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Quarter 3 PMA Review

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Marissa blows up balloons for a party. She decides how big or small to make each balloon. Why does the air she blows into each balloon take up all the space inside the balloon?

a)

The particles of air move around and slide past one another and take the shape of the balloon.

b)

The particles of air move freely, colliding with each other and the sides of the balloon.

c)

The particles of air move and increase in size when they have more space in the balloon.

d)

The particles of air have a strong attraction between each other and the balloon.

2.

Which model represents the attractive forces in a liquid?

a)

Model 3 represents a liquid because the particles are hardly affected by the attractive forces.

b)

Model 2 represents a liquid because the attractive forces keep the particles vibrating in place.

c)

Model 1 represents a liquid because the particles are locked in their positions because of the attractive forces.

d)

Model 2 represents a liquid because the attractive forces keep the particles close together but still allow movement

3.
At room temperature, aluminum is a solid and water is a liquid. How do the particles of solid aluminum compare to the particles of liquid water?
a)
The attractions between the particles are weaker in the solid aluminum.
b)
The attractions between the particles are stronger in the solid aluminum.
c)
There is no attraction between particles in the solid aluminum.
d)
The particles are moving more freely in the solid aluminum.
4.
Raul and Bonnie are trying to classify several objects that they found during a field trip to the beach. They collected a sample of seawater, a piece of driftwood, and several smooth pebbles. How are the particles that make up the driftwood different than those of the pebbles and the seawater?
a)
The particles vibrate, but stay fixed tightly together
b)
The particles do not vibrate and they stay fixed tightly together.
c)
The particles vibrate and frequently collide, but stay close together
d)
The particles vibrate and frequently collide, but move freely in all directions.
5.
Which statement below best describes the movement of particles in a gas?
a)
The particles do not move.
b)
The particles move freely.
c)
The particles vibrate in a fixed position.
d)
The particles slide easily past one another.
6.
Why does liquid water take the shape of the cup it is poured in to, but solid ice cubes do not?
a)
Because the particles of liquid water are softer than particles of solid ice.
b)
Because the particles of liquid water are smaller than the particles of solid ice.
c)
Because the particles of liquid water are moving but the particles of solid ice are not.
d)
Because the particles of liquid water can easily move past one another but the particles of solid ice cannot.
7.
Why is the formation of rust considered a chemical change?
a)
Rust is more reactive than oxygen
b)
Rust has the same chemical composition as iron.
c)
Rust has a lower density than iron.
d)
Rust has properties that are different from iron and oxygen.
8.

Amanda investigated physical and chemical changes in science class and then classified her changes into two columns shown. Column A are the chemical changes and Column B are the physical changes. Which statement below best explains why the processes in Column A are chemical changes?

a)

The change has formed new substances

b)

The shape of the substance has changed.

c)

The change that occurred can be reversed easily.

d)

The characteristics of the original substance have not changed.

9.
Which process is an example of a physical change?
a)
A peanut butter sandwich is eaten and broken down by enzymes in the stomach.
b)
Sodium metal and water are combined to form a basic compound and a flammable gas.
c)
Carrots are cut into small pieces and mixed into a salad.
d)
Sodium metal and chlorine gas are combined to form sodium chloride, or table salt
10.
Lena is making a cake to share with her family. She combines the ingredients for the cake, then pours the batter into two pans and bakes the cake for 45 minutes in the oven. What type of change is baking a cake?
a)
Baking a cake is a physical change, because it can be reversed.
b)
Baking a cake is a chemical change, because you combine chemicals.
c)
Baking a cake is a chemical change, because it becomes a different substance.
d)
Baking a cake is a physical change, because the ingredients are the same they are just combined together.
11.
Ethan is observing chemical and physical properties of a substance. He heats a substance and observes that the substance turns from a brown solid to a black powder. He refers to several chemistry journals that claim this represents a chemical reaction. From his observation and research, he concludes that the substance goes through a chemical change when heated. How can Ethan best defend his conclusion?
a)
By verifying that the substance is made up of only one type of element.
b)
By demonstrating that the substance has the same density after it is heated.
c)
By verifying that the substance is now made up of different molecules than before it was heated.
d)
By demonstrating that the substance will eventually melt if the temperature continues to increase.
12.
Alison finds the total mass of a sample of baking soda, a balloon, and a glass container with vinegar in it. She adds the baking soda to the vinegar and immediately places the balloon over the mouth of the container. After the reaction is complete, she again finds the total mass of the system. Which statement is true about this investigation?
a)
The mass changes because there was a chemical change that occurred.
b)
Mass is lost during the reaction because a chemical change is taking place.
c)
Mass is gained during the reaction because a chemical change is taking place.
d)
The mass does not change because chemical changes observes the law of conservation of mass.
13.
When paper is burned, the mass of the remaining ash is less than the mass of the original paper. Which statement best explains this result?
a)
Some of the matter is destroyed during the reaction.
b)
The volume of the ash is less than the volume of the paper.
c)
The mass of the ash cannot be accurately determined.
d)
Some of the matter changed to a gas and was released to the air.
14.

Andrea makes a sugar solution, as shown below. How much sugar did she dissolve in the water? How much sugar did she dissolve in the water?

a)

9 g

b)

11 g

c)

13 g

d)

17 g

15.
Allen mixes fertilizer for his plants at the beginning of the week. He puts 40 g of the fertilizer-water solution in each of seven closed containers and uses one container each day to water his plant. One day, he goes outside to get a container and finds that the solution in it is frozen. How much mass should the frozen solution in the container have?
a)
0 g
b)
10 g
c)
20 g
d)
40 g
16.
Mrs. Winston decides to do a demonstration for her class with a piece of chalk. Using a balance, Mrs. Winston discovers that the mass of the chalk is 20 g. She then takes the piece of chalk and crushes into a fine powder. The cumulative mass of the fine powder is 20 g. What has Mrs. Winston demonstrated for her class?
a)
a chemical change involving change of shape and size of matter
b)
a chemical change involving change of mass
c)
a physical change involving change of shape and size of matter
d)
a physical change involving change of mass
17.
Which statement best explains how temperature affects the rate of reaction for a chemical change.
a)
As the temperature decreases, the rate of reaction increases.
b)
As the temperature increases, the rate of reaction increases.
c)
As the temperature increases, the rate of reaction stays the same.
d)
As the temperature decreases, the rate of reaction stays the same
18.

Ashley has two samples of water at different temperatures shown. She drops an Alka-seltzer tablet into each sample of water at the same time and starts a timer to measure the rate of reaction. Which statement below best describes what Ashley should expect to find from her investigation?

a)

Sample A will have a greater rate of reaction than Sample B, because the temperature in Sample A is lower.

b)

Sample B will have a greater rate of reaction than Sample A, because the temperature in Sample B is lower.

c)

Sample A will have a greater rate of reaction than Sample B, because the temperature in Sample A is greater.

d)

Sample B will have a greater rate of reaction than Sample A, because the temperature in Sample B is greater.

19.
Hannah wants to make some toast for breakfast, but she has 3 minutes before she has to leave for school. She knows toasting bread is a chemical change so what is the best way for Hannah to increase the rate of this chemical change?
a)
change the type of bread she uses.
b)
change the size of bread she uses.
c)
increase the temperature of the toaster oven.
d)
decrease the temperature of the toaster oven.
20.
Matter is defined as anything that:
a)
Can be seen and touched
b)
Has mass and takes up space
c)
Can be weighed
d)
Contains kinetic energy
21.
Which of the following is not an example of a physical property?
a)
Freezing point
b)
Boiling point
c)
Reactivity
d)
Density
22.
Which of the following is an example of a physical change?
a)
Dissolving salt in water
b)
Cooking an egg
c)
Burning wood into charcoal
d)
Rusting iron
23.
Knowing the chemical properties of a substance will tell you how the substance:
a)
Looks
b)
Can be broken down into atoms
c)
Smells
d)
Reacts with other substances
24.
According to the kinetic molecular theory, which of the following statements is true about matter?
a)
The atoms and molecules of a substance are always in motion.
b)
The higher the temperature of a substance, the faster its particles move.
c)
More massive particles move more slowly than less massive particles.
d)
All of these
25.
Chemical changes can affect physical and chemical properties whereas physical changes can affect:
a)
Chemical properties
b)
Physical properties
c)
Both chemical and physical properties
d)
None of these
26.
The amount of matter in an object is a measure of the object's ________________.
a)
volume
b)
density
c)
mass
d)
solubility
27.

Use the periodic table to complete the sentence below:

Along each period of the periodic table,

a)

atomic mass changes in no set pattern.

b)

atomic mass increases from left to right.

c)

atomic mass decreases from left to right.

d)

atomic mass is the same for all elements in the row.

28.

Helium (He), neon (Ne) and argon (Ar) are all colorless, odorless gases with low chemical reactivity. Based on the periodic table above, which of the following is correct?

a)

Carbon (C) is a colorless, odorless gas with low chemical reactivity.

b)

Xenon (Xe) is a colorless, odorless gas with low chemical reactivity.

c)

Chlorine (Cl) is a colorless, odorless gas with low chemical reactivity.

d)

Selenium (Se) is a colorless, odorless gas with low chemical reactivity.

29.

Silver (Ag), Copper (Cu) and Gold (Au) are all metallic elements that are excellent conductors of both heat and electricity. Based on the periodic table, which of the following is correct?

a)

Iodine (I) is a metallic element that is an excellent conductor.

b)

Boron (B) is a metallic element that is an excellent conductor.

c)

Nickel (Ni) is a metallic element that is an excellent conductor.

d)

Hydrogen (H) is a metallic element that is an excellent conductor.

30.

Elements are arranged in the periodic table based on various patterns. For example, the element magnesium (Mg)

a)

is in the same period as Lithium (Li).

b)

is in the same group as Calcium (Ca).

c)

has a lower atomic mass than the element sodium (Na).

d)

has a higher atomic number than the element calcium (Ca).

31.

Lithium (Li), Sodium (Na), Potassium (K), Rubidium (Rb), Cesium (Cs), and Francium (Fr) are all found within the same group in the periodic table. Which statement below best describes how they are grouped?

a)

An atom of each element is similar in size.

b)

An atom of each element have similar properties.

c)

An atom of each element has the same number of neutrons.

d)

An atom of each element has the same number of electrons

32.

Which of the following recognized by the scientists as the smallest unit of an element?

a)

atom

b)

proton

c)

electron

d)

molecule

33.

Which of these statements describes an atom's nucleus?

a)

It has a negative charge

b)

It is made of neutrons and protons

c)

It has less mass than an electron

d)

It has the same mass in all atoms

34.

Which statement is TRUE about the subatomic particles?

a)

Subatomic particles form atoms.

b)

Subatomic particles are made up of atoms.

c)

Subatomic particles retain properties of elements.

d)

Subatomic particles have either a positive or negative charge.

35.

At room temperature, aluminum is a solid and water is a liquid. How do the particles of solid aluminum compare to the particles of liquid water?

a)

The attractions between the particles are weaker in the solid aluminum.

b)

The attractions between the particles are stronger in the solid aluminum.

c)

There is no attraction between particles in the solid aluminum.

d)

The particles are moving more freely in the solid aluminum.

36.

The amount of matter in an object is a measure of the object's ________________.

a)

volume

b)

density

c)

mass

d)

solubility

37.
This particle is found in the nucleus and has no charge
a)
Neutron
b)
Proton
c)
Electron
38.
This particle is found in the nucleus and has a positive charge
a)
Electron
b)
Proton
c)
Neutron
39.
This is a negatively charged particle found outside the nucleus
a)
Electron
b)
Proton
c)
Neutron
40.
This contains most of the mass of an atom
a)
Electron Cloud
b)
Nucleus
c)
Electron
41.
This is the simplest of all atoms and contains only one proton and one electron
a)
Oxygen
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Water
42.
The first person to ever talk about an atom was
a)
Democritus
b)
Rutherford
c)
Dalton
43.
All matter is made of what?
a)
energy 
b)
atoms 
c)
electrons 
d)
compounds 
44.
What scientist is best known for his "Plum Pudding" model of the atom?
a)
J.J. Tomson
b)
Ernest Rutherford
c)
John Dalton
d)
Democritus
45.
Place the following scientists in order, from earliest to latest: 
A) Ernest Rutherford
B) J.J. Thomson
C) John Dalton
a)
B,C,A
b)
C,A,B
c)
A,C,B
d)
C,B,A
46.
An experiment is performed on plants to see how different liquids affect plant growth. Each plant in the experiment is given a different liquid; water, apple juice, or milk. Each plant has the same amount of soil, sunlight, and listens to the same music. In this investigation, the independent variable is ...
a)
The type of plant
b)
The amount of sunlight
c)
The type of music
d)
The type of liquid
47.

The air we breathe contains different individual gases (mostly nitrogen and oxygen). Which of the following correctly describes the air we breathe?

a)

Mixture

b)

Liquid

c)

Compound

d)

Element

48.

When salt is dissolved in water, the resulting solution is a

a)

element

b)

compound

c)

homogeneous mixture

d)

heterogeneous mixture

49.

Coffee is a solution made by placing coffee grounds into a paper filter and then pouring very hot water over the coffee grounds. Which statement below correctly identifies the solute and the solvent of this solution?

a)

The coffee grounds are the solvent and water is the solute.

b)

The coffee grounds are the solute and the water is the solvent.

c)

The coffee grounds are the solvent and the paper filter is the solute.

d)

The coffee grounds are the solute and the paper filter is the solvent.

50.

The table lists the pH values for a number of common substances. Based on this table, which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Orange juice is more acidic than black coffee.

b)

Stomach acid is more basic than orange juice.

c)

Bleach is more acidic than household ammonia.

d)

Toothpaste is more basic than household ammonia.

51.

Margaret tests four solutions to determine whether they are acidic, basic, or neutral. She records her results in a lab notebook. Which of the following statements from Margaret's lab notebook indicates she is testing an acid?

a)

I put on protective gloves and touched the solution. It felt slippery as if I were touching wet soap.

b)

I added some drops of a bromothymol blue indicator solution, and the color indicated a pH of about 7.0 on the scale.

c)

I placed a drop of oil into the solution in the beaker. After two minutes, I noticed that the solution had dissolved the oil.

d)

I dipped a universal indicator strip into the beaker of the solution. The strip turned orange, matching a pH range of 3.0 to 4.0 on the color scale.

52.

Carbon (C) and hydrogen (H) can be chemically combined to form a new substance called methane (CH4). Which statement below best describes how the new substance compares to carbon (C) and hydrogen (H)?

a)

The new substance methane (CH4) has the same properties as carbon (C).

b)

The new substance methane (CH4) has the same properties as hydrogen (H).

c)

The new substance methane (CH4) has different properties than only hydrogen (H).

d)

The new substance methane (CH4) has different properties than both carbon (C) and hydrogen (H).

53.

Which of the following statements best describes why salad dressing is classified as a heterogeneous mixture?

a)

It is uniform in composition and the parts that make up the mixture can be separated from one another through physical means.

b)

It is not uniform in composition and the parts that make up the mixture can be separated from one another through physical means.

c)

It is uniform in composition and the parts that make up the mixture cannot be separated from one another through physical means.

d)

It is not uniform in composition and the parts that make up the mixture can be separated from one another through chemical means.

54.

Which system aids digestion by chewing food into small, soft bites?

a)

digestive

b)

circulatory

c)

skeletal

d)

immune

55.

Which system helps the uterus contract during childbirth?

a)

digestive

b)

circulatory

c)

skeletal

d)

muscular

56.

Which organ system protects the heart and creates more blood for the circulatory system.

a)

muscular

b)

skeletal

c)

immune

57.

Which system works with the system shown to maintain homeostasis?

a)

The respiratory system, because it brings oxygen which is absorbed in the blood where it is converted to carbon dioxide which then exits as waste through the urethra

b)

The digestive system, because vitamins and minerals are absorbed in the intestinal wall and carbon dioxide passes through to the kidneys where it exits through the urethra.

c)

The circulatory system because it circulates the blood through the kidneys where waste and water are removed from the blood and most of the water is returned to the system.

d)

The circulatory system because it circulates the blood through the kidneys where waste and carbon dioxide are removed from the blood and carbon dioxide then exits through the urethra.

58.

Animal cells have a cell membrane but plant cells do not. They have a cell wall instead.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Scientists once supported the theory of spontaneous generation, which stated that organisms could develop from nonliving matter. This theory has been proven incorrect and has been replaced by cell theory. What does cell theory propose?

a)

All organisms are composed of cells.

b)

All cells come from preexisting cells.

c)

Cells are the basic unit of life.

d)

All of the above.

60.

What is true for all organisms?

a)

They are made of at least one organelle.

b)

They are made of at least one cell.

c)

They are made of tissues.

d)

They are made of organs.

61.

Which organelles are found in plant cells but not animal cells?

a)

cell walls and cell membranes

b)

nuclei and mitochondria

c)

cytoplasm and vacuoles

d)

chloroplasts and cell walls

62.

What is true of ALL uni- and multi-cellular organisms?

a)

They are made of cells and tissues

b)

They are made of organs and organ systems.

c)

They are all made of atoms, molecules and cells.

d)

All of the above.

63.

Although cells come in many sizes and shapes, they all must maintain homeostasis. Which of the following is part of homeostasis?

a)

obtaining nutrients and getting rid of wastes

b)

allowing variable sugar or salt levels

c)

tolerating uncontrolled growth

d)

enduring erratic gain or loss of water

64.

Which of the following is made of tissues and is part of an organ system?

a)

a muscle cell

b)

a heart

c)

a carbon atom

d)

a water molecule

65.

Fish, snails, zebras, and fruit flies are all organisms, and they look very different from each other. All organisms can be classified into six kingdoms: Eubacteria, Archaea, Protist, Fungus, Plant, and Animal. Although the organisms listed above look very different, they are all members of the same kingdom. Which kingdom do they belong to, and what is a characteristic shared by all organisms in this kingdom?

a)

Animal; All animals are multicellular.

b)

Eubacteria; All eubacteria have eukaryotic cells.

c)

Animal; All animals live in a marine environment.

d)

Protist; All protists can move around in their environment.

66.

The picture shows a humpback whale, weighing a massive 140 million grams, and a pygmy shrew, weighing 4 grams.Are these two vastly different organisms classified in the same domain or kingdom?

a)

They are classified into different domains and kingdoms

b)

They are classified into the same domain and same kingdom

c)

They are classified into different domains, but they are in the same kingdom

d)

They are classified into the same domain but different kingdoms

67.

Which of the following describes a way that protists differ from animals and plants?

a)

Protists are single-celled organisms

b)

Protists resemble neither plants nor animals

c)

Protists are typically much larger than most plants or animals

d)

Different species of protists do not differ greatly from one another

68.

What is the function of decomposers in this meadow environment ?

a)

Splitting of water into hydrogen and oxygen

b)

Conversion of light energy into chemical energy

c)

Recycling of nutrients from dead organisms back into the soil

d)

Synthesis of organic molecules from inorganic raw materials

69.

Use the chart and your knowledge of energy transfers within the food webs to answer the following question. What is the role of the hawk in this food web?

a)

Decomposers

b)

Tertiary Consumers

c)

Primary Consumers

d)

Secondary Consumers

70.

The diagram shown represents some of the food relationships between several organisms in a marine community. Which organisms would normally be the least numerous in this marine community?

a)

Diatoms

b)

Small fish

c)

Small crustaceans

d)

Orca whales

71.

The picture shows a forest food web. Use the picture to answer any questions that follow. What starts the flow of energy in this food web?

a)

consumers

b)

producers

c)

the Sun

d)

the rain

72.

All organisms take energy from their environment. Every organism needs this energy in order to grow and reproduce. How do producers get energy?

a)

They obtain energy by eating plants, bacteria, and algae.

b)

They extract chemical energy from decaying organic matter.

c)

They extract energy from the chemicals in soil, air, and water.

d)

They capture energy from sunlight and manufacture their own food.

73.

Jorge has a book about Antarctica. The picture shows four animals from a page in his book. Use the picture to answer any questions that follow. Which of the following is the correct food chain for these animals?

a)

krill → penguin → fish → seal

b)

seal → fish → penguin → krill

c)

krill → fish → penguin → seal

d)

seal → penguin → fish → krill

74.

What effect would a decrease in the deer population in the Everglades most likely have on the endangered Florida panthers in the area?

a)

A. The panther population will increase, because it will not have to compete with the deer for resources.

b)

The panther population will not be affected, because it does not interact significantly with the deer population.

c)

The panther population will decrease, because there will be fewer food sources available to it.

d)

The panther population will leave its habitat and relocate to a place where the deer population is not decreasing.

75.

The Bloody Heart lichen is composed of a fungus and an alga. The alga makes food through photosynthesis and the fungus encloses it, providing support. What kind of relationship is this?

a)

competitive

b)

commensal

c)

mutualistic

d)

parasitic