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SP 22 Nutrition Practice

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many kcals do we get from 1 gram of protein in enteral nutrition? (a)   kcal/g (Hint: enter number only, no units)

2.

How many kcals do we get from 1 gram of amino acids in parenteral nutrition? (a)   kcal/g (Hint: enter number only, no units)

3.

How many kcals do we get from 1 gram of intravenous lipids in parenteral nutrition? (a)   kcal/g (Hint: enter number only, no units)

4.

How many kcals do we get from 1 gram of fat in enteral nutrition? (a)   kcal/g (Hint: enter number only, no units)

5.

How many kcals do we get from 1 gram of carbohydrates in enteral nutrition? (a)   kcal/g (Hint: enter number only, no units)

6.

How many kcals do we get from 1 gram of dextrose in parenteral nutrition? (a)   kcal/g (Hint: enter number only, no units)

7.

A 55 year old male has had a stroke and is now being provided enteral nutrition through a nasogastric tube due to difficulty swallowing. He is underweight. What is the maximum weekly weight gain we should target? (a)   kg/week (hint: numerical only)

8.

What is the body's preferred source of fuel?

a)

glucose

b)

fat

c)

protein

d)

all macronutrients are equally used as energy/fuel

9.

Which of the following would slow gastric emptying?

a)

Using a nasogastric tube

b)

high osmolality feeds

c)

Low protein content

d)

high carbohydrate content

10.

Which macronutrient takes the longest to breakdown in the gastrointestinal system?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

fats

d)

free water

11.

Parasympathetic nerves system is associated with acetylcholine which facilitates:

a)

Rest and Digest

b)

Fight or flight

12.

Sympathetic nerves system is associated with norepinephrine or epinephrine release which facilitates:

a)

Rest and Digest

b)

Fight or flight

13.

What is the hormone released during starvation that promotes the breakdown of glucose storage and lipid stores to increase serum glucose?

(a)  

14.

Excess carbohydrates can result in increased production of:

a)

chloride

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen

d)

bicarbonate

15.

what is the smallest functional unit of protein?

(a)  

16.

Glutamine is an example of a ______amino acid

a)

nutritionally essential

b)

conditionally essential

c)

non-essential

17.

True/False: Some amino acids may be broken down into glucose and used for energy

a)

True

b)

False

18.

True/False: Some amino acids may be broken down into acetyl-CoA and then ketone bodies or fatty acids and used for energy

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Which of the following is considered an omega 6 fatty acid?

a)

linoleic acid

b)

alpha-linolenic acid

c)

EPA

d)

DHA

20.

What type of fat needs to have transported into the mitochondrial matrix with levocarnitine to be utilized?

a)

free fatty acids

b)

short chain fatty acids

c)

long chain fatty acids

d)

all fats need levocarnitine to be properly utilized

21.

A patient that is 95% of their ideal body weight is considered:

a)

malnourished

b)

normal

c)

overweight

d)

obese

22.

A patient with celiac disease with a BMI of 17 kg/m2 would likely have which of the following types of malnutrition?

a)

starvation

b)

chronic disease related

c)

acute disease related

d)

This patient is not at risk for malnutrition

23.

Which of the following is true about starvation related malnutrition?

a)

heavily inflammation driven

b)

is rarely associated with social behaviors

c)

albumin is not a reliable marker for identifying this malnutrition

d)

can be a result of food supply issues

24.

Which of the following malnutrition classifications can be characterized by central edema/asities, hypoalbuminemia, and possibly impaired immune function?

a)

kwashiorkor

b)

marasmus

c)

essential fatty acid deficiency

d)

macrocytic anemia

25.

True/False: Most healthy adults will not develop essential fatty acid deficiency if lipids are excluded from TPN for 7-10 days

a)

True

b)

False

26.

A patient with a serum calcium of 7 mg/dL and an albumin of 1.5 has hypocalcemia. (Calcium reference range: 8.4-10.2 mg/dL)

a)

True

b)

False

27.

The corrected calcium for a patient with a serum calcium of 8 mg/dL and an albumin of 3.5 is:

(no units, just numerical response)

(a)  

28.

Refeeding syndrome is characterized by:

a)

hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia, hypokalemia

b)

hypocalcemia, hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia

c)

hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, hypomagnesemia

d)

hypophosphatemia, hypocalcemia, hypokalemia

29.

Patients with alcoholism are at high risk of deficiency of:

a)

vitamin B12

b)

thiamine

c)

copper

d)

selenium

30.

Patients with history of bowel surgery to the ilium and no ileocecal valve are at high risk of malnutrition of which micronutrient?

a)

vitamin B12

b)

thiamine

c)

copper

d)

selenium

31.

Which of these trace elements is eliminated via biliary excretion?

a)

manganese

b)

iron

c)

zinc

d)

selenium

32.

Which of these trace elements is eliminated via biliary excretion?

a)

copper

b)

iron

c)

zinc

d)

selenium

33.

Which of these trace elements is needed for thyroid hormone production?

a)

copper

b)

iron

c)

zinc

d)

selenium

e)

iodine

34.

What route is preferred for potassium replacement?

a)

IV

b)

oral

c)

rectal

35.

What route is preferred for magnesium replacement?

a)

IV

b)

oral

c)

rectal

36.

A patient has an IV fluid containing potassium running at 5 mEq/hr and needs potassium IV replacement to fix hypokalemia. The provider orders the replacement of 40 mEq to be infused over 2 hours. Can this be safely be infused?

a)

Yes, only with telemetry/cardiac monitoring

b)

Yes, no telemetry/cardiac monitoring required

c)

No, this potassium rate is too fast

d)

No, this combination will result in precipitation

37.

A patient has an IV fluid containing potassium running at 10 mEq/hr and needs potassium IV replacement to fix hypokalemia. The provider orders the replacement of 40 mEq to be infused over 6 hours. Can this be safely be infused?

a)

Yes, only with telemetry/cardiac monitoring

b)

Yes, no telemetry/cardiac monitoring required

c)

No, this potassium rate is too fast

d)

No, this combination will result in precipitation

38.

What is the maximum osmolality we can put through a peripheral IV line? (a)   mosm/L (numerical response only)

39.

A 9 year old patient should get which type of amino acids in their TPN?

a)

Pediatric

b)

Standard

40.

What is the maximum dose we should initiate for lipids on an adult patient that is critically ill

a)

<1 g/kg/day

b)

1 g/kg/day

c)

2 g/kg/day

d)

3 g/kg/day

41.

What is the maximum dose we should order for intravenous lipids on a pediatric patient?

a)

4 g/kg/day

b)

1 g/kg/day

c)

2 g/kg/day

d)

3 g/kg/day

42.

How many kcals/mL are provided when a patient is getting Propofol? (a)   kcal/mL (just numerical answer)

43.

What is the maximum dextrose dose that should be in the INITIAL adult TPN with no comorbid conditions?

(a)  

44.

What is the maximum dextrose dose that should be in the INITIAL adult TPN with high risk of refeeding syndrome?

(a)  

45.

A patient is at high risk of refeeding syndrome. The provider initiates a dextrose infusion with normal saline for the patient at a GIR of 1 mg/kg/min. The patient becomes disoriented, confused, and combative. What vitamin/mineral should have been added to this patient's dextrose fluid?

(a)  

46.

True/False: Fat soluble vitamins should be eliminated from TPN in all patients due to complications associated with toxicity

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Patient with chronic severe diarrhea of malabsorption need what trace element added to their TPN?

(a)  

48.

A patient with metabolic acidosis should have which of the following added to their TPN to help correct the acid-base problem?

a)

Sodium Chloride

b)

Potassium Chloride

c)

Sodium acetate

d)

Calcium gluconate

e)

Magnesium sulfate

49.

A patient with metabolic alkalosis should have which of the following added to their TPN to help correct the acid-base problem?

a)

Sodium Chloride

b)

Potassium acetate

c)

Sodium acetate

d)

Calcium chloride

e)

Magnesium sulfate

50.

Which of the following salts drastically increases the risk of precipitation

a)

Sodium phosphate

b)

calcium chloride

c)

potassium acetate

d)

magnesium phosphate

51.

What is the maximum infusion rate of potassium for a pediatric patient NOT on telemetry that weights 40 kg?

(a)  

52.

True/False: We can add bicarbonate to the TPN when a patient has metabolic acidosis

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Which type of enteral formula tastes better?

a)

Polymeric

b)

Oligomeric

c)

Peptide based

d)

Elemental

54.

Which type of enteral formula has the highest osmolality and may cause diarrhea?

a)

Polymeric

b)

Soy based

c)

Peptide based

d)

Elemental

55.

True/False: Enteral formulas provide all free water the patient needs?

a)

True

b)

False

56.

True/False: Adult formulas are lactose free

a)

True

b)

False

57.

True/False: Infant formulas are always lactose free

a)

True

b)

False

58.

True/False: bolus feeds may be used for feeds that are jejunostomy provided in the jejunum (example: through a jejnuostomy tube)

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of continuous enteral feeds?

a)

lower risk of aspiration

b)

better tolerated that bolus feeds

c)

more absorption of nutrients

d)

minimizes medication-feed interactions

60.

True/False: Patients can experience refeeding syndrome with enteral nutrition

a)

True

b)

False

61.

When administering medications via an enteral tube we should:

a)

always use sweetened products incase the patient has emesis

b)

use enteric coated products to protect them from the stomach acid

c)

tablets are preferred over liquid products

d)

dilute liquids 3:1 with water if viscous

62.

Which of the following is true regard medication interactions with enteral feeds?

a)

Warfarin can be reliability used in patients continuous feeds

b)

ciprofloxacin requires feeds to be held for 30 minutes prior to administration

c)

ciprofloxacin suspension is preferred for administration

d)

calcium carbonate should not be administered post pyloric

63.

Who needs iron supplementation?

a)

13 day old infant that is breastfeed

b)

30 day old infant that is formula fed

c)

5 month old infant that is breastfeed

d)

7 month old infant that is formula fed

64.

Who does NOT need vitamin D supplementation?

a)

13 day old infant that is breastfeed

b)

30 day old infant that is formula fed 15 oz/day

c)

5 month old infant that is breastfeed

d)

7 month old infant that is formula fed 35 oz/day

65.

What is the EARLIEST solids should be introduced into the infant diet?

(a)  

66.

What dose of vitamin D should be provided to infants?

(a)  

67.

A patient requires fluoride supplementation because they have no fluoride in their water. What is the dose for a 10 month old?

a)

none, this patient is too young

b)

0.25 mg/day

c)

0.5 mg/day

d)

1 mg/day

68.

A patient requires fluoride supplementation because they have no fluoride in their water. What is the dose for a four year old?

a)

none, this patient is too young

b)

0.25 mg/day

c)

0.5 mg/day

d)

1 mg/day

69.

A patient requires fluoride supplementation because they have no fluoride in their water. What is the dose for a 10 year old?

a)

none, this patient is too young

b)

0.25 mg/day

c)

0.5 mg/day

d)

1 mg/day

70.

Which of the following should not be in a starter TPN?

a)

amino acids

b)

dextrose

c)

calcium gluconate

d)

trace elements