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Pharmacology Final Exam Review Part 2

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient with Addison’s disease is prescribed hydrocortisone. The nurse should teach the patient to:

a)

Take the medication only when symptoms occur

b)

Take the medication at the same time each day

c)

Avoid taking the medication during times of stress

d)

Double the dose if a dose is missed

2.

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving long-term corticosteroid therapy. Which teaching is most important?

a)

Increase sodium intake to prevent hypotension

b)

Discontinue the medication if Cushingoid features appear

c)

Do not stop the medication abruptly; tapering is required

d)

Limit potassium-rich foods while on therapy

3.

Which finding indicates Cushing’s syndrome from corticosteroid excess?

a)

Hypotension and weight loss

b)

Moon face and truncal obesity

c)

Hyperpigmentation of the skin

d)

Low blood glucose

4.

Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely with corticosteroid therapy?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hyponatremia

d)

Hypocalcemia

5.

A patient on total parenteral nutrition (TPN) develops sudden shortness of breath and chest pain. The nurse’s priority action is to:

a)

Assess blood glucose

b)

Notify the physician

c)

Place the patient in Trendelenburg and on the left side

d)

Increase the infusion rate

6.

Which complication is most concerning when caring for a patient receiving TPN?

a)

Electrolyte imbalance

b)

Weight gain

c)

Phlebitis at the IV site

d)

Infection due to central line use

7.

Why must blood glucose be closely monitored during TPN infusion?

a)

Because the solution contains high amounts of fat

b)

Because TPN is a hypertonic glucose solution

c)

Because TPN contains only amino acids

d)

Because the lipids are infused separately

8.

When discontinuing TPN abruptly, the patient is at risk for:

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Hyponatremia

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Hypermagnesemia

9.

A nurse is providing education about orlistat for weight management. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

I should take this medication with meals containing fat.

b)

I may have oily stools as a side effect.

c)

I do not need to follow a diet while taking this medication.

d)

This drug works by decreasing fat absorption.

10.

Which adverse effect is common with phentermine for weight loss?

a)

Constipation

b)

Increased heart rate and insomnia

c)

Excessive drowsiness

d)

Bradycardia

11.

The nurse teaches that lorcaserin, a weight loss medication, acts by:

a)

Increasing fat metabolism in adipose tissue

b)

Activating serotonin receptors to promote satiety

c)

Blocking pancreatic lipase to prevent fat absorption

d)

Stimulating dopamine release to reduce cravings

12.

The most important teaching for a patient taking weight-loss medications is:

a)

They can replace lifestyle modifications

b)

They must be combined with diet and exercise for best effect

c)

They prevent regaining weight permanently

d)

They have no risk of adverse effects

13.

A patient taking omeprazole for peptic ulcer disease asks how the drug works. The nurse responds:

a)

It neutralizes stomach acid.

b)

It coats the stomach lining.

14.

Which teaching should be included for a patient taking sucralfate?

a)

Take with meals for maximum effect

b)

Take on an empty stomach before meals

c)

It may cause diarrhea as a common side effect

d)

It decreases stomach acid secretion

15.

Which adverse effect is most likely with long-term proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Osteoporosis and fractures

d)

Hypertension

16.

Misoprostol is contraindicated in which patient?

a)

A patient with chronic pain

b)

A patient with peptic ulcer disease

c)

A pregnant woman

d)

A patient with constipation

17.

A patient receiving ondansetron IV for chemotherapy-induced nausea should be monitored for which adverse effect?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Headache

c)

Hypertension

d)

Bradycardia

18.

Metoclopramide is contraindicated in which patient?

a)

A patient with chronic constipation

b)

A patient with type 2 diabetes

c)

A patient with a history of seizure disorder

d)

A patient undergoing chemotherapy

19.

Promethazine is prescribed for nausea. The nurse should monitor for:

a)

Constipation

b)

Sedation and respiratory depression

c)

Hypertension

d)

Urinary retention

20.

Which teaching is correct for scopolamine patches for motion sickness?

a)

The patch should be applied behind the ear at least 4 hours before travel.

b)

The patch should be applied to the arm 1 hour before travel.

c)

The patch should be taken orally with food.

d)

The patch should be removed immediately after feeling better.

21.

A nurse is teaching a patient prescribed docusate sodium for constipation. Which statement indicates correct understanding?

a)

It will stimulate my bowel to contract strongly.

b)

It is safe to take daily as needed.

c)

It works by softening the stool, making it easier to pass.

d)

It works the same as a laxative suppository.

22.

Which laxative should be avoided in a patient with renal failure?

a)

Docusate sodium

b)

Senna

c)

Magnesium hydroxide

d)

Polyethylene glycol

23.

Which laxative is safest for long-term use?

a)

Bisacodyl

b)

Bulk-forming agents such as psyllium

c)

Magnesium citrate

d)

Castor oil

24.

Which adverse effect is most concerning with stimulant laxatives?

a)

Mild diarrhea

b)

Electrolyte imbalance with long-term use

c)

Flatulence

d)

Increased appetite

25.

Which teaching is most important for a patient prescribed tetracycline?

a)

Take it with dairy products to improve absorption.

b)

Avoid sunlight because of risk for photosensitivity.

c)

Take the drug only if symptoms are severe.

d)

It may turn urine orange.

26.

Which age group should NOT receive tetracyclines due to permanent teeth discoloration?

a)

Adults over 65

b)

Children under 8 years old

c)

Adolescents

27.

A patient taking sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim should be instructed to:

a)

Increase dairy intake

b)

Drink plenty of fluids to prevent crystalluria

c)

Avoid potassium-rich foods

d)

Stop the medication if urine darkens slightly

28.

A patient with a urinary tract infection is prescribed nitrofurantoin. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

a)

Monitor for hypoglycemia

b)

Encourage increased salt intake

c)

Monitor for pulmonary symptoms such as cough or shortness of breath

d)

Limit fluid intake

29.

A patient with septic shock is receiving norepinephrine. Which finding indicates the medication is effective?

a)

Decreased urine output

b)

Increased heart rate

c)

Increased blood pressure

d)

Decreased peripheral vascular resistance

30.

Which medication is most often used for anaphylactic shock?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Dobutamine

d)

Epinephrine

31.

Dopamine at moderate doses has which effect?

a)

Decreases heart contractility

b)

Increases renal perfusion and cardiac output

c)

Causes bronchoconstriction

d)

Decreases urine output

32.

Dobutamine is most useful in which condition?

a)

Anaphylaxis

b)

Cardiogenic shock

c)

Septic shock

d)

Hypertension

33.

A patient newly diagnosed with hypertension asks about lifestyle changes. The nurse's best response is:

a)

Discuss the importance of diet, exercise, and regular monitoring.

b)

Advise immediate medication without lifestyle changes.

c)

Suggest ignoring the diagnosis until symptoms appear.

d)

Recommend only reducing salt intake without other changes.

34.

Which antihypertensive drug is contraindicated in pregnancy?

a)

Methyldopa

b)

Labetalol

c)

ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril

d)

Hydralazine

35.

Which teaching is important for a patient prescribed a beta-blocker?

a)

Stop the drug immediately if feeling tired

b)

Do not stop suddenly; may cause rebound hypertension

c)

It causes bronchodilation

d)

It increases heart rate

36.

Which side effect is most concerning with calcium channel blockers?

a)

Constipation

b)

Hypotension and reflex tachycardia

c)

Increased urination

d)

Weight loss

37.

Which medication is most likely prescribed to prevent angina attacks?

a)

Nitroglycerin patch

b)

Isosorbide mononitrate

c)

Atorvastatin

d)

Diltiazem drip

38.

Which teaching should be provided to a patient taking statins for dyslipidemia?

a)

Take the medication in the morning with breakfast

b)

Report any unexplained muscle pain or weakness

c)

Avoid grapefruit juice only if taking beta blockers

d)

Statins increase HDL and should not affect LDL levels

39.

Which adverse effect is associated with niacin therapy for dyslipidemia?

a)

Constipation

b)

Dry mouth

c)

Flushing and pruritus

d)

Hypertension

40.

The lipid-lowering drug that is contraindicated with liver disease is:

a)

Statins

b)

Ezetimibe

c)

Bile acid sequestrants

d)

Niacin

41.

Which finding indicates digoxin toxicity?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Bradycardia and visual disturbances

c)

Polyuria

d)

Weight gain

42.

Which lab value is most important to check before administering digoxin?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Blood glucose

c)

Potassium level

d)

Sodium level

43.

A patient receiving amiodarone should be monitored for:

a)

Seizures

b)

Bradycardia only

c)

Pulmonary toxicity

d)

Increased appetite

44.

Which adverse effect is most concerning for a patient taking lidocaine IV for ventricular dysrhythmias?

a)

Nausea

b)

Neurological changes such as confusion or seizures

c)

Tinnitus

d)

Constipation

45.

Which lab value is most important to monitor for a patient on warfarin?

a)

aPTT

b)

INR

c)

Platelets

d)

Fibrinogen

46.

The nurse is preparing to administer heparin. Which is the antidote if overdose occurs?

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Protamine sulfate

c)

Atropine

d)

Naloxone

47.

A patient receiving epoetin alfa should be monitored for which adverse effect?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Hypertension

c)

Leukopenia

d)

Thrombocytopenia

48.

A nurse is teaching a patient about filgrastim. Which statement indicates correct understanding?

a)

It increases red blood cell production

b)

It increases neutrophil production to fight infection

c)

It prevents blood clot formation

d)

It treats low platelets only

49.

Which principle is important when administering medications to older adults?

a)

Older adults metabolize drugs more quickly

b)

Polypharmacy increases the risk of adverse effects

c)

Renal clearance improves with age

d)

They generally require higher doses

50.

Which teaching is most important for an older adult starting benzodiazepine therapy?

a)

Take medication with alcohol for better sleep

b)

Stop medication suddenly if dizziness occurs

c)

Increased risk for falls and confusion may occur

d)

Benzodiazepines are first-line for long-term use

51.

Older adults are at higher risk for digoxin toxicity because:

a)

They metabolize drugs faster

b)

They excrete potassium more efficiently

c)

They have reduced renal clearance

d)

They require higher doses for effect

52.

The Beers Criteria is used for:

a)

Pediatric dosing

b)

Identifying inappropriate medications in older adults

c)

Determining maximum adult doses

d)

Adjusting insulin therapy

53.

Kai has been diagnosed with scabies and is prescribed permethrin. What should the nurse include in patient teaching?

a)

Apply only to visible lesions

b)

Apply to the entire body from the neck down and leave on overnight

54.

Which teaching is correct for isotretinoin prescribed for severe acne?

a)

It may cause weight gain

b)

Pregnancy must be avoided due to teratogenic effects

c)

It is safe to donate blood during therapy

d)

It should be taken with vitamin A supplements

55.

Which teaching should be included for a patient taking acyclovir for herpes simplex infection?

a)

It cures the infection permanently

b)

It reduces symptoms but does not eliminate the virus

c)

It prevents transmission to others

d)

It can be stopped when lesions disappear

56.

Which adverse effect is most concerning with antiretroviral therapy (HAART)?

a)

Constipation

b)

Mild headache

c)

Bone marrow suppression

d)

Increased appetite

57.

Which teaching is correct for a patient prescribed nystatin oral suspension for oral candidiasis?

a)

Swallow immediately after placing in mouth

b)

Take with food for absorption

c)

Swish in the mouth for several minutes before swallowing

d)

Stop therapy once symptoms resolve

58.

Amphotericin B is prescribed for systemic fungal infection. The nurse should monitor for:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hyperkalemia

59.

Which test is most commonly used to confirm H. pylori infection in peptic ulcer disease?

a)

Blood test for antibodies

b)

Urea breath test

c)

CT scan

d)

Ultrasound

60.

Ranitidine belongs to which drug class?

a)

Proton pump inhibitor

b)

H2 receptor antagonist

c)

Antacid

d)

Cytoprotective agent

61.

Which adverse effect is most concerning with epoetin alfa therapy?

a)

Anemia

b)

Thromboembolic events

c)

Leukocytosis

d)

Hyperglycemia

62.

What is the mechanism of action of filgrastim?

a)

Stimulates red blood cell production

b)

Stimulates neutrophil production

c)

Stimulates platelet production

d)

Inhibits bone marrow suppression

63.

Which antihypertensive is most likely to cause a persistent cough?

a)

Beta blockers

b)

ACE inhibitors

c)

Calcium channel blockers

d)

ARBs

64.

Nitroglycerin should be stored in:

a)

A plastic bottle at room temperature

b)

Its original dark glass container

c)

The refrigerator only

d)

Any container with a tight lid

65.

What is the main teaching for patients starting antiretroviral therapy?

a)

Treatment is lifelong and adherence is critical

b)

Therapy will cure HIV

c)

Missing doses is acceptable occasionally

d)

Treatment is lifelong and adherence is critical

66.

Oseltamivir is most effective when started:

a)

After 7 days of symptoms

b)

Within 48 hours of symptom onset

c)

At any time during flu season

d)

Before symptoms appear

67.

Which antifungal is commonly used topically for athlete’s foot?

a)

Amphotericin B

b)

Fluconazole

c)

Clotrimazole

d)

Itraconazole

68.

Voriconazole should be monitored for which adverse effect?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Constipation

c)

Visual disturbances

d)

Hypoglycemia

69.

Which laxative works by increasing osmotic pressure in the intestine?

a)

Docusate sodium

b)

Lactulose

c)

Senna

d)

Psyllium

70.

Which drug is most effective for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting?

a)

Promethazine

b)

Metoclopramide

c)

Ondansetron

d)

Scopolamine

71.

Topical corticosteroids for eczema should be applied:

a)

Directly into open wounds

b)

In a thin layer to affected skin

c)

Only once per month

d)

To the entire body

72.

Which adverse effect is associated with long-term topical corticosteroid use?

a)

Increased hair growth

b)

Photosensitivity

c)

Skin thinning (atrophy)

d)

Increased pigmentation

73.

Why are older adults more sensitive to benzodiazepines?

a)

They metabolize faster

b)

They have decreased hepatic clearance

c)

They have increased renal elimination

d)

They require larger doses

74.

Which teaching is important for an older adult on diuretic therapy?

a)

Restrict fluids to prevent edema

b)

Rise slowly to prevent orthostatic hypotension

c)

Take the medication only if swelling is severe

d)

Diuretics will not affect electrolyte balance

75.

Which antifungal medication is safest in pregnancy?

a)

Voriconazole

b)

Topical clotrimazole

c)

Fluconazole (systemic)

d)

Amphotericin B