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RS244 - Final Review

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the suggested steps to create a process of critical thinking from our spatial thinking class?

1. Accurately identify the consequences of each decided option in positioning and making a final choice

2. Act on an approach immediately before creating a mental list of possible approaches

3. Focus on the desired outcome

a)

1 & 2

b)

2 & 3

c)

1 & 3

d)

1, 2, & 3

2.

What is the first priority in patient care for desired outcomes according to our lecture?

a)

To provide fast and efficient care for the patients in the ED, CCU, ICU, NICU

b)

Avoid injury to the patient

c)

Minimize movement of the patient from projection to projection

d)

To explain the exam

3.

What is the trick to getting the perfect lateral chest image?

a)

Position the patient perfectly lateral for the image

b)

Position the patient where the side closest to the tube is rotated slightly posterior

c)

Position the patient where the side closest to the tube is rotated slightly anterior

d)

Position the patient where the side closest to the bucky is rotated slightly anterior

4.

Which of the following key points are demonstrated in this example:

When attempting to locate midsagittal plane on a lateral position, the external occipital protuberance and the glabella can be used for reference.

a)

Positioning planes must be evaluated from a true end-on viewpoint

b)

Positioning planes and lines must be viewed by the radiographer from the same vertical level that the patient or anatomy is on

c)

At least two different viewpoints, perpendicular to each other are required in order to properly evaluate all positioning planes necessary for a position

d)

Always use two points to define a positioning line

5.

Which of the following positioning planes can only be seen from an axial viewpoint?

a)

Rotation

b)

Abduction

c)

Tilt

d)

Flexion

6.

Which of the following positioning planes can only be seen from a face on viewpoint?

a)

Extension

b)

Rotation

c)

Adduction

d)

Flexion

7.

Which of the following positioning planes can only be seen from the side or lateral viewpoint?

a)

Abduction

b)

Tilt

c)

Rotation

d)

Flexion

8.

In the average 9”torso or head positioning, for every 10-degrees of rotation, tilt, flexion, or extension, adjust the centering of the CR by how much?

a)

¼ inch

b)

½ inch

c)

1 inch

d)

2 inches

9.

What will result if the grid IR is leaning on a mobile lateral decubitus examination of the chest or abdomen?

a)

Increased scatter

b)

Distortion

c)

The distal anatomy will not be demonstrated

d)

The proximal anatomy will not be demonstrated

10.

During mobile radiography, the least amount of scattered radiation will occur at what angle to the object being radiographed?

a)

45-degrees

b)

50-degrees

c)

70-degrees

d)

90-degrees

11.

To keep exposure times to a minimum during mobile radiography, the recommended SID should be ____ inches.

a)

30

b)

36

c)

40

d)

48

12.

Which position is recommended for a mobile AP chest examination on a critically ill patient per Merrills?

a)

Seated upright at a 90-degree angle

b)

Seated upright at a 45-degree angle

c)

Supine

d)

Left lateral decubitus

13.

During mobile radiography, the radiographer should be standing at what degree of angle from the primary beam?

a)

0-degrees

b)

45-degrees

c)

90-degrees

d)

45-90-degrees

14.

During a mobile exposure, the radiographer should be how far from the object being radiographed?

a)

4 feet

b)

5 feet

c)

6 feet

d)

10 feet

15.

According to federal regulations, the source-to-skin (SSD) distance during mobile radiography may not be less than ____ inches.

a)

10

b)

12

c)

15

d)

24

16.

Most grids used for mobile radiography have ratios of:

a)

6:1 or 8:1

b)

8:1 or 10:1

c)

10:1 or 12:1

d)

12:1 or 16:1

17.

The single most effective means of radiation protection during mobile radiography is:

a)

Distance

b)

Exposure time

c)

Choice of kVp

d)

Use of a nongrid technique

18.

What type of fracture happens when one of the fractured bone ends is jammed into the cancellous tissue of another fragment?

a)

Closed

b)

Callus

c)

Impacted

d)

Complete

19.

Shoulder dislocations are most commonly displaced

a)

Anteriorly

b)

Posteriorly

c)

Interiorly

d)

Exteriorly

20.

Fractures that occur at sites of maximal strain on a bone, usually in connection with unaccustomed activity, are classified as _____ fractures.

a)

Avulsion

b)

Fatigue

c)

Growth plate

d)

Stress

21.

For an AP Portable chest exam, which direction should the CR be angled on the majority of chest x-rays?

a)

Cephalic

b)

Caudal

c)

Distal

d)

Perpendicular

22.

Which shoulder obscures C7 more in a lateral cervical spine exam?

a)

The shoulder closest to the tube

b)

The shoulder closest to the wall bucky

c)

Both shoulders are equally disruptive

23.

Which of the following are alternatives when grids prevent transverse angles?

a)

Utilize 1/3 technique and do the exam without a grid

b)

Change grid placement by turning the grid so the lines are crosswise

c)

Utilize the wall bucky

d)

All answers

24.

What disease is defined as incomplete expansion of the lung as a result of a partial or total collapse?

a)

Atelectasis

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Pneumoperitoneum

d)

Pneumonia

25.

How is a pneumothorax best demonstrated with imaging?

a)

Upright Chest AP Inspiration

b)

Upright Chest PA Expiration

c)

Left Lateral Decubitus Chest

d)

Supine Chest AP

26.

What disease is defined as occurring when free air is trapped in the pleural space and compresses the lung tissue?

a)

Atelectasis

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Pneumoperitoneum

d)

Pneumonia

27.

According to Merrills, what projection may be substituted for a left lateral decubitus abdomen position exam when the patient is too ill or injured?

a)

Upright

b)

Oblique

c)

Supine

d)

Lateral

28.

How do we adjust our technique if we move from a 40” SID to a 72” SID?

a)

2x mAs or 22% kVp increase

b)

3x mAs or 22% kVp increase

c)

3x mAs or 22% kVp decrease

d)

3x mAs or 15% kVp increase

29.

Which of the following SIDs would produce the least amount of magnification?

a)

32”

b)

40”

c)

48”

d)

72

30.

At what degree of angulation is the beginning of an obvious elongation of the light field?

a)

5-degrees

b)

10-degrees

c)

15-degrees

d)

20-degrees

31.

Using a 72” SID, this amount ________for all projections.

a)

Increases 1 inch

b)

Increases 2 inches

c)

Decreases 1 inch

d)

Decreases 2 inches

32.

Signs of shock include all of the following except:

a)

Cool, clammy skin

b)

Diaphoresis

c)

Excessive thirst

d)

Vomiting

33.

Each edge of the projected light field is required to be within about _______ of the actual edge of the x-ray field when the exposure is made.

a)

1 inch

b)

¾ inch

c)

¼ inch

d)

1/2 inch

34.

If the collimator indicates the field size is 12 inches, what is the size of the visible light field on the patient for a lateral lumbar?

a)

10 inches

b)

14 inches

c)

8 inches

d)

6 inches

35.

What system accounts for almost 50% of disability in patients older than 65?

a)

Cardiovascular

b)

Gastrointestinal

c)

Musculoskeletal

d)

Nervous

36.

A common cause of death in patients with Alzheimer’s

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Elder abuse

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Hemorrhagic stroke

37.

Traditional positioning for a chest radiograph may be difficult for a mobile elderly patient. An alternative would be to

a)

Position them for an AP

b)

Have a CT scan for the chest

c)

Wrap his or her arms around the wall bucky

d)

Leave arms down at the side

38.

A common fracture site for an elderly person with osteoporosis is the

a)

First metatarsal

b)

Distal radius

c)

Humeral head

d)

Olecranon process

39.

Exposure factors for the elderly

a)

Do not require any changes

b)

Call for increased kVp

c)

May need longer time settings

d)

Often require lower kVp

40.

Which of the following help with communications with geriatric patients?

a)

Bright lighting in the exam room

b)

Speaking lower and closer

c)

Assistance in stepping down from the table

d)

Allowing time for the patient to rest between positions

41.

What is one of the leading causes of death among the elderly?

a)

Bronchitis

b)

Pancreatitis

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Emphysema

42.

When imaging upper and lower limbs on geriatric patients, keep in mind that

a)

Many projections can be combined to decrease time and discomfort

b)

Mobility and flexibility is often decreased

c)

Long bones shrink as age increases

d)

Scatter radiation is greater in those with osteoporosis

43.

Which of the following is not a possible cause of excessive sweating or slurred speech?

a)

Head injury

b)

Drug or ethanol influence

c)

Airway compromise

d)

Stroke

44.

What is a possible noted symptom for a spinal cord injury?

a)

Pale or bluish skin pallor

b)

Tingling or numbness in the limb

c)

Increased abdominal distension

d)

Increased drowsiness (lethargy

45.

When imaging a patient with pathologic changes like internal bleeding in the abdominal cavity, what exposure changes should occur?

a)

Use normal exposure time, no change in mAs

b)

Use a long exposure time, decrease mAs

c)

Use a long exposure time, increase mAs

d)

Use a short exposure time, increase mAs

46.

When imaging conscious patients that are in extreme pain, what type of changes to exposure should occur?

a)

Use a normal exposure time

b)

Use a long exposure time

c)

Use a short exposure time

47.

While positioning the patient, to minimize risk of aggravating the patient condition, the ________ should be positioned rather than the _________.

a)

Part, Gurney

b)

IR, Part

c)

Part, X-ray tube

d)

Gurney, Part

48.

When centering side to side for an oblique position (kidney study) the CR must be recentered __________ to the upside on thick patients than on average patients.

a)

More

b)

Less

c)

No difference with size of patient

49.

For SMV or Axial Patella images, what is the cause of a side to side shift of anatomy in an image?

a)

Rotation

b)

Hyper extension

c)

Hyper flexion

d)

Tilt

50.

The amount of shift of organs is a direct function of the _________ of the anatomy from the exact __________ of the body – structures __________ to the _________ will shift less.

a)

Length, Distance, Closer, Midline

b)

Midline, Distance, Further, Midline

c)

Distance, Midline, Closer, Midline

d)

Distance, Midline, Further, Midline

51.

When a patient is lying supine and the tech rotates that patient to the right, their kidneys will shift in what direction?

a)

No movement

b)

Shift to the right

c)

Shift upward

d)

Shift left

52.

What type of trauma is explained as pressure shock waves, high-velocity projectiles, or burns from projectiles?

a)

Blunt Force

b)

Penetrating Force

c)

Explosive Force

d)

Heat

53.

What type of trauma center is located in a large metropolitan area and serves as both primary care and tertiary care institution. This facility can provide total care for all injuries?

a)

Trauma Level 1

b)

Trauma Level 2

c)

Trauma Level 3

d)

Trauma Level 4

54.

Which period in the Tri-Modal Distribution causes death resulting from intracranial hemorrhage?

a)

First Critical Period

b)

Second Critical Period

c)

Third Critical Period

d)

Fourth Critical Period

55.

What type of skull fracture is best demonstrated with the x-ray beam tangentially to the fracture?

a)

Linear

b)

Depressed

c)

Basilar

d)

Diastatic

56.

For the Lateral projection of the Cranium Dorsal decubitus position, please explain how the central ray enters the skull.

a)

Perpendicular, entering 1 inch superior to the EAM

b)

Perpendicular, entering 1 inch inferior to the EAM

c)

Perpendicular, entering 2 inches inferior to the EAM

d)

Perpendicular, entering 2 inches superior to the EAM

57.

For the Trauma Lateral projection of the Cranium Dorsal decubitus position, please explain how the MSP and Interpupillary line should be positioned with the IR.

a)

MSP horizontal, IP Perpendicular

b)

MSP vertical, IP Perpendicular

c)

MSP Perpendicular, IP Perpendicular

d)

MSP Perpendicular, IP vertical

58.

What projection is the Cranium Reverse Caldwell Method?

a)

AP

b)

PA

c)

AP Axial

d)

PA Axial

59.

For the Cranium Towne Method, what is the angle for the OML in regard to the IR?

a)

15-degrees

b)

30-degrees

c)

37-degrees

d)

Perpendicular

60.

For every 5-degree angle on the tube, how many inches should the technologist consider recentering?

a)

¼ inch

b)

1/2 inch

c)

1 inch

d)

2 inches

61.

If a Calvaria fracture crosses an artery, what may occur?

a)

Meningitis

b)

Encephalitis

c)

Epidural Hematoma

d)

Arterial Cauterization

62.

When talking about an AP Projection of the skull, how does a technologist position the skull?

a)

MSP Perpendicular, OML 15-degrees cephalic

b)

MSP Perpendicular, OML 25-degrees cephalic

c)

MSP Perpendicular, OML 15-degrees caudal

d)

MSP Perpendicular, OML Perpendicular

63.

What projection is the Facial Bones Reverse Waters?

a)

Acanthioparietal

b)

Tangential

c)

PA Axial

d)

Parietoacanthial

64.

What position is the patient for the Facial Bones Reverse Waters?

a)

Prone

b)

Supine

c)

Oblique

d)

Axial

65.

Which body parts can be imaged on pediatric patients using the Pigg-o-Stat immobilizer?

a)

Head and neck

b)

Chest and abdomen

c)

Chest only

d)

Upper and lower limb

66.

Respecting the need for privacy is an important patient care consideration for

a)

Toddlers

b)

Preschoolers

c)

School-agers

d)

Adolescents

67.

All of the following are commonly assessed using hip radiographic images in pediatric patient except:

a)

Legg-Calvé Perthes disease

b)

Traumatic sports injury

c)

Developmental dysplasia of the hip

d)

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

68.

What is the most common location for an aspirated foreign body?

a)

Stomach

b)

Esophagus

c)

Right side of the bronchial tree

d)

Left side of the bronchial tree

69.

Which sinuses are usually aerated at birth?

a)

Maxillary only

b)

Maxillary and frontal only

c)

Maxillary, ethmoid, and sphenoid

d)

All paranasal sinuses are aerated at birth, if normal

70.

Idiopathic scoliosis is most common in

a)

Male infants

b)

Adolescent females

c)

Male toddlers

d)

Utero, between 3-6 weeks gestation

71.

Common reasons for performing skull radiography on a pediatric patient are:

a)

Craniosynostosis and fracture

b)

Sinusitis and fracture

c)

Craniosynostosis and meningomelocele

d)

Meningomyelocele and sinusitis

72.

Which of the following is used to evaluate adequate inspiration on a pediatric chest image?

a)

Superimposition of anterior and posterior midline structures

b)

Visualization of eight to nine posterior ribs

c)

Visualization of the intervertebral disk spaces through the heart

d)

Anatomy from the trachea to the costophrenic angles is seen

73.

How is rotation evaluated on a pediatric chest image?

a)

Superimposition of anterior and posterior midline structures

b)

Visualization of eight to nine posterior ribs

c)

Visualization of intervertebral disk spaces through the heart

d)

Anatomy from the trachea to the costaphrenic angles is seen

74.

When performing limb radiography on a pediatric patient, what may not be required to evaluate for fracture?

a)

Images showing the relative position of the two ends of the bone

b)

The contralateral side

c)

Use of large focal spot

d)

Soft tissue

75.

For the lateral lumbar spine view, what is recommended by Merrills to move the spine parallel?

a)

Bend knees to a 45-degree angle

b)

Bring arms up to shoulder level in front of the patient

c)

Place a sponge under the waist

d)

Place sponge under the arms

76.

Why do we shoot a Norgaard view?

a)

Rule out fracture

b)

Arthritis

c)

Trauma

d)

Pain in joints

77.

Learning about the use of beam divergence what is the recommended degree of angulation for an AP Chest x-ray from our lesson?

a)

None

b)

2-3-degrees

c)

3-5-degrees

d)

5-7-degrees

78.

When observing a lateral routine lumbar exam, the L5-S1 Joint is Open, what is the degree and direction of angle according to our divergence measurements?

a)

Perpendicular, no angle

b)

5-degrees caudal

c)

7-degrees caudal

d)

7-degrees cephalic

79.

Using the Inverse Square Law, what happens to our mAs if we decrease our SID from 40” to 30”?

a)

Double mAs

b)

Reduce mAs in Half

c)

Reduce mAs by one-quarter

d)

Increase mAs by one-quarter

80.

What is the most frequent type of spinal injury involving a vertebral body?

a)

Compression Fx

b)

Hangmans Fx

c)

Jefferson Fx

d)

Spondylolysis

81.

What is the most common site of a compression fracture?

a)

L5-S1

b)

T11-T12

c)

T12-L1

d)

L4-L5

82.

What is the degree and direction of the CR angulation for the AP Axial Cervical Spine projection?

a)

3-5-degrees, cephalad

b)

5-7-degrees, cephalad

c)

10-15-degrees, cephalad

d)

15-20-degrees, cephalad

83.

For a trauma Lateral projection Thoracic Spine view, where does the top of the IR get placed?

a)

1” above the elevated shoulders

b)

1” above the relaxed shoulders

c)

2” above the elevated shoulders

d)

2” above the relaxed shoulders