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MOCK TEST

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The RFF service is provided to create and

maintain survivable conditions, to provide ____ routes for ____ and to initiate the rescue of those occupants

unable to make their escape without direct aid.

(ASM 1.1.1)

a)

escape, occupants

b)

egress, occupants

c)

egress, passengers

d)

escape, passengers

2.

Fires may also occur through the discharge of accumulated electrostatic charges at the time of ground

contact____ during fuelling operations. (ASM 1.1.2)

a)

when

b)

also

c)

and

d)

or

3.

The mobilization of all parties and agencies required to respond to an aircraft emergency on a large airport

will require the provision and management of a ________.

(ASM 4.4.1)

a)

multi communication system

b)

two-way communication

system

c)

complex communications

system.

d)

discreet communication

system

4.

Roads within_____of a runway should be constructed to prevent surface erosion and the transfer of debris to

the runway. (ASM 3.2.2)

a)

100 m

b)

90 m

c)

30 m

d)

50 m

5.

Q = Q1 + Q2


What is Q2?


(ASM 2.4.7)

a)

the water for control of the fire in the

practical critical area

b)

the water required after control has been established

and is needed for such factors as the maintenance of control and/or

extinguishment of the remaining fire.

c)

Ap = 0.667 AT

d)

the total water required

6.

What are the methods of foam production?

(ASM 8.1.2)

a)

Aspiration by aspirated nozzle,

aspiration by compressed air

insertion and aspiration within the

jet

b)

Aspiration by inducted air,

aspiration by compressed gas

insertion and aspiration within

turret

c)

Aspiration by inducted air,

aspiration by compressed air

insertion and aspiration within the

turret

d)

Aspiration by inducted air,

aspiration by compressed air

insertion and aspiration within the

jet

7.

The extinguishing agent should be:

a) a foam meeting the minimum performance level A; or

b) a foam meeting the minimum performance level B; or

c) a foam meeting the minimum performance level C; or

d) a combination of these agents.


(ASM 2.2.2)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

8.

The amount of _____ should be sufficient to supply at least two full loads of such quantity of _____ where

sufficient additional water supplies are immediately available to ensure rapid replenishment of the water content

carried. (ASM 2.3.4)

a)

foam concentrate, water

b)

water, foam concentrate

c)

foam, foam

d)

water, water

9.

The level of protection at aerodromes used for all-cargo aeroplanes operations may be reduced based on the need to protect only the area around the_______ of an all cargo aeroplane in the critical area concept.

(ASM 2.1.8)

a)

cockpit

b)

fuselage

c)

fire side

d)

fire free side

10.

What is the Critical Area Concept?

(ASM 2.4)

a)

The critical area is a concept

for rescue of the occupants of

an aircraft within the airport

category.

b)

The critical area is a concept

for rescue of the occupants of

an aircraft.

c)

The critical area is only a

concept for rescue of the

occupants of an aircraft.

d)

The critical area is not a

concept used for rescue of the

occupants of an aircraft.

11.

Vehicles must be equipped with two-way radio communications equipment, through which their movements can at all times be subject to direction by watchroom operator. (ASM 4.3.1)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

12.

Either a take-off and landing constitutes a movement.

(ASM 2.1.5)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

13.

Nearest water hydrant to replenish vehicles may be required in as little as five minutes after an accident

(ASM 3.1.2)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

14.

The quantity of foam to be produced in order to safeguard the integrity of an aircraft fuselage adjacent to a fire can be

calculated using the practical critical area concept.

(ASM 8.1.1)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

15.

FFFP?

(ASM 8.1.2)

a)

Forming film fluoro protein

b)

Film foaming fluoro protein

c)

Film forming fluoro protein

d)

Fluro forming film protein

16.

What is the application rate of a Performance level B during fire test?

(ASM 8.1.5)

a)

4.1 L/min/m2

b)

2.5 L/min/m2

c)

1.56 L/min/m2

d)

5.5 L/min/m2

17.

The foam concentrate should be as neutral as

possible and should register between the values of_______.

(ASM 8.1.5)

a)

8.5 and 5.5

b)

3.5 and 8.5

c)

6 and 8.5

d)

3.5 and 6

18.

Every individual in CAG is ______ to participate and contribute toward the safety of the whole operation of the company.

(CAG SMS 1.3.4)

a)

advised

b)

encourage

c)

responsible

d)

forced

19.

_________in Changi Airport Group are accountable for the delivery of the highest level of safety performance.

(CAG SMS 1.3)

a)

All levels of management and

all employers

b)

All stakeholders and all

partners

c)

Only the management and all

stakeholders

d)

All levels of management and

all employees

20.

Which is the custodian of the Aerodrome Manuals and SMS Manual.

(CAG SMS 1.3.1.5)

a)

ASC

b)

MCM

c)

ASU

d)

SWC

21.

Within the Changi and Seletar, the Aerodrome Safety Unit (ASU) assists the senior management as the Safety

Office. (CAG SMS 1.3.1.5)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

22.

(CAG SMS 3.1.2)

a)

0.62, any point

b)

0.60, any end

c)

0.60, aircraft movement area

d)

0.62, threshold

23.

(CAG SMS 1.3.1)

a)

safety working

b)

aerodrome safety

c)

airport safety

d)

safety management

24.

Conducting officer and safety officer will report to the Senior Airport Emergency Officer.

(ADAM SECT 4 2.3)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

25.

The reaction time is considered

(ADAM SECT 4 12.2.1)

a)

to be the time between the

initial call to responding starts

its engine.

b)

to be the time between the

initial call to the time when the

last responding vehicle starts

its engine.

c)

to be the time the initial call to

the time when the last

responding vehicle starts its

engine.

d)

to be the time between the

initial call to the time when the

first responding vehicle starts

its engine.

26.

All operators tasked to operate a vehicle in the airport / airbase premises has to obtain a valid Airfield Driving

License before commencement of driving.

(ADAM SECT 4 10.6.1)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

27.

Duty NCO should simulate various realistic scenarios where an aircraft/building fire could/might occur.

(ADAM SECT 4 5.4.a.i)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

28.

BA training is to ensure the staff don and operate the BA set confidently, so as to demonstrate the searching for

victims in ___________.

(ADAM SECT 4 4.1)

a)

burning, smoke filled

aircraft/building or other

hostile environments

professionally.

b)

burning, smoke filled aircraft

or other hostile environments

professionally.

c)

burning, smoke filled building

or other hostile environments

professionally.

d)

burning, smoke filled

environment or other hostile

environments professionally.

29.

Thorough familiarization of the movement area in order for the AEO to demonstrate their ability to:


Which sentence is not true;

(ADAM SECT 4 6.1.a)

a)

familiarization with the air side

operating rules and

regulations, including accident

reporting procedures.

b)

know the aerodrome lighting

and ground markings

c)

identify the training objectives

and deliverable

d)

recognize landmarks

especially during night

operations

30.

The role of the conducting officer will include except;

(ADAM SECT 4 1.3.2)

a)

To deliver the training.

b)

To make arrangement to

prepare the training facilities.

c)

To assess if the training had

been conducted effectively.

d)

To ensure the proper recording of the

conducted training after the training.

e)

NONE OF THE ABOVE

31.

AES takes a serious approach on the driving standards of its personnel as it serves a core part of our daily duties. Moreover, one of the main safety indicators is to maintain 0.5 major accidents or MOM reportable incidents per year.

(SAFE MANUAL 15.1)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

32.

What is the WBGT and Work-Rest Cycle for High Risk?

(SAFE MANUAL 14.5)

a)

31 - 31.9, 30 mins : 15 mins

b)

30- 30.9, 45 mins : 15 mins

c)

32 - 32.9, 30 mins : 30 mins

d)

33 - 33.9, 15 mins : 30 mins

33.

At the start of the shift duty, all crew shall have their body temperature taken. Crew with body temperature greater than ______ shall not be allowed to take part in any physical activities.

(SAFE MANUAL 14.3)

a)

39.0C

b)

38.5C

c)

30.5C

d)

37.5C

34.

Choose the correct answer.

(SAFE MANUAL 3.3.d)

a)

Aircraft topograhy, Safety Time out

b)

Aerodrome familiarisation, spot the hazard

c)

Aircraft familiarisation, Safety Time out

d)

Internal safe audit, sms training

35.

The AES Safety Manager is appointed to assist in the implementation and management of the day-to-day functions of the SMS (Safety Management System) and OHSAS (Occupational Health & Safety Assessment Series).

(SAFE MANUAL 2.6)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

36.

AES shall establish Safety management programme with reference to the key WSH performance indicators...

(SAFE MANUAL 4.1)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

37.

AES Mission Objectives are:-

a)

To ensure that AES officers

are proficient to deal with all

foreseeable emergencies

involving aircraft;

b)

To maintain a high state of

preparedness at all times and

be able to meet ICAO

standards and recommended

practices in the response

times and effective mitigation

in an aircraft

emergency/accident;

c)

To ensure that there are

adequate airport fire vehicles,

marine craft and equipment

that are effectively manned for

the speedy mitigation of an

aircraft accident;

d)

To ensure that there are

adequate airport fire vehicles,

marine craft and equipment

that are effectively manned for

the speedy mitigation of an

aircraft accident;

e)

ALL THE ABOVE

38.

The centre piece of the emblem resembles a shield which signifies ____________.

(OUR MISSION

a)

AES’ role to provide fire

protection within the

aerodrome.

b)

AES’ role in providing fire

protection within the

aerodrome.

c)

AES’ main role in providing

fire

protection within the

aerodrome.

d)

AES’ main role in providing fire

protection within the aerodrome.

39.

Provide rescue and fire protection at Changi and Seletar Airports as well as the RSAF airbases

within the Republic to the highest standards prescribed by International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO)

so that these aerodromes / airbases can remain operational.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

40.

In the middle of the shield are the helmet and 2 axes which are the universal symbols for Rescue

and Fire Fighting and serve to remind us of our mission and objectives.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

41.

Runway standby position for RFF vehicles in anticipation of an emergency may be ________________________to provide the best possible coverage.

(ASM 12.1.2)

a)

predetermined, and documented

b)

repositioned, and documented

c)

preferred, and documented

d)

non-exhaustive, and documented

42.

it is preferable for the emergency equipment to be located near the _________________ and then to follow the aircraft down the runway after ground contact.

(ASM 12.1.3)

a)

end of runway

b)

point of touchdown

c)

north or south standby

d)

point of any runway

43.

______ should not be used in the intake or exhaust of turbine engines unless control cannot be secured with the other agents and the fire appears to be in danger of spreading.

(ASM 12.2.10)

a)

Foam

b)

Water

c)

Dry Chemical

d)

Halontron

44.

Which classes of dangerous goods does Flammable solids; substances liable to spontaneous combustion; substances which, in contact with water, emit flammable gases belongs to;

(ASM 12.4.5)

a)

Class 7

b)

Class 4

c)

Class 6

d)

Class 2

45.

RFF personnel should be well versed in three types of extinguishment.

(ASM 14.3.2)

a)

Direct straight stream method

b)

Indirect firefighting method

c)

Three-dimensional method

d)

All the Above