wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

AIPT FY1819 (1)

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 2hrs 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The RFF service is provided to create and maintain survivable conditions, to provide ingress routes for occupants and to initiate the rescue of those occupants unable to make their escape without direct aid.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

The airport category for RFF should be based on the overall length of the longest aeroplanes normally using the airport and their maximum fuselage width. Which of the following aeroplane overall length range applies for airport category 10?

a)

76 m up to but not including 90 m

b)

78 m up to but not including 90 m

c)

7 metres

d)

8 metres

3.

When the number of movements of the aeroplanes in the highest category normally using the airport is less than ----- in the busiest consecutive ---- months, then the airport category may be ---- less than the highest aeroplane category.

a)

600; 2; 1

b)

600; 3; 2

c)

700; 3; 1

d)

700; 2; 2

4.

What constitutes to a movement?


(i) - Landing

(ii) - Take off

(iii) - Aircraft push back

(iv) - Aircraft taxiing on apron

(v) - Aircraft taxiing on taxiway

a)

i & ii

b)

i, ii, iii

c)

i, ii, v

d)

i. ii, iv, v

e)

All of the above

5.

The level of protection at aerodromes used for all-cargo aeroplane operations may be reduced based on the need to protect only the area around the cockpit of an allcargo aeroplane in the critical area concept.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

The amounts of water for foam production and the complementary agents to be provided on the RFF vehicles should be in accordance with the airport category determined, except that for airport categories 1 and 2, up to 100 per cent of the water may be substituted with a complementary agent.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Control time in the practical critical area is the time required to reduce the initial intensity of the fire by __________.

a)

50 per cent upon arrival

b)

90 per cent upon arrival

c)

50 per cent within 1 minute

d)

90 per cent within 1 minute

8.

The amount of foam concentrate should be sufficient to supply more than two full loads of the quantity of water where sufficient additional water supplies are immediately available to ensure a rapid replenishment of the water content carried.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

It depends

9.

The amounts of water specified for foam production are predicated on an application rate of ____ for a foam meeting performance level A, ____ for a foam meeting performance level B and ____ for a foam meeting performance level C.

a)

8.2; 5.75; 3.5 (L/min/m2)

b)

8.2; 5.5; 3.75 (L/min/m2)

c)

8.2; 5.75; 3.5 (L/sec/m2)

d)

8.2; 5.5; 3.75 (L/sec/m2)

10.

Fill in the blanks

a)

32 300; 11 200

b)

32 300; 11 000

c)

33 200; 11 200

d)

33 200; 11 000

11.

For the purpose of replacing water for foam production by complementary agents, 1 kg of a complementary agent shall be taken as equivalent to 1.0 L of water for production of a foam meeting performance ______.

a)

Level A

b)

Level A or B

c)

Level B

d)

Level C

e)

Level A, B or C

12.

The critical area is a concept for rescue of the occupants of an aircraft.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

The quantity of water for foam production can be calculated from the following formula: Q = Q1 + Q2.


What is Q1?

a)

Q1 = practical critical area x rate of application x time of application

b)

Q1 = theoretical critical area x rate of application x time of application

c)

Q1 = practical critical area x amount for foam x time of application

d)

Q1 = theoretical critical area x amount of foam x time of application

14.

A reserve supply of foam concentrate equivalent to _____ per cent of the quantities of these agents should be maintained on the airport for vehicle replenishment purposes.

a)

100

b)

200

c)

300

d)

400

15.

The operational objective of the RFF service should be to achieve response times of ____ minutes and not exceeding ____ minutes to the end of each ______, as well as to any other part of the movement area, in optimum

conditions of visibility and surface conditions.

a)

3; 4; threshold

b)

2; 3; runway

c)

2; 3; threshold

d)

3; 4; runway

16.

Response time is considered to be the time between the initial call to the RFF service and the time when the first responding vehicle(s) is(are) in position to apply foam at a rate of at least 90 per cent of the discharge rate.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

It depends

17.

What is the minimum number of RFF vehicle required for category 10 airport?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

18.

Which of the following best describe the Emergency Access Road?

a)

Emergency access roads should be provided on an airport where terrain conditions permit their construction so as to facilitate the achievement of minimum response times.

b)

Emergency access roads would be provided on an airport to achieve the minimum response times to the end of runway.

c)

Emergency access roads should be provided on an airport where terrain conditions permit their construction so as to facilitate the movement to aircraft movement areas.

d)

Emergency access roads would be provided on an airport when terrain conditions restricted the achievement of minimum response times to aircraft movement areas.

19.

Particular attention should be given to the provision of ready access to approach areas up to ______ from the threshold or at least from the threshold to the airport boundary.

a)

100 metres

b)

500 metres

c)

1000 metres

d)

1500 metres

20.

What facilities should be provided to access to outside areas when the airport is fenced?

a)

Detention Pond

b)

Emergency Gates

c)

Quick Response Route

d)

Perimeter Road

21.

Which of the following foam is composed of protein together with film forming fluorinated surfactants, which make them capable of forming water solution films on the surface of flammable liquids and of adding oleophobic properties to the foam generated?

a)

Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF)

b)

Fluoroprotein foam (conventional)

c)

Firm forming fluoropotein (FFFP) foam

d)

Synthetic foams

e)

None of the above

22.

Which of the following is NOT a method of foam production?

a)

Aspiration by inducted air

b)

Aspiration by compressed air insertion

c)

Aspiration via foam proportion indicator

d)

Aspiration within the jet

23.

pH value is a measurement to express the acidity or alkaline properties of a liquid. Therefore, in order to prevent the corrosion of plumbing or the foam tanks of an RFF vehicle, the foam concentrate should be as neutral as possible and should register between the values of ____ and _____ .

a)

6 and 8

b)

6 and 8.5

c)

6.5 and 8

d)

6.5 and 8.5

24.

For optimum foam firefighting and burn-back performance the foam-making equipment should produce expansions and 25 per cent drainage times of acceptable levels. Drainage times should be in excess of 3 minutes for film forming foams.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Not sure

25.

It should be noted that dry chemical powder can be highly corrosive when applied to metal surfaces and electrical componentry.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

A reserve supply of foam concentrate and complementary agents should be maintained on the airport, equivalent to ____ per cent and ____ per cent, respectively.

a)

100; 100

b)

100; 200

c)

200; 100

d)

200; 200

27.

When responding to a wheel fire, RFF members should approach the wheels with extreme caution in a fore or aft direction angle and from the side in line with the axle.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

RFF personnel should stay at least ______ from the front and side intake of a turbine engine to avoid being ingested.

a)

10 metres

b)

50 metres

c)

100 metres

d)

200 metres

29.

The final determination to evacuate from the aircraft and the manner in which evacuation shall be carried out must be left to the discretion of the _______.

a)

Pilot-in-command

b)

First arriving RRF personnel

c)

On-Scene commander (OPC)

d)

Cabin Crew

30.

Human Factors elements can be divided into four basic conceptual categories:

i) Software

ii) Hardware

iii) Equipment

iv) Liveware

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Interfaces between “Liveware vs. Software” describes the interaction between people and the other element of the SHEL model. What does it describes?

a)

People and machines

b)

People and procedures

c)

People and colleagues

d)

People and workplace

32.

The application of human factor principles to RFF services can therefore be classified into two broad pillars as follows:


(i) operational effectiveness and standards

(ii) robust training program

(iii) safety and well-being of RFF personnel

(iv) well defined KPIs

(v) effective leadership

a)

i, iv

b)

ii, iii

c)

iv, v

d)

i, iii

33.

The maximum number of surviving casualties at an aircraft accident occurring on or in the vicinity of an airport is estimated to be ___________________.

a)

500 aircraft occupants.

b)

750 aircraft occupants.

c)

about 50 per cent of the aircraft occupants.

d)

about 75 per cent of the aircraft occupants.

34.

It is expected that estimated maximum requirements for care for the various priority status of surviving casualties will be distributed as follows:


___ % for P1

___ % for P2

___ % for P3

a)

10; 30; 60

b)

20; 30; 50

c)

25; 25; 50

d)

15; 25; 60

35.

CAG’s Safety Management System, we are committed to (SMS Policy):

(i) Continually Improve Safety Performance and Safety Risk Management

(ii) Encourage an Open and Learning Culture

(iii) Provide the Necessary Resources and Training

(iv) Encourage Teamwork with Our Partners

(v) Becoming a World Class Airport

a)

i, ii, iii

b)

i, iii, iv

c)

i, ii, iii, iv

d)

i, iii, iv

e)

All of the above

36.

Which of these is a safety objectives of Changi Airport Group?


(i) Comply with international standards and regulatory safety requirements

(ii) Minimise unplanned disruptions to ensure safe and efficient airport operations

(iii) Reviewing risk assessment to ensure potential risks are minimised

(iv) Provide a safe and seamless travelling experience for passengers

a)

i, ii, iii

b)

ii, iii, iv

c)

i, ii, iv

d)

i, iii, iv

e)

All of the Above

37.

One of the Safety target for Airport Emergency Service is:-


To maintain at < 3 mins response time for 1st AES vehicle and < 4 mins for last AES vehicle to any other part of the movement area in optimum visibility and surface conditions

a)

True

b)

False

38.

It is the responsibility of the Aerodrome Safety Unit to review and update the SMS Manual once annually.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

AES is absolutely committed to the safety of every person who works at or uses our premises and to conduct safe operations. Safety is our core value, and we firmly believe that a strong safety culture is key to creating a safe environment for our passengers, tenants, airport visitors, partners, employees and others who work with us in the aviation community. While compliance with national aviation safety regulation is a basic and necessary condition for aerodrome certification, we adopt leading safety practices and where possible, exceed all international/national and other applicable industry requirements to achieve the ________________highest level of performance.

a)

Workplace Health & Safety

b)

Occupational Health & Safety

c)

Workplace Safety and Occupational Health

d)

Occupational Safety & Workplace Health

40.

AES SWC is to ensure that the respective grades within AES attain the required safety and health competencies as identified in the ____________.

a)

CAG Safety Adaptation Framework

b)

CAG Safety Compliance Manual

c)

CAG Safety Management Procedures

d)

CAG Safety Competency Matrix

41.

To ensure AES operational staff can mitigate various foreseeable emergencies safely, standard operating procedures and operational control measures are formulated under the AES Operations Manual (ESOM) for the respective units. These procedures have been prepared based on risk assessment conducted in accordance with ___________ regulations, under the ____________ Act.

a)

WSH (Risk Management), Workplace Safety and Health

b)

WSH (Risk Implementation), Occupational Safety and Health

c)

WSOH (Risk Management), Workplace Safety and Occupational Health

d)

WSOH (Risk Implementation), Workplace Safety and Occupational Health

42.

The AES safety and health activities are key events or actions that are critical to the effectiveness of the SMS in AES.


Which of the following is NOT one of the categories that grouped the activities?

a)

Safety Assessment

b)

Best Practice Audit

c)

Staff Preventive and Reactive Remedial Action

d)

S.A.F.E Initiatives

e)

Safety Culture and Safety Awareness

43.

Define DRAT

a)

Dynamic Risk Analysis Tool

b)

Dynamic Risk Accessible Tool

c)

Dynamic Risk Acknowledgement Tool

d)

Dynamic Risk Assessment Tool

44.

When is AES Safety Day (ASD) held?

a)

ASD falls on the first Tuesday of every month

b)

ASD falls on the first Wednesday of every month

c)

ASD falls on the first Thursday of every month

d)

ASD falls on the first Friday of every month

45.

Which of the following best describe Safety Time Out (STO)?

a)

A STO is a safety response measure that requires the suspension of

work activity, at that moment, to prevent a safety occurrence.

b)

A STO is a framework set in place to ensure periodic suspension of

work activity, at that moment, to prevent a safety occurrence.

c)

A STO is a countermeasure used to prevent any form of malingering which may cause any form of suspension of work activity, resulting in a safety occurrence.

d)

A STO is a safety framework that highlight possible risk which may result in the suspension of work activity, hence preventing a safety occurrence.

46.

The completed risk assessments for ongoing activities should be minimally reviewed and updated once every __ year/s

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

47.

AES project officer is to start the risk assessment study at least ___ weeks prior and to submit the approved risk assessment study to AES Safety Manager at least ___ weeks before the start of the project.

a)

6; 3

b)

5; 2

c)

5; 3

d)

6; 2

48.

An AES Workplace Occurrence Notification Report shall be submitted to Chief, AES, Commander Unit, relevant AES Senior Officers, ASU, HR and Legal Divisions within ______ after the occurrence.

a)

12 hours

b)

24 hours

c)

36 hours

d)

48 hours

49.

At the start of the shift duty, all crew shall have their body temperature taken. Crew with body temperature greater than ____ Degree Celsius shall not be allowed to take part in any physical activities.

a)

37.4

b)

37.5

c)

37.6

d)

37.7

50.

Prior to the start of the physical activity, the conducting officer shall obtain the WBGT from the Meteorological stations. The __________ & __________ are required to obtain the WBGT.

a)

temperature; ambient heat

b)

temperature; relative humidity

c)

temperature; atmospheric air flow

d)

temperature; wind direction

51.

What are the missing headers for the WBGT Work-Rest Cycle?

a)

WSH Standard; WSH Safe Working Level

b)

Work-Rest Index; WBGT Risk Cateogry

c)

OHS Level; OHS Risk Category

d)

Heat Index Category; Heat Injury Risk

52.

During Breathing Apparatus (BA) Training in Heat and Humid Environment, the conducting officer shall ensure the air content in the BA cylinders are at least ____ full before entering the risk area.

a)

70%

b)

75%

c)

80%

d)

85%

e)

None of the above

53.

Operators and crew leader will be instructed to position the vehicle _____ and at least _____ from the fire during their Hot Fire Training.

a)

upwind; 10 metres

b)

upwind; 15 metres

c)

downwind; 10 metres

d)

downwind; 15 metres

54.

AES Mission Statement


Provide rescue and fire protection at Changi and Seletar Airports as well as the RSAF airbases

a)

within the Republic to the highest standards prescribed by International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) so that these aerodromes / airbases will remain operational.

b)

within the Republic of Singapore to the highest standards prescribed by International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) so that these aerodromes / airbases will remain operational.

c)

within the Republic to the highest standards prescribed by International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) so that these aerodromes / airbases can remain operational.

d)

within the Republic of Singapore to the highest standards prescribed by International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) so that these aerodromes / airbases can remain operational.

55.

Which of the following is NOT part of the AES Mission Objectives?

a)

To maintain a high state of preparedness at all times and be able to meet ICAO standards and recommended practices in the response times and effective mitigation in an aircraft emergency / accident;

b)

To ensure that AES officers are proficient to deal with all foreseeable emergencies involving aircraft;

c)

To ensure that there are adequate airport fire vehicles, marine craft and equipment that are effectively manned for the speedy mitigation of an aircraft accident;

d)

To ensure the efficient management of fire safety and security within airports and terminal buildings / infrastructure;

e)

To further improve the quality management system in providing an effective and efficient service and to continually enhance the Airport Emergency Plans for both the civil airports and RSAF Airbases,

and ensure the testing of the plan at recommended intervals.

56.

The AES motto of Speed – Skill – Safety serves to remind us that we must always strive to respond to an aircraft emergency swiftly and expeditiously. It is also a guiding principle that we must be ever ready and competently trained in accordance to CAAS SARPs and always place the safety of passengers and staff as our topmost priority when performing rescue & fire fighting operations within the aerodrome.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

When was the AES emblem designed to inaugurate the renaming of Airport Fire Rescue Service to Airport Emergency Service?

a)

1994

b)

1995

c)

1996

d)

1997

58.

Which of the following signifies/remind us of our mission and objectives?

a)

The seven lines to its left and right

b)

The helmet and 2 axes

c)

The Shield

d)

The olive branches

59.

Which of the following signifies/symbolises AES' 24/7 fire protection coverage at these aerodromes?

a)

The seven line to its left and right

b)

The helmet and 2 axes

c)

The Shield

d)

The olive branches

60.

With the “wing-liked” structures attached to both sides of the ________ representing the aviation industry and the blue & white colours representing the sky, AES aims to grow with the aviation industry as we continue to _______ our dream to be the world’s leading ARFF outfit, knowing that only the sky is our limit.

a)

emblem; pursue

b)

shield; achieve

c)

shield; pursue

d)

emblem; achieve