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Exam 3 Review-Microbiology

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a prokaryote?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Archaea

c)

Fungi

d)

Cyanobacteria

2.

What is TRUE about fungi? Check all that apply.

a)

They have chitin in their cell walls

b)

They are heterotrophs and cannot make their own food

c)

Fungi do not cause disease in humans

d)

They can create spores for reproduction

3.

What are protozoans?

a)

Single-celled prokaryotes

b)

Single-celled eukaryotes

c)

Multicellular prokaryotes

d)

Multicellular eukaryotes

4.

What is TRUE about protozoans? Check all that apply.

a)

They do not have a cell wall

b)

They are never parasitic

c)

Examples include amoebae and trypanosoma

d)

They cannot undergo binary fission

5.

What are rickettsia?

a)

Bacteria that are often transmitted by arthropods like ticks

b)

Bacteria that live independently of a host

c)

Bacteria that do not cause disease

d)

Viruses that infect insects, but not humans

6.

What are parasitic worms?

a)

Eukaryotes that can infect humans inside their body

b)

Prokaryotes that can infect humans inside their body

c)

Eukaryotes that can infect humans outside their body

d)

Prokaryotes that can infect humans outside their body

7.

Why are ticks, mites, and other arthropods a threat to human health?

a)

They act as a vector for bacterial diseases like typhus

b)

They cause disease directly without bacteria being needed

c)

They have a venomous and painful bite

d)

They are dangerous to agriculture

8.

What infectious agent causes rabies?

a)

Protozoan

b)

Bacteria

c)

Virus

d)

Helminths

9.

What is a defining aspect of fungi that is NOT shared by another major group of organisms?

a)

They have a nucleus and mitochondria

b)

They have a cell wall and vacuoles

c)

Some can directly cause disease

d)

They often grow as filamentous structures known as hyphae

10.

Binomial nomenclature is the naming of an organism using which 2 levels of classification?

a)

kingdom and phylum

b)

kingdom and division

c)

genus and kingdom

d)

genus and species

11.

Why is a virus not classified into a kingdom?

a)

most biologists do not consider them living things

b)

they are primitive cells

c)

they can reproduce using binary fission

d)

they can cause disease in plants and animals

12.

an example would include paramecium, algae, and euglena

a)

Archaebacteria/Eubacteria

b)

Protista

c)

Fungi

d)

Plantae

e)

Animalia

13.

eukaryotic, decomposer

a)

Archaebacteria/Eubacteria

b)

Protista

c)

Fungi

d)

Plantae

e)

Animalia

14.

eukaryotic, heterotrophic, multicellular, ex : worm

a)

Archaebacteria/Eubacteria

b)

Protista

c)

Fungi

d)

Plantae

e)

Animalia

15.

prokaryotic

a)

Archaebacteria/Eubacteria

b)

Protista

c)

Fungi

d)

Plantae

e)

Animalia

16.

Select which of the folowing are parts of a virus:

a)

Plasma membrane

b)

Capsid

c)

Nucleic acid

d)

Nucleus

17.

Fungi get their food through photosynthesis.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

A biological agent that consists of nucleic acid and a protein coat. It is not a cell, nor is it considered alive

a)

Virus

b)

Bacteria

c)

Fungi

d)

Protista

19.

The protein coat surrounding a virus

a)

Capsid

b)

Genome

c)

Bacteria

d)

Allele

20.

The cycle where a virus genome penetrates a cell, takes control of cellular processes and replicates new virus genomes while destroying the cell.

a)

Lytic Cycle

b)

Lysogenic Cycle

c)

Lit Cycle

d)

Mitosis

21.

The process where a virus genome

penetrates a cell, joining itself to the cell genome.

It reproduces only when the cell undergoes mitosis.

a)

Lytic Cycle

b)

Lysogenic Cycle

c)

Lit Cycle

d)

Meiosis

22.

A virus that attacks bacteria cells

a)

Capsid

b)

Influenza

c)

HIV

d)

Bacteriophage

23.

This virus is extinct in the wild due to vaccination.

a)

Measles

b)

Smallpox

c)

1918 Influenza Virus

d)

Polio

24.
Which pair correctly matches a vector and the infectious disease it carries? 
a)
human – influenza
b)
opossum – rabies
c)
mosquito – malaria
d)
flea – Lyme disease
25.
Which best describes how athlete’s foot is spread to other individuals?
a)
inhaling fungal spores in the air
b)
eating food contaminated with fungus
c)
having contact with fungus on a shower floor
d)
swimming in a lake that has a large amount of algae
26.
Which is true regarding bacterial and viral infections?
a)
Bacterial infections are treated with antibiotics, while viral infections can be prevented through use of vaccines.
b)
Viral infections are treated with vaccines, while bacterial infections are prevented through use of antibiotics.
c)
Viral infections are treated with antibiotics, while bacterial infections are treated with vaccines.
d)
Both viral infections and bacterial infections are treated with vaccines.
27.
Which best compares an epidemic and a pandemic?
a)
An epidemic is caused by bacteria, while a pandemic is caused by viruses.
b)
A pandemic is spread by humans, while an epidemic is spread by insects and rodents.
c)
A pandemic occurs in a small region, while an epidemic occurs in a much larger region.
d)
An epidemic affects a small population of humans, while a pandemic affects a large population of humans.
28.
In 1918, an outbreak of influenza infected 500,000 people all over the world. Tens of millions of those infected died. In 1994, an outbreak of pneumonic plague spread quickly through the city of Surat in India, killing 52 people. Which statement best describes the two events?
a)
Both outbreaks were pandemics.
b)
Both outbreaks were epidemics.
c)
The influenza outbreak was a pandemic. The plague outbreak was an epidemic.
d)
The influenza outbreak was an epidemic. The plague outbreak was a pandemic.
29.

Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of a

a)

nosocomial infection.

b)

sporadic disease.

c)

communicable disease.

d)

latent infection.

e)

None

30.

In mice, the LD50 for staphylococcal enterotoxin is 1350 ng/kg, and the LD50 for Shiga toxin is 250 ng/kg. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Staphylococcal enterotoxin is the more lethal of the two toxins.

b)

The parenteral route is the preferred portal entry for Shigella bacteria.

c)

Shiga toxin is more lethal than staphylococcal enterotoxin.

d)

More organisms of Staphylococcal bacteria must be ingested to cause infection, as compared to Shigella bacteria.

31.

All of the following are used by bacteria to attach to host cells EXCEPT

a)

Fimbrae

b)

A-B toxins

c)

Ligands

d)

Capsules

32.

Refers to the direct transfer of an agent by physical contact between its sources and susceptible host, no intermediate object involved

a)

direct contact

b)

indirect contact

c)

arthropods

d)

droplet transmission

33.

Exert its effect when the bacterium dies

a)

exotoxin

b)

endotoxin

c)

neurotoxin

d)

cytotoxin

34.

Remains inactive for a time but then becomes active to produce the symptoms of the disease

a)

acute

b)

chronic

c)

severe

d)

latent

35.

Select all that apply. Which are example(s) of bacteria?

a)

TB (tuberculosis)

b)

Influenza (Flu)

c)

salmonella

d)

streptococcus pneumoniae

e)

E. coli

36.

Select all that apply. Which are examples of Mycoses (Fungi)?

a)

yeast infection

b)

Ringworm

c)

athletes foot

d)

blastomycosis

e)

roundworm

37.

Select all that apply. Which are examples of protozoa?

a)

amebiasis

b)

tapeworm

c)

rhizopoda

d)

giardiasis

e)

malaria

38.

Select all that apply. Which are examples of Helminths?

a)

Roundworms

b)

tapeworms

c)

ringworms

d)

blastomycosis

39.

Select all that apply. Which are examples of viruses?

a)

Influenza

b)

herpes

c)

polio

d)

HIV

e)

viral hepatitis

40.

Select all that apply. Which are types of arthropods?

a)

humans

b)

mosquitoes

c)

pollen

d)

mites

e)

ticks

41.

An organism or vehicle that transmits the causative agent or disease-causing organism from the reservoir to the host.

a)

host

b)

vector

c)

agent

d)

pathogen

42.

An infectious disease that is transmitted between species from animals to humans (or from humans to animals).

a)

zoonosis

b)

osmosis

c)

neorosis

d)

fibrosis

43.

Adhesion is ...

a)

component of appendage on the surface bacteria that helps their adhesion to other cells

b)

a protein that allows a pathogen to colonize the host's body

c)

a protein that allows pathogens to enter cells

d)

a protein produced by pathogens that poisons hosts cells

44.

A toxin is ...

a)

component of appendage on the surface bacteria that helps their adhesion to other cells

b)

a protein that allows a pathogen to colonize the host's body

c)

a protein that allows pathogens to enter cells

d)

a protein produced by pathogens that poisons hosts cells

45.

A protein produced and released by a pathogen is a...

a)

Endotoxin

b)

Exotoxin

46.

Which of the following statistics would describe the strong virulence of a microorganism?

a)

When exposed to E. coli strain O157:17, 60% of people will become sick

b)

Y. pestis causes severe illness and death in 100% of individuals if untreated.

c)

50% of the population is a carrier of S. aureus

d)

25% of people exposed to tuberculosis will become infected

47.
Antibodies not only protect us from infections, they can also be used in laboratories to determine whether or not a patient has or has had a disease.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
48.

2. This refers to any substance that causes your immune system to produce antibodies against it.

a)

a. antigen

b)

b. nucleic acid

c)

c. antibodies

d)

d. both a & b

49.

5. This is an analysis that is most commonly in use to detect antigen or nucleic acid of the infectious agent.

a)

a. assay

b)

b. rapid/simple single- use assays

c)

simple single-use assay

d)

immunoassays

50.

The advantage of the ELISA is that it is...

a)

....quick but expensive

b)

....sensitive and kind

c)

....quick, cheap and rarely gives false positives

d)

...quick, cheap and sensitive

51.

What is a mass of hyphae called?

a)

Mycelium

b)

Hyphal netting

c)

Fungal transport system

d)

Lichens

52.

Fungi do not use roots to anchor to their food source. Instead they use __________.

a)

xylem

b)

hyphae

c)

spores

d)

gills

53.

The diploid generation of a yeast may also reproduce asexually by:

a)

budding

b)

binary fission

c)

meiosis

54.
Which protist causes malaria?
a)
plasmodium
b)
anopheles
c)
trypanosoma
d)
chagas
55.

The diagnosis of this parasite involves the use of cellophane tape to recover the eggs in the perianal region.

a)

Ascaris lumbricoides

b)

Hookworm

c)

Trichuris trichiura

d)

Enterobius vermicularis

e)

Strongyloides stercoralis

56.

A protozoan is usually defined as:

a)

motile, prokaryotic, unicellular protist

b)

motile, eukaryotic, unicellular protist

c)

motile, eukaryotic, unicellular, photosynthetic protist

d)

motile, eukaryotic, multicellular protist

57.

What stage in a protozoa's life cycle which exists with a protective capsule that permits protozoa to survive unfavorable conditions outside the body of a host?

a)

egg

b)

planula

c)

trophozoite

d)

cyst

58.

Viruses can have the following genetic material, EXCEPT...

a)

double-stranded RNA

b)

single-stranded RNA

c)

triple-stranded DNA

d)

single-stranded DNA

59.

Why are prions so lethal?

a)

They involve RNA misfolding

b)

They mainly affect the respiratory system

c)

No cure has yet been found for them

d)

They are easily transmissible through the air

60.

How do oncogenic viruses contribute to cancer?

a)

They slow down cell cycle progression

b)

They prevent genome instability

c)

They provoke an immune response

d)

They stop programmed cell death

61.
Objective evidence of infection
a)
sign
b)
symptom
c)
syndrome
62.
Subjective evidence of infection
a)
sign
b)
symptom
c)
syndrome
63.
Period after infection but before the host becomes symptomatic
a)
Prodromal phase
b)
Period of invasion
c)
Incubation period
d)
Convalescent period
64.
Period of the worst symptoms
a)
Prodromal phase
b)
Period of invasion
c)
Incubation period
d)
Convalescent period
65.
Period of the onset  of symptoms
a)
Prodromal phase
b)
Period of invasion
c)
Incubation period
d)
Convalescent period
66.
Period of the lessening of symptoms until recovery
a)
Prodromal phase
b)
Period of invasion
c)
Incubation period
d)
Convalescent period
67.

Any of various infectious proteins that are abnormal forms of normal cellular proteins. They proliferate by inducing normal proteins to convert to the abnormal form causing diseases such as: as mad cow disease, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, and kuru.

a)

fungi

b)

bacteria

c)

virus

d)

protozoa

e)

prion

68.

Also known as shingles, is a viral disease characterized by a painful skin rash with blisters in a localized area. Typically the rash occurs in a single, wide stripe either on the left or right side of the body or face.

a)

herpes zoster

b)

hodgkin's disease

c)

human immunodeficiency virus

d)

hemolytic

69.

This virus is mainly confined to Africa (however, there have been cases recently in the United States). This virus causes flu like symptoms that quickly progress to vomitting, internal and external bleeding.

a)

T4 bacteriophage

b)

Ebola

c)

Varicella Zoster

d)

Epstein Barr

e)

Human Immunodeficiency Virus

70.

This virus is commonly spread by mosquitos and can spread through the blood and into the brain where it can cause brain inflammation.

a)

Dengue

b)

West Nile

c)

Rotavirus

d)

Human Papillomavirus

e)

Poliovirus

71.

What was the name of the bacteria that spread the Black Plague?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Yersinia Pestis

c)

Blue Green Bacteria

d)

Athletes Foot

72.
What does C. Diff short for?
a)
Cluster difference
b)
Clostridium difficile
c)
Clostridium difference
d)
Coccus difficile
73.
What is the major symptom of a C. diff infection?
a)
inflammation of the tonsils
b)
inflammation of the lymph nodes
c)
5-10 clear, watery bowl movements a day
d)
constipation
74.
Candida albicans causes
a)
yeast infection
b)
ringworm
c)
jock itch
d)
athlete's foot
75.

Red tides can be toxic because of a toxin released by these unicellular protists

a)

diatoms

b)

dinoflagellates

c)

protozoans

d)

all answers are correct

76.

Gram-negative bacteria that causes stomach ulcers.

a)

Helicobacter pylori

b)

Bacillus anthracis

c)

Clostridium botulinum

d)

Neisseria meningitidis

e)

Clostridium perfringens

77.

Gram-positive bacteria that produces a nerve toxin that can cause paralysis in infected individuals. This bacteria is primarily contracted by eating contaminated food.

a)

Helicobacter pylori

b)

Bacillus anthracis

c)

Clostridium botulinum

d)

Neisseria meningitidis

e)

Clostridium perfringens

78.

Sprial-shaped, gram-negative bacteria that causes Lyme disease.

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Multiple-resistant staphylococcus aureus

c)

Borrelia burgdorferi

d)

Lactobaccillus acidophilus

e)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

79.

Gram-negative, coccobacillus bacteria found in rodents and their fleas that causes the Bubonic plague.

a)

Chlamydia trachomatis

b)

Yersinia pestis

c)

Escherichia coli

d)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

e)

Vibrio cholera

80.

The Plasmodium protozoan parasite causes what disease?

a)

Malaria

b)

Zika

c)

Chikungunya

d)

Dengue

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