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Level 4 SS HCC Exam 1

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. The client suddenly develops severe dyspnea, tachycardia, and lung crackles and the nurse suspects pulmonary edema. The nurse immediately asks another nurse to contact the health care provider and prepares to implement which priority intervention?

 

Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

a)

Administering oxygen.

b)

Inserting a Foley catheter.

c)

Administering furosemide.

d)

Administering Morphine Sulfate intravenously.

e)

Transporting the client to the coronary care unit.

2.

The nurse is watching a cardiac monitor and notices the rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves, the QRS complexes are wide, and the ventricular rate is regular but more than 140 beats per minute. The nurse determines the client is experiencing which dysrhythmia?

a)

Sinus tachycardia.

b)

Ventricular fibrillation.

c)

Ventricular tachycardia.

d)

Premature ventricular contractions.

3.

A hospitalized client has continuous electrocardiographic (ECG) monitoring and the monitor shows the rhythm has suddenly changed to ventricular tachycardia. Upon entering the room, the nurse notes the client is awake and alert and speaks to the nurse. Which priority action should the nurse take?

 

Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

a)

Administer intravenous amiodarone according to emergency protocol.

b)

Obtain the defibrillator and defibrillate the client.

c)

Quickly assess that client's blood pressure and pulse.

d)

Administer a precordial thump.

e)

Ask the UAP to contact the client's family.

4.

A client who had cardiac surgery 24 hours ago has had a urine output averaging 20 ml/hour for 2 hours. The client received a single bolus of 500 ml of intravenous fluid. Urine output for the subsequent hour was 25 ml. Daily laboratory results indicate the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is 45 mg/dl and the serum creatinine level is 2.2 mg/dl. On the basis of these findings, the nurse would anticipate that the client is at risk for which problem?

a)

Hypovolemia.

b)

Acute kidney injury.

c)

Glomerulonephritis.

d)

Urinary tract infection.

5.

The nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing labored breathing and low oxygen levels. X-ray results show pulmonary edema. The physician orders furosemide IV. What finding would require immediate nursing action?

a)

Blood pressure 98/54.

b)

Urinary output 45 mL/hr.

c)

Potassium 1.8 mEq/L.

d)

Heart rate 110 bpm.

6.

The nurse providing care to an 18-year-old male who has cystic fibrosis. Which complication can arise from this diagnosis? 

 

Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

a)

Dyspnea.

b)

Hyperoxemia.

c)

Coughing.

d)

Weight gain.

e)

Excessive mucous production.

7.

A client with acute kidney injury has a GFR (glomerular filtration rate) of 40 mL/min. Which signs and symptoms below may this client present with?

 

Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

a)

Hypervolemia.

b)

Hypokalemia.

c)

Increased BUN level.

d)

Decreased creatinine level.

8.

Which of these findings is the best indicator that the fluid resuscitation for a client with hypovolemic shock has been successful?

a)

Hemoglobin is within normal limits.

b)

Urine output is 60 mL over the last hour.

c)

Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is normal.

d)

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 65 mm Hg.

9.

When caring for a child experiencing anaphylactic shock, which of the following is the most important nursing action?

a)

Counteract hypertension.

b)

Facilitate breathing.

c)

Reverse sympathetic nervous system responses.

d)

Enhance the action of histamine.

10.

The nurse is planning care for a client diagnosed with cardiogenic shock. Which nursing intervention is most helpful to decrease myocardial oxygen consumption?

a)

Limit interaction with visitors.

b)

Avoid heavy meals.

c)

Maintain activity restriction to bedrest.

d)

Arrange personal care supplies nearby.

11.

Which patients are at risk for acute intra-renal injury?

a)

A 65 year old male with benign prostatic hyperplasia.

b)

A 25 year old female receiving chemotherapy.

c)

A 36 year old female with renal artery stenosis.

d)

A 6 year old male with acute glomerulonephritis.

e)

An 87 year old male who is taking an aminoglycoside medication for an infection.

12.

Tall peaked T-waves, flat P-waves, prolonged PR intervals and widened QRS complexes can present in which condition?

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hypernatremia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hypokalemia

13.

A patient is taking Digoxin. What medication on the patient’s medication list increases the patient’s risk of experiencing Digoxin toxicity?

a)

Furosemide

b)

Coumadin

c)

Nitroglycerine

d)

Metformin

14.

A client with a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is to receive an oral dose of sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).

Which should the nurse monitor after giving the client the medication?

a)

Urine output.

b)

Blood pressure.

c)

Bowel movements.

d)

ECG for tall, peaked T waves

15.

You're providing care to a patient being treated for aspiration pneumonia. The patient is on a 100% non-rebreather mask.

 

Which finding is a HALLMARK sign and symptom that the patient is developing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

a)

Bradypnea.

b)

Confusion.

c)

PaO2 remains unchanged.

d)

Blood pressure is 180/96.

16.

A patient with respiratory failure has a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min and an oxygen saturation (SpO2) of 78%.

The patient is increasingly lethargic. Which intervention will the nurse anticipate?

a)

Administration of 100% O2 by non-rebreather mask

b)

Endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation

c)

Initiation of continuous positive pressure ventilation (CPAP)

d)

Insertion of a mini-tracheostomy with frequent suctioning

17.

Which clinical findings are consistent with sepsis diagnostic criteria?

 

Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

a)

Urine output 50 mL/hr

b)

Hypoactive bowel sounds

c)

Temperature of 102° F (38.9° C)

d)

Heart rate of 96 beats per minute

e)

Mean arterial pressure 60 mm Hg

18.

A client is experiencing septic shock and infrequent bowel sounds. To ensure adequate nutrition, the nurse provides which intervention?

a)

A continuous infusion of total parenteral nutrition

b)

Isotonic enteral nutrition every 6 hours

c)

A full liquid diet

d)

An infusion of crystalloids at an increased rate of flow

19.

A 78-kg patient with septic shock has a pulse rate of 120 beats/min. Urine output has been 30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. Which order by the health care provider should the nurse question?

a)

Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV.

b)

Increase normal saline infusion to 250 mL/hr.

c)

Give hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV.

d)

Titrate norepinephrine to keep systolic blood pressure (BP) above 90 mm Hg.

20.

A 16-year old patient with cystic fibrosis is admitted with increased shortness of breath and possible pneumonia. Which nursing activity is most important to include in the patient's care?

a)

Perform postural drainage and chest physiotherapy every 4 hours.

b)

Allow the patient to decide whether she needs aerosolized medications.

c)

Place the patient in a private room to decrease the risk of further infection.

d)

Plan activities to allow at least 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep

21.

A nurse is caring for a patient with ARDS. Which position should the nurse place the patient in to optimize oxygenation?

a)

Supine with legs elevated

b)

Prone position

c)

Trendelenburg position

d)

Left lateral position

22.

A nurse is preparing discharge teaching for a patient recovering from ARDS. Which topic should be the priority?

a)

Importance of smoking cessation

b)

Recognition of signs of respiratory distress

c)

Dietary modifications for weight loss

d)

Scheduling follow-up appointments

23.

A nurse is caring for a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI). Which teaching point is the priority before discharge?

a)

Importance of maintaining a low-protein diet

b)

Monitoring for signs of fluid overload and infection

c)

Scheduling follow-up appointments with nephrology

d)

Understanding the need for lifelong dialysis

24.

A nurse assesses a hospitalized patient and suspects Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS). Which findings meet the diagnostic criteria for early SIRS?

 


Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

a)

Temperature 38.6°C (101.5°F)

b)

Heart rate 112 beats/min

c)

Respiratory rate 24 breaths/min

d)

White blood cell count 3,800/mm³

e)

Serum lactate 4.5 mmol/L

25.

A patient with COPD has the following ABG results: pH 7.34, PaCO₂ 58 mm Hg, HCO₃⁻ 30 mEq/L. What is the correct interpretation?

a)

Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated

b)

Respiratory acidosis, partially compensated

c)

Metabolic alkalosis, uncompensated

d)

Respiratory acidosis, fully compensated

26.

A nurse is caring for a patient with suspected post-renal acute kidney injury (AKI). Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to observe?

a)

Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels

b)

Urine output greater than 2000 mL/day

c)

Oliguria with urine output less than 400 mL/day

d)

Increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

27.

A patient develops acute kidney injury (AKI) following prolonged hypotension during surgery. The nurse notes muddy brown casts in the urinalysis. Which type of AKI is the patient most likely experiencing?

a)

Prerenal AKI

b)

Intrarenal AKI (acute tubular necrosis)

c)

Postrenal AKI

d)

Chronic kidney disease

28.

A patient with intrarenal AKI from nephrotoxic antibiotics is receiving multiple medications. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Administer all medications as ordered without changes

b)

Consult with the nephrologist and pharmacist about dosage adjustments

c)

Hold all medications until kidney function improves

d)

Increase fluid intake to flush out the medications

29.

A 10-year-old child with cystic fibrosis is seen in the clinic for routine follow-up. The nurse reviews the child’s latest pulmonary function test results and nutritional assessment. The child’s forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV₁) has decreased to 60% of predicted, and recent weight is at the 10th percentile for age and height. Based on these findings, which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

a)

Encourage low-fat meals to decrease digestive workload

b)

Administer pancreatic enzymes with meals and snacks

c)

Avoid supplemental high-calorie snacks between meals

d)

Withhold airway clearance therapy because of fatigue

30.

A nurse is caring for a patient with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation who has undergone left atrial appendage (LAA) closure with a Watchman device. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of post-procedure care?

a)

"I can stop taking all blood thinners immediately after the procedure."

b)

"I'll need to take aspirin and warfarin for about 45 days after insertion."

c)

"The device will be removed once my heart rhythm returns to normal."

d)

"I won't need any follow-up imaging since the device is permanent."