the size of the cell will change from large to small and from small to large
8.
A cell will _____________________ in a hypertonic solution.
a)
swell
b)
shrink
c)
will not change
d)
will explode
9.
___________ have 2 functions in the cell membrane.
1.) They act like gatekeepers, only let certain things in.
2.) Enzyme receptors embedded in the membrane.
1.) They act like gatekeepers, only let certain things in.
2.) Enzyme receptors embedded in the membrane.
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Proteins
c)
Phospholipids
d)
Cholesterol
10.
What helps to regulate transcription?
a)
Nucleosomes
b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
tRNA
d)
Ribosomes
11.
In this electronmicrograph of a eukaryotic nucleus, what could be happening to DNA at any of the arrows?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
12.
What happens during glycolysis for one molecule of glucose?
a)
Two pyruvates are formed
b)
There is a net gain of two NADPH + H+
c)
There is a net loss of two ATP
d)
Two acetyl CoA are formed
13.
What substance is produced from glucose during anaerobic respiration in all organisms?
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Ethanol
c)
Lactate
d)
Pyruvate
14.
How can the rate of photosynthesis be measured?
I. By the amount of oxygen produced
II. By the increase in biomass
III. By the amount of carbon dioxide produced
I. By the amount of oxygen produced
II. By the increase in biomass
III. By the amount of carbon dioxide produced
a)
I
b)
I & II
c)
I & III
d)
I, II & III
15.
How does chlorophyll respond to the red, green and blue wavelengths in white light?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
16.
What is the source of the oxygen released into the atmosphere in photosynthesis?
a)
Glucose
b)
CO2
c)
Water
d)
Chlorophyll
17.
What is a difference between carbohydrates and lipids in energy storage?
a)
Carbohydrates are used for long term storage and lipids for short term storage.
b)
Carbohydrates contain more energy per 100g than lipids
c)
Carbohydrates store food only in plants whereas lipids store food in plants and animals.
d)
Carbohydrates are more easily transported to where energy is required than lipids.
18.
Which molecule is a polysaccharide?
a)
Cellulose
b)
Fructose
c)
Maltose
d)
Sucrose
19.
What are the most frequently occurring elements in living organisms?
a)
nitrogen, carbon, oxygen and hydrogen
b)
carbon, phosphorus, oxygen and nitrogen
c)
calcium, sodium, nitrogen and phosphorus
d)
calcium, phosphorus, iron and sodium
20.
How can the activity of a human amylase enzyme be increased during a laboratory experiment?
a)
Adding sugar to the mixture
b)
Decreasing the pH from 7 to 3C.
c)
Increasing the temperature from 20°C to 37°C
d)
Adding water to the mixture
21.
Which correctly identifies the parts labelled I and II?
a)
I-base II-phosphate
b)
I- ribose II- uracil
c)
I- deoxyribose II- base
d)
I- ribose II-adenine
22.
How is the sequence of DNA conserved?.
a)
Unwinding of the double helix by helicase during DNA replication
b)
Separation of sister chromatids to opposite poles during mitosis
c)
Transcription into complementary RNA for protein synthesis
d)
Complementary base pair matching during DNA replication
23.
Organisms can be genetically modified to produce the human blood clotting factor IX.What characteristic of the genetic code makes this possible?
a)
It is conservative
b)
It is degenerate
c)
It is complementary
d)
It is universal.
24.
Which molecules are formed as a direct result of translation and transcription?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
25.
Which molecule is a monosaccharide?
a)
Cellulose
b)
Starch
c)
Fructose
d)
Maltose
26.
Why does exposure to high temperatures cause an enzyme to lose its biological properties?
a)
The substrate blocks the active site at high temperatures
b)
The three dimensional structure of the enzyme becomes changed
c)
Chemical reactions cannot take place at high temperatures
d)
High temperatures increase the activation energy of reactions.
27.
Molecules A and B are amino acids and C is a dipeptide. Which reaction represents a condensation reaction?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
28.
Which is the activation energy of a reaction when it is catalyzed by an enzyme?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
29.
What is produced overall per glucose molecule, during glycolysis?
a)
1 pyruvate 2 ATP 1 NADH
b)
1 pyruvate 4 ATP 2 NADH
c)
2 pyruvate 4 ATP 1 NADH
d)
2 pyruvate 2 ATP 2 NADH
30.
What property of water makes it suitable as a coolant?
a)
Water is a good solvent so it can transport heat from the body
b)
Water molecules are cohesive and stick to the skin.
c)
It takes a lot of energy for water to evaporate
d)
It takes a lot of energy to increase the temperature of water.
31.
The two strands of the DNA double helix are held together by what type of bond?
a)
hydrogen bonds
b)
peptide bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
ionic bonds
32.
Which carbon atoms on the pentose sugar does the phosphate molecule bond to?
a)
1' & 2'
b)
2' & 3'
c)
3' & 4"
d)
4' & 5'
e)
5' & 3'
33.
Which of the following is the cause of sickle-cell anemia?
a)
Tryptophan is replaced by leucine
b)
Leucine is replaced by valine
c)
Glutamic acid is replaced by valine
d)
Lysine is replaced by glutamic acid
34.
Which of the following statements about homologous chromosomes is correct?
a)
Each gene is at the same locus on both chromosomes
b)
They are two identical copies of a parent chromosome which are attached to one another at the centromere
c)
They always produce identical phenotypes
d)
They are chromosomes that have identical genes and alleles
35.
What happens in crossing over?
a)
Exchange of genes during metaphase of mitosis
b)
Random distribution of chromosomes during meiosis
c)
Exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes
d)
Homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis
36.
What can be concluded from the karyotype provided below?
a)
There was non-disjunction during meiosis in the mother.
b)
There was non-disjunction during meiosis in the father.
c)
The fetus is male.
d)
The fetus is female.
37.
A cell in the testis of a male chimpanzee contains 2n=48 chromosomes. It then undergoes meiosis. How many molecules of DNA will be present in the nucleus of the sperm cells just after meiosis?
a)
96
b)
48
c)
24
d)
12
38.
If the haploid number of a species is 14, how many chromatids will there be in metaphase I in a dividing diploid cell?
a)
7
b)
14
c)
28
d)
56
39.
How many autosomes are there in a human sperm?
a)
1
b)
22
c)
23
d)
46
40.
Which phase of cell division is photographed in order to make a karyotype?
a)
Anaphase of mitosis
b)
Anaphase I of meiosis
c)
Metaphase of mitosis
d)
Metaphase II of meiosis
41.
What does the karyotype below correspond to?
a)
A normal male
b)
A normal female
c)
A female with Down Syndrome
d)
A male with Down Syndrome
42.
If the amount of DNA in a haploid gamete is represented by X, what is the net quantity of DNA in a cell from the same organism at the start of meiosis?
a)
0.5x
b)
x
c)
2x
d)
4x
43.
What are the fundamental structural units of eukaryotic chromosomes?
a)
Histones
b)
Nucleoids
c)
Nucleosomes
d)
Centromeres
44.
What do all human males inherit from their mother?
I. An X chromosome
II. A Y chromosome
III. Mitochondrial DNA
I. An X chromosome
II. A Y chromosome
III. Mitochondrial DNA
a)
I and II only
b)
II only
c)
I and III
d)
I, II and III
45.
What can be concluded from the karyotype provided below?
a)
There was non-disjunction during meiosis in the mother
b)
There was non-disjunction during meiosis in the father
c)
The fetus is male
d)
The fetus is female
46.
3.1- What is the difference between the alleles of a gene?
a)
Their position on the chromosome
b)
Their amino acid sequence
c)
Their pentose sugars
d)
Their base sequence
47.
3.1- What is the set of alleles that an individual possesses?
a)
A gene
b)
A genotype
c)
A genome
d)
A genus
48.
How are new alleles formed?
a)
mutation
b)
crossing over
c)
random orientation of homologous chromosomes
d)
ALL answers are correct
49.
Which is NOT a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA?
a)
Eukaryotic=linear, Prokaryotic=circular
b)
Eukaryotic=histones, Prokaryotic=usually naked
c)
Eukaryotic=Multiple chromosomes, Prokaryotic=single chromosome
d)
Eukaryotic=double helix, Prokaryotic=single strand
50.
Which shows separation of 1)linked genes, 2)sister chromatids
a)
1) D, 2) J
b)
1) F, 2) J
c)
1) D, 2) F
d)
1) J, 2) F
51.
A homozygous recessive parent and a homozygous dominant parent have what chance of producing a homozygous offspring?
a)
100%
b)
75%
c)
25%
d)
0%
52.
Two heterozygous parents with brown fur have what probability of producing a white-furred offspring (if white fur color is recessive)?
a)
100%
b)
75%
c)
25%
d)
0%
53.
Two grey parents for a codominant trait will have what phenotypic ratio in their offspring?
a)
all grey (1)
b)
3 : 1
c)
1 : 2 : 1
d)
1 : 1 : 1 : 1
54.
X-linked recessive traits are seen:
a)
equally in both genders
b)
more in females that males
c)
more in males than females
d)
ONLY in females
55.
The most common pattern for genetic diseases in humans is:
a)
dominant autosomal
b)
recessive autosomal
c)
codominant
d)
dominant X-linked
56.
If a hemophiliac man and a homozygous normal woman have a son, what is the chance that he will have hemophilia?
a)
100%
b)
50%
c)
25%
d)
0%
57.
If a woman with cystic fibrosis and a man without the allele had a child, what is the chance that the child would be a carrier?
a)
100%
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
58.
The trait is Huntington's. What is the genotype of III-4?
a)
XHY
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
XHXh
59.
Which blood type(s) are possible for the offspring of two parents with Type B blood?
a)
Type B only
b)
Type B and Type O only
c)
Type AB and Type B
d)
all blood types are possible
60.
Gel electrophoresis separates DNA by _____ using their ___________.
a)
size, positive charge
b)
size, negative charge
c)
sequence, positive charge
d)
sequence, negative charge
61.
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) does NOT require:
a)
Taq DNA polymerase
b)
heat
c)
a starting sample of DNA
d)
dideoxynucleoside triphosphates
100 %
