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Lab Exam 2 (labs 8-13) Review

Total questions: 68

Worksheet time: 1hrs 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which 2 stains are used in the endospore staining process?

a)

Carbolfuchsin

b)

Malachite Green

c)

Crystal Violet

d)

Safranin

2.

Bacteria that are metabolically active

a)

Vegetative cells

b)

Spores

3.

The primary stain used during spore staining that stains the spore and not the vegetative cell

a)

Water

b)

Malachite Green

c)

Safranin

d)

Crystal Violet

4.

Counter or contrasting stain used during spore staining to stain the vegetative cell

a)

Water

b)

Malachite Green

c)

Safranin

d)

Crystal Violet

5.

Why is heat necessary in spore staining?

a)

To prevent the cold staining dyes from freezing the cell

b)

To allow the stain to penetrate the spore coat

c)

To differentiate between the spore and the vegetative cell

d)

Making sure the bacteria doesn't fall off the slide

6.
a)

The spores are red; vegetative cells green

b)

The spores are green; vegetative cells are green

c)

The vegetative cells are red; spores are red

d)

The vegetative cells are red; spores are green

7.

This media selects for gram-negative organisms and isolates lactose fermenters (pink) and non-lactose fermenters (clear).

a)

chocolate agar

b)

Mannitol salt agar

c)

Eosin-methylene blue (EMB) agar

d)

MacConkey agar

8.

Match the following media types with their correct descriptions.

a)

selective media

1.

Media that suppresses the growth of unwanted bacteria and supports the growth of the organism of interest

b)

enriched media

2.

Media that contains added essential nutrients a specific organism needs to grow

c)

differential media

3.

Media that distinguishes between different groups of microorganisms based on their biological characteristics

9.

Type of culturing media: Selects for gram-positive bacteria, halophiles; Differentiates on their ability to ferment mannitol

a)

Eosin methylene blue Agar

b)

MacConkey Agar

c)

Hektoen Agar

d)

Mannitol Salt Agar

10.

Type of culturing media; Selects for growth of fungi (has a pH of 5.6 and high levels of glucose)

a)

Chocolate Agar

b)

Blood Agar

c)

Sabouraud's Agar

11.

The image describes a _____.

a)

Streak plating

b)

Membrane Filter Technique

c)

Serial Dilution

d)

Enrichment culture

12.

The two most common types of media used in the laboratory are:

a)

chemically defined & simple

b)

agar & broth

c)

simple & complex

d)

differential & selective

13.

CO2 incubators are used to grow:

a)

capnophiles

b)

aerobes

c)

obligate aerobes

d)

viruses

14.

This type of complex media is more rich than nutrient agar and includes 5% sheep's blood

a)

chocolate agar

b)

blood agar

c)

LB agar

d)

MacConkey agar

15.

The followings are objectives of serial dilutions EXCEPT.

a)

To make viable colony counts.

b)

To produce colony forming units.

c)

To dilute the bacterial population.

d)

To understand antibacterial sensitivity.

16.

Which of the following is the optimum number of colonies needed to count a bacterial plate?

a)

10-100 colonies

b)

30-300 colonies

c)

20-400 colonies

d)

10-300 colonies

17.

Hydrogen Peroxide (H2O2) is the reagent in the catalase test

a)

True

b)

False

18.

No reaction on the slide during the catalase test means the bacteria is

a)

Catalase +

b)

Catalase -

c)

Experiment didn't work due to contamination

19.

Mannitol Salt Agar is selective for which bacterial genus?

a)

Salmonella

b)

Streptococcus

c)

Neisseria

d)

Staphylococcus

20.

Which type of media can be used to determine if a bacteria is motile?

a)

SIM

b)

MacConkey

c)

Enriched

d)

Chocolate agar

21.

Turbidity is measured using a ____

a)

Ruler

b)

spectrophotometer

c)

incubator

d)

mass spectrometer

22.

MacConkey agar was used to grow organisms and the agar turned red/fuchsia. This means that:

a)

The organisms do not ferment lactose.

b)

The organisms do not ferment mannitol.

c)

The organisms ferment lactose.

d)

The organisms ferment fructose.

23.

Match the following enzymes with their function.

a)

Desulfurase

1.

Involved in sulfur metabolism

b)

Tryptophanase

2.

Breaks down tryptophan

c)

Coagulase

3.

Assists in clotting to protect bacteria

d)

Catalase

4.

Detoxifies oxygen

24.

Which enzyme is tested for by using the indole test? (indole is the product if this enzyme is present)

a)

Desulfurase

b)

Tryptophanase

c)

Coagulase

d)

Catalase

25.

What component of the endospore coat retains the primary stain during the endospore staining process?

a)

peptidoglycan

b)

mycolic acid

c)

lipopolysaccharide layer

d)

dipicolinic acid

26.

What are two genera that are medically important and form endospores?

a)

Staphylococcus and bacillus

b)

Clostridium and bacillus

c)

Strep and Staph

d)

Clostridium and Staphylococcus

27.

Resazurin and Methylene blue change colors based on the presence or absence of ---?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Water

d)

Nitrogen

28.

What does CFU stand for?

a)

countable forming units

b)

contaminating forming units

c)

colony forming units

d)

colony filterable units

29.

Fermentation tubes containing glucose were inoculated with bacteria and turned yellow with a bubble in the Durham tube. What does this mean?

a)

The broth is now acidic and the organism cannot ferment glucose.

b)

The broth is now acidic and the organism can ferment glucose.

c)

The broth is basic and the organism cannot ferment glucose.

d)

The broth is basic and the organism can ferment glucose.

30.

When measuring the zone of inhibition (ZOI) for disinfectants, how will you decide which disinfectant is best?

a)

By choosing the smallest ZOI

b)

By choosing the biggest ZOI

c)

By choosing the medium ZOI

31.

The enzyme that helps to break down starch is...

a)

Lactase

b)

Catalase

c)

Fructase

d)

Amylase

32.

Two types of bacteria were grown and tested for amylase using iodine. Which bacterial colony is positive?

a)

Top

b)

Bottom

33.

When analyzed in SIM tubes, if bacteria produce the enzyme that removes sulfur from amino acids, this will appear as

a)

a clear zone around the bacteria growing in the agar

b)

a black precipitate in the agar

c)

a color change of the indicator from yellow to pink

d)

a color change of the indicator from pink to yellow

34.

SIM tubes are useful for differentiation of what types of medically important pathogens?

a)

respiratory pathogens

b)

antibiotic resistant pathogens

c)

fungal pathogens

d)

enteric pathogens

35.

Match the type of hemolysis with the appearance of bacterial colonies on a blood agar plate.

a)

Beta

1.

Colonies have a clearing around them

b)

Gamma

2.

Colonies = white, with no change to agar

c)

Alpha

3.

Colonies appear greenish

36.

Bacteria were grown on Mannitol salt agar and the agar turned yellow. This means...(choose two answers)

a)

the organisms fermented mannitol

b)

the organisms didn't ferment mannitol

c)

the organisms are not halophiles

d)

the organisms are halophiles

37.

Bacteria were grown on MacConkey agar and the colonies were colorless. This means...

a)

They do not ferment lactose

b)

They do ferment lactose

38.

What type of organisms are able to grow on MacConkey agar?

a)

Gram positive

b)

Gram negative

39.

The coagulase test is the standard definitive method of confirming the identification of what pathogenic bacteria?

a)

Gram negative

b)

Streptococci

c)

Staphylococci

d)

enteric bacteria

40.

What type of plates are used for a Kirby-Bauer test?

a)

mannitol salt agar plates

b)

blood agar plates

c)

starch agar plates

d)

mueller-hinton agar plates

41.

The Kirby-Bauer method is used to

a)

determine gram staining

b)

determine antibiotic sensitivity

c)

determine the enzymes that are present

42.

How is the Kirby-Bauer method different from testing disinfectants?

a)

You must use reference charts to decide if the bacteria is sensitive

b)

There is no difference

43.

If 1 mL sample is put into a tube that has 24 ml diluent, what is the dilution you prepared?

a)

1:24

b)

1:1

c)

1:25

d)

1:5

44.

You need to make a 1:10 dilution and you need 50 ml of the diluted culture. How much culture do you add to the broth to make 50 mls of the preparation?

a)

1 ml of culture and 10 ml of media

b)

5 ml of culture and 45 ml of media

c)

1 ml of culture and 49 ml of media

d)

5ml of culture and 50 ml of media

45.

You use the membrane filtration method to test 100 ml of your favorite bottle of water for bacterial colonies. You then plated the filter and incubated it. The next day you found 143 colonies. What is the bacterial density of the water?

a)

14.3

b)

14300

c)

1.43

d)

1430

46.

What is the bacterial concentration if 72 colonies were counted after 1 ml of a 1:10,000 dilution was plated?

a)

720,000

b)

72,000

c)

720

d)

7,200

47.

What is the bacterial concentration if 56 colonies were counted after 0.5ml of a 1:1,000 dilution was plated?

a)

56,000

b)

5,600

c)

112,000

d)

11,200

48.

What is the enzyme that is linked to breaking down blood cells?

a)

Hemolysin

b)

Lyase

c)

Catalase

d)

Protease

49.

When bacteria are capable of fermentation, they are breaking down

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

carbohydrates

50.

When fermentation tubes contain phenol red (as we observed in lab), they appear what color when the pH is ACIDIC?

a)

yellow

b)

red

c)

green

d)

colorless

51.

The disk diffusion test for disinfectants shows the chemical's ability to

a)

kill bacteria

b)

inhibit bacterial growth

c)

stop enzyme production

d)

stop gas production

52.

When we determine if tryptophan is broken down by bacteria, we detect this product in the SIM tubes

a)

Indole

b)

pyruvic acid

c)

Hydrogen

d)

urease

53.

Match the following types of bacteria with the correct description that differentiates them.

a)

Gram negative enteric bacteria

1.

These are differentiated by the SIM tubes for their ability to produce hydrogen sulfide, indole, and motility.

b)

halophiles

2.

These are differentiated by their requirement or tolerance to high salt concentrations.

c)

Staphylococcus

3.

These are differentiated by their coagulase production and Gram staining properties.

54.

A spectrophotometer does NOT (choose all that apply)

a)

shine light through the bacterial sample

b)

accurately compare very dilute (unconcentrated) samples

c)

tell you if the cells are alive

d)

tell you the CFU/ml in the sample

55.

A measurement of bacterial concentration that tells you the specific CFU/ml in a sample is a _______ measurement

a)

quantitative

b)

qualitative

c)

dilution

d)

turbidity

56.

Pathogenic Staphylococcus aureus is

a)

coagulase negative

b)

coagulase positive

c)

Gram negative

d)

Catalase negative

57.

What is the difference between nutrient agar and lactose broth?

a)

Nutrient agar is solid and lactose broth is liquid

b)

Both are liquid but lactose broth has added lactose sugar

c)

Nutrient agar is a selective media and lactose broth is a derived media

d)

there is no difference between the two types

58.

Blood agar is

a)

enriched

b)

selective and differential

c)

selective

d)

enriched and differential

59.

What does a completely clear zone around bacteria on a Blood agar plate indicate?

a)

Gamma hemolysis

b)

Alpha hemolysis

c)

Beta hemolysis

d)

Omega hemolysis

60.

Which of the following is a selective medium that inhibits the growth of gram-positive bacteria?

a)

MacConkey agar

b)

Blood agar

c)

Chocolate agar

d)

Nutrient agar

61.

What is the purpose of using a Durham tube in a fermentation test?

a)

To maintain anaerobic conditions

b)

To provide nutrients to bacteria

c)

To capture gas produced during fermentation

d)

To measure pH changes

62.
Your teacher has asked you to explain the difference between quantitative and qualitative observations. Which statement is correct?
a)
Quantitative observations use numbers, qualitative uses the senses.
b)
Quantitative observations use the senses, qualitative uses numbers.
c)
Quantitative observations use measurement, qualitative uses numbers.
d)
Quantitative observations use colors, qualitative uses the senses.
63.

________________________ observations involve information that you can count or measure.

a)

Quantitative

b)

Qualitative

c)

Theoretical

d)

Scientific

64.

the color of your shoes

a)

qualitative

b)

quantitative

65.
Name this bacteria shape
a)
coccus
b)
bacillus
c)
spirillum
66.
A serial dilution is 
a)
the stepwise saturation of a substance in solution.
b)
a dilution that increase by a factor of 1/10 every step
c)
the stepwise dilution of a substance in solution.
d)
a series of sequential dilutions used to increase a dense culture of cells to a more usable concentration.
67.

What is the selective ingredient in Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA)?

a)

Mannitol

b)

Phenol Red

c)

Sodium chloride

d)

Bile Salt

68.

What is a bacterial colony?

a)

solidifying gel-like agent used for growth media

b)

a technique used to thin out bacterial growth

c)

a visible clump of bacterial growth on an agar plate separate from other areas of growth

d)

a population of microorganisms grown under well-defined conditions