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Microbiology Midterm Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Microorganisms are involved in each of the following processes EXCEPT?

a)

Infection

b)

Decomposition

c)

O2 production

d)

Food production

e)

Smog production

2.

Each of the following organisms would be considered a microbe EXCEPT?

a)

Yeast

b)

Protozoan

c)

Bacterium

d)

Mushroom

e)

Virus

3.

The term used describe a disease-causing microorganism is?

a)

Microbe

b)

Bacterium

c)

Virus

d)

Pathogen

e)

Infection

4.

Common commercial benefits of microorganisms include synthesis of.

a)

antibiotics

b)

aspirin

c)

insulin

d)

antibiotics and aspirin

e)

antibiotics and insulin

5.

Commercial utilization of microbial products has become increasingly popular due to their environmentally friendly nature. Removal of these products from the environment typically utilizes?

a)

Enzymes

b)

Organic acids

c)

Organic solvents

d)

Soap

e)

Alcohol

6.

The formal system for classifying and naming organisms was developed by?

a)

Robert Koch

b)

Ignaz Semmelweis

c)

Aristotle

d)

Carolus Linnaeus

e)

Louis Pasteur

7.

In the name Staphylococcus aureus, aureus is the?

a)

Genus

b)

Domain name

c)

Specific name

d)

Kingdom

e)

Family name

8.

A prokaryotic cell may possess each of the following cellular components EXCEPT?

a)

Flagella

b)

Nucleus

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Cell Wall

e)

Cell membrane

9.

Which of the following is NOT associated with viruses?

a)

Organelles

b)

Nucleic acid

c)

Envelope

d)

Spikes

e)

Capsid

10.

The bacterial shape of the cells in figure 1.1 would best be described as?

a)

Bacillus

b)

Spiral

c)

Coccus

d)

Ovoid

e)

Columnar

11.

Which of the following statements about the atom C is FALSE?

a)

It has 6 protons in its nucleus

b)

It has 12 neutrons in its nucleus

c)

It has 6 electrons orbiting the nucleus

d)

Its atomic number is 6

e)

Its atomic weight is 12

12.

Using the information in the periodic table to calculate the molecular weight of ethanol, C2H5OH.

a)

96 grams

b)

46 grams

c)

34 grams

d)

33 grams

e)

The answer cannot be determined

13.

Antacids neutralize acid by the following reaction. Identify the salt in the following equation: Mg(OH)2 + 2HCl --> MgCl2 + H2O.

a)

Mg(OH)2

b)

HCl

c)

MgCl2

d)

H2O

e)

None of the answers are correct

14.

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a)

Salts readily dissolve in water

b)

Water molecules are formed by hydrolysis

c)

Water freezes from the top down

d)

Water is a part of a dehydration synthesis reaction

e)

Water is a polar molecule

15.

Which of the following is the type of bond holding K+ and I - ions in KI?

a)

Ionic bond

b)

Covalent bond

c)

Hydrogen bond

16.

Which of the following is the type of bond between molecules of water in a beaker of water?

a)

Ionic bond

b)

Covalent bond

c)

Hydrogen bond

17.

What is the type of bond holding hydrogen and oxygen atoms in H2O molecule?

a)

Ionic bond

b)

Covalent bond

c)

Hydrogen bond

18.

Identify the following reaction: Glucose + Fructose --> Sucrose + Water

a)

Dehydration synthesis reaction

b)

Hydrolyis reaction

c)

Exchange reaction

d)

Reversible reaction

e)

Ionic reaction

19.

Identify the following reaction: HCl + NaHCO3 --> NaCl + H2CO3.

a)

Dehydration synthesis reaction

b)

Hydrolysis reaction

c)

Exchange reaction

d)

Reversible reaction

e)

Ionic reaciton

20.

Identify the following reaction: Lactose + H2O --> Glucose + Galactose.

a)

Dehydration synthesis reaction

b)

Hydrolysis reaction

c)

Exchange reaction

d)

Reversible reaction

e)

Ionic reaction

21.

Which of the following is NOT equal to 1 mm?

a)

0.001 m

b)

106 nm

c)

0.1 cm

d)

100 um

e)

10-3 m

22.

What structure does light pass through after leaving the condenser in a compound light microscope?

a)

Ocular lens

b)

Objective lens

c)

Specimen

d)

Illuminator

23.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

a)

Nigrosin - negative stain

b)

Methylene blue - simple stain

c)

Acidic dye - capsule stain

d)

Basic dye - negative stain

e)

Crystal violet - simple stain

24.

Which of the following places the steps of the gram stain in the correct order?

  1. Alcohol-acetone
  2. Crystal violet
  3. Safranin
  4. Iodine
a)

1-2-3-4

b)

2-1-4-3

c)

2-4-1-3

d)

4-3-2-1

e)

1-3-2-4

25.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

a)

Alcohol-acetone - decolorizer

b)

Crystal violet - basic dye

c)

Safranin - acid dye

d)

Iodine - mordant

e)

Carbolfuschsin - basic dye

26.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the acid-fast stain?

a)

It is used to identify members of the genus Mycobacterium

b)

Acid-fast cells retain the primary dye after treatment with acid-alcohol

c)

If cells are acid-fast, they are gram-negative

d)

Acid-fast cells appear red in a completed acid-fast stain

e)

Non-acid-fast microbes appear blue in a competed acid-fast stain

27.

The purpose of a mordant in the gram stain is to?

a)

Remove the simple stain

b)

Make the bacterial cells larger

c)

Make the flagella visible

d)

Prevent the crystal violet from leaving the cells

e)

Make gram-negative cells visible

28.

Which of the following places the steps in the correct sequence?

  1. Staining
  2. Making a smear
  3. Fixing
a)

1-2-3

b)

3-2-1

c)

2-3-1

d)

1-3-2

e)

The order is unimportant

29.

The negative stain is used to?

a)

Visualize endospores

b)

Determine gram reaction

c)

Determine flagella arrangement

d)

Visualize capsules

e)

Determine cell size

30.

Simple staining is often necessary to improve contrast in which microscope?

a)

Compound light microscope

b)

Phase-contrast microscope

c)

Darkfield microscope

d)

Fluorescence microscope

e)

Electron microscope

31.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding prokaryotic cells?

a)

Their DNA is not enclosed within a membrane

b)

They lack membrane-enclosed organelles

c)

They typically have a circular chromosome

d)

They reproduce by binary fission

e)

They lack a plasma membrane

32.

Each of the following statements concerning the gram-positive cell wall is true EXCEPT?

a)

It maintains the shape of the cell

b)

It is sensitive to lysosomes

c)

It protects the cell in a hypertonic environment

d)

It contains teichoic acids

e)

It is sensitive to penicillin

33.

Which of the following statements best describes what happens when a bacterial cell is placed in a solution containing 5 percent NaCl?

a)

Sucrose will move into the cell from a higher to a lower concentration

b)

The cell will undergo osmotic lysis

c)

Water will move out of the cell

d)

Water will move into the cell

e)

No change will result; the solution is isotonic

34.

A gram-positive bacteria suddenly acquires resistance to the antibiotic methicillin. This trait most likely occurred due to?

a)

Conjuation

b)

Binary fission

c)

Meisosis

d)

Transformation

e)

Transduction

35.

By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration?

a)

Simple difussion

b)

Facilitated difussion

c)

Active transport

d)

Extracellular enzymes

e)

Aquaporins

36.

Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of most bacterial plasma membrane?

a)

Site of energy production

b)

Composed of a phospholipid bilayer

c)

Contains proteins

d)

Contains cholesterol

e)

Is selectively permeable

37.

Which of the following have a cell wall?

a)

Protoplasts

b)

Fungi

c)

L forms

d)

Mycoplasmas

e)

Animal cells

38.

Which of the following is TRUE?

a)

Endospores are for reproduction

b)

Endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes

c)

Endospores are easily stained in a gram stain

d)

A cell produces one endospore and keeps growing

e)

A cell can produce many endospores

39.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

a)

Endoplasmic reticulum - internal transport

b)

Golgi complex - secretion

c)

Mitochondria - ATP production

d)

Centrosome - food storage

e)

Lysosome - digestive enzymes

40.

Which of the following organelles most closely resembles a prokaryotic cell?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondrion

c)

Golgi complex

d)

Vacuole

e)

Cell wall

41.

Which of the following compounds is NOT an enzyme?

a)

Dehydrogenase

b)

Cellulase

c)

Coenzyme A

d)

Beta-galactosidase

e)

Sucrase

42.

Which compound is being reduced in the reaction shown in Figure 5.1?

a)

Isoitric acid and α-ketoglutaric acid

b)

NAD+

c)

NADH

d)

NADH and isocrtic acid

e)

α-ketoglutaric acid and NAD+

43.

Which organism is NOT correctly matched to its energy source?

a)

Photoheterotroph - light

b)

Photoautotroph - CO2

c)

Chemoautotroph - Fe+2

d)

Chemoautotroph - glucose

e)

Chemoautotroph - NH3

44.

Which of the following statements about anaerobic respiration is FALSE?

a)

It yields lower amounts of ATP when compared to aerobic respiration

b)

The complete Kreb's cycle is utilized

c)

It involves the reduction of an organic final electron acceptor

d)

It generates ATP

e)

It requires cytochromes

45.

What type of reaction is in Figure 5.2?

a)

Decarboxylation

b)

Transamination

c)

Dehydrogenation

d)

Oxidation

e)

Reduction

46.

What is the fate of pyruvic acid in an organism that uses aerobic respiration?

a)

It is reduced to lactic acid

b)

It reacts with oxaloacetate to form citrate

c)

It is oxidized in the electron transport chain

d)

It is catabolized in glycolysis

e)

It is converted into acetyl CoA

47.

How would a noncompetitive inhibitor interfere with a reaction involving the enzyme shown in Figure 5.3?

a)

It would bind to a

b)

It would bind to b

c)

It would bind to c

d)

It would bind to d

e)

The answer cannot be determined base on the information provided

48.

How is ATP generated in the reaction shown in Figure 5.4?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Fermentation

c)

Photophosphorylation

d)

Oxidative phosphorylation

e)

Substrate-level phosphorylation

49.

Fatty acids are oxidized in?

a)

The Krebs cycle

b)

The electron transport chain

c)

Glycolysis

d)

The pentose phosphate pathway

e)

The Entner-Doudoroff pathway

50.

Which of the graphs in Figure 5.5 best illustrates the activity of an enzyme that is saturated with substrate?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

51.

In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts facultative anaerobe in the absence of O2?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

52.

In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts an obligate anaerobe in the presence of O2?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

53.

In Figure 6.1, which line shows the growth of an obligate aerobe incubated anaerobically?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

54.

In Figure 6.1, which line best illustrates the growth of a facultative anaerobe incubated aerobically?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

55.

In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a psychrotroph incubated at 0°C?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

56.

If cells are grown in media containing amino acids labeled with radioactive nitrogen, most of radioactivity will be found in the cells'?

a)

DNA

b)

Proteins

c)

Phospholipids

d)

DNA and proteins

e)

DNA and phospholipids

57.

Which of the following elements is NOT correctly matched with its cellular function?

a)

Nitrogen - needed for amino acid synthesis

b)

Phosphorus - incorporated into nucleic acids

c)

Sulfur - used for synthesis of thiamin and biotin

d)

Magnesium and potassium - required as cofactors for enzymes

e)

None of the answers are correct; all of the elements are correctly matched.

58.

Pathogenic bacteria isolated from the respiratory or intestinal tracts of humans are?

a)

Strict aerobes that grow best in candle jars

b)

Capnophiles that grow best in carbon dioxide incubators

c)

Facultative anaerobes that require reducing media for growth

d)

Strict aerobes that grow best in reducing media

e)

Capnophiles that prefer highly toxic oxygenated growth conditions

59.

The biosafety level (BSL) for most introductory microbiology laboratories is?

a)

BSL-1

b)

BSL-2

c)

BSL-3

d)

BSL-4

60.

The biosafety level (BSL) for a clinical microbiology laboratory working with potentially airborne pathogens, such as tuberculosis bacteria, is?

a)

BSL-1

b)

BSL-2

c)

BSL-3

d)

BSL-4

61.

Which of the following is the best method to sterilize heat-labile solutions?

a)

Dry heat

b)

Autoclave

c)

Membrane filtration

d)

Pasteurization

e)

Freezing

62.

Which of the following best describes the pattern of microbial death?

a)

The cells in a population die at a constant rate

b)

All the cells in a culture die at once

c)

Not all of the cells in a culture are killed

d)

The pattern varies depending on the antimicrobial agent

e)

The pattern varies depending on the species

63.

Which of the following chemical agents is used for sterilization?

a)

Alcohol

b)

Phenolics

c)

Ethylene oxide

d)

Chlorine

e)

Soap

64.

Which of the following substances is used for surgical hand scrubs?

a)

Phenol

b)

Chlorine bleach

c)

Chlorhexidine

d)

Soap

e)

Glutaraldehyde

65.

Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched?

a)

Bacteriostatic - kills vegetative bacterial cells

b)

Germicide - kills microbes

c)

Virucide - inactivates viruses

d)

Sterilant - destroys all living microorganisms

e)

Fungicide - kills yeast and molds

66.

The antimicrobial activity of chlorine is due to which of the following?

a)

The formation of hypochlorous acid

b)

The formation of hydrochloric acid

c)

The formation of ozone

d)

The formation of a hypochlorite ion

e)

Disruption of the plasma membrane

67.

Which of the following regarding antimicrobial control agents is FALSE?

a)

Contaminating organic debris such as blood or sputum decrease effectiveness

b)

Some agents kill by denaturing microbial cell proteins

c)

Some agents affect microbial cell membranes by dissolving lipids

d)

Silver is used for treating antibiotic-resistant bacteria

e)

Some agents inactivate viruses by attacking cell membrane lipids

68.

Which of the following does NOT achieve sterilization?

a)

Dry heat

b)

Pasteurization

c)

Autoclave

d)

Supercritical fluids

e)

Ethylene oxide

69.

Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave?

a)

It requires an excessively long time to achieve sterilization

b)

It cannot inactivate viruses

c)

It cannot kill endospores

d)

It cannot be used with heat-labile materials

e)

It cannot be used with glassware

70.

An agent used to reduce the number of bacteria on a toilet would most accurately be called a(n)?

a)

Disinfectant

b)

Antiseptic

c)

Aseptic

d)

Fungicide

e)

Virucide

71.

A gene is best described as?

a)

A segment of DNA

b)

Three nucleotides that code for an amino acid

c)

A sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product

d)

A sequence of nucleotides in RNA that codes for a functional product

e)

A transcribed unit of DNA

72.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

a)

DNA polymerase - makes a molecule of DNA from a DNA template

b)

RNA polymerase - makes a molecule of RNA from an RNA template

c)

DNA ligase - joins segments of DNA

d)

Transposase - insertion of DNA segments into DNA

e)

DNA gyrase - coils and twists DNA

73.

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a)

DNA polymerase joins nucleotides in one direction only

b)

The leading strand of DNA is made continuously

c)

The lagging strand of DNA is started by an RNA primer

d)

DNA replication proceeds in one direction with hydrogen bonds between them

e)

Multiple replication forks are possible on a bacterial chromosome

74.

DNA is constructed of?

a)

A single strand of nucleotides with internal hydrogen bonding

b)

Two complementary strands of nucleotides bonded A-C and G-T

c)

Two strands of nucleotides running antiparallel

d)

Two strands of identical nucleotides with hydrogen bonds between them

e)

None of he answers are correct

75.

Which of the following is NOT a product of transcription?

a)

A new strand of DNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

mRNA

e)

None of the answers are correct, all of these are products of transcription

76.

Which of the following statements about bacteriocins is FALSE?

a)

The genes coding for them are plasmids

b)

They cause food-poisoning symptoms

c)

Nisin is a bacteriocin used as a food preservative

d)

They can be used to identify certain bacteria

e)

Bacteriocins kill bacteria

77.

In Figure 8.1, which colonies are streptomycin-resistant and leucine- requiring?

a)

1,2,3, and 9

b)

3 and 9

c)

4,6, and 8

d)

4 and 8

e)

5 and 6

78.

In table 8.1, what will be the result of conjugation between cultures 1 and 2?


Table 8.1

Culture 1: F+, leucine+, histidine+

Culture 2: F-, leucine-, histidine-

a)

1 will remain the same; 2 will become F+, leucine-, histidine-

b)

1 will become F-, leu+, his+; 2 will become F+, leu-, his-

c)

1 will become F-, leu-, his-; 2 will remain the same

d)

1 will remain the same; 2 will become F+, leu+, his+

e)

1 will remain the same; 2 will become F+ and recombination may occur

79.

In table 8., if culture 1 mutates to Hfr, what will be the result of conjugation between the two cultures?


Table 8.1

Culture 1: F+, leucine+, histidine+

Culture 2: F-, leucine-, histidine-

a)

They will both remain the same

b)

1 will become F+, leu+, his+; 2 will become F+, leu+, his+

c)

1 will remain the same; recombination will occur in 2

d)

1 will become F-, leu+, his+; 2 will become Hfr, leu+, his+

e)

The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided

80.

An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a substance is called a(n)?

a)

Inducible enzyme

b)

Repressible enzyme

c)

Restriction enzyme

d)

Operator

e)

Promoter

81.

The following are steps to make DNA fingerprints. What is the third step?

a)

Collect DNA

b)

Digest with a restriction enzyme

c)

Perform electrophoresis

d)

Lyse cells

e)

Add stain

82.

How many pieces will EcoRI produce from the plasmid shown in Figure 9.1?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

83.

In Figure 9.1, after digestion with the appropriate restiction enzyme, what is the smallest piece containing the ampicillin-resistance (amp) gene?

a)

0.17 kbp

b)

0.25 kbp

c)

1.08 kbp

d)

1.50 kbp

e)

3.00 kbp

84.

In Figure 9.2, the enzyme in step 1 is?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

DNA ligase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Reverse transcriptase

e)

Spliceosome

85.

In Figure 9.2, the enzyme is step 2 is?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

DNA ligase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Reverse transcriptase

e)

Spliceosome

86.

The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is?

a)

DNA -> mRNA

b)

mRNA -> cDNA

c)

mRNA -> protein

d)

DNA -> DNA

e)

tRNA -> mRNA

87.

Which of the following is an advantage of using E. coli to make a human gene product?

a)

Endotoxin may be in the product

b)

It does not secrete most proteins

c)

Its genes are well known

d)

It cannot process introns

e)

Endotoxin may be in the product and it does not secrete most proteins

88.

Which of the following is NOT an agricultural product made by DNA techniques?

a)

Frost retardant

b)

Bacillus thuringiensis insecticide

c)

Nitrogenase (nitrogen fixation)

d)

Glyphosate-resistant crops

e)

Pectinase

89.

If you have inserted a gene in the Ti plasmid, the next step in genetic engineering is?

a)

Transformation of E. Coli with Ti plasmid

b)

Splicing T DNA into a plasmid

c)

Transformation of an animal cell

d)

Inserting the Ti plasmid into Agrobacterium

e)

Inserting the Ti plasmid into a plant cell

90.

Biotechnology involves the?

a)

Use of microorganisms to make desired products

b)

Use of animal cells to make vaccines

c)

Development of disease-resistant crop plants

d)

Use of microorganisms to make desired products and the use of animal cells to make vaccines

e)

Use of microorganisms to make desired products, the use of animal cells to make vaccines, and the development of disease-resistant crop plants

91.

Which of the following statements about archaea is FALSE?

a)

They are prokaryotes

b)

They lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls

c)

Some are thermoacidophiles; others are extreme halophiles

d)

They evolved before bacteria

e)

Some produce methane from carbon dioxide and hydrogen

92.

Which of the following characterizes the Domain Bacteria?

a)

Prokaryotic cells; ether linkages in phospholipids

b)

Eukaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids

c)

Prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids

d)

Complex cellular structures

e)

Multicellular

93.

If two organisms have similar rRNA sequences, you can conclude that they?

a)

Live in the same place

b)

Evolved from a common ancestor

c)

Will have different G-C ratios

d)

Will both ferment lactose

e)

Mated with each other

94.

What is the outstanding characteristics of the Kingdom Fungi?

a)

All members are photosynthetic

b)

Members absorb dissolved organic matter

c)

Members absorb dissolved inorganic matter

d)

All members are microscopic

e)

All members are macroscopic

95.

Which of the following statements about members of the Kingdom Plantae is FALSE?

a)

They are multicellular

b)

They are composed of eukaryotic cells

c)

They undergo photosynthesis

d)

They use organic carbon sources

e)

They synthesize organic molecules

96.

Which of the following statements about the members of the Kingdom Animalia is FALSE?

a)

They are multicellular

b)

They are composed of eukaryotic cells

c)

They undergo photosynthesis

d)

They ingest nutrients through a mouth

e)

They are heterotrophs

97.

A genus can best be defined as?

a)

A taxon composed of families

b)

A taxon composed of one or more species and below family

c)

A taxon belonging to a species

d)

A taxon comprised of classes

e)

The most specific taxon

98.

A bacterial species differs from a species of eukaryotic organisms in that a bacterial species?

a)

Does not breed with other species

b)

Has a limited geographical distribution

c)

Can be distinguished from other bacterial species

d)

Is a population of cells with similar characteristics

e)

Breeds with its own species

99.

Which of the following is the best evidence for a three-domain system?

a)

Nucleotide sequences in ribosomal RNA vary between all three domains

b)

There are three distinctly different sets of metabolic reactions

c)

There are three distinctly different Gram reaction

d)

Some bacteria live in extreme environments

e)

There are three distinctly different types of nuclei

100.

Biochemical tests are used to determine?

a)

Staining characteristics

b)

Amino acid sequnces

c)

Nuclei acid-base composition

d)

Enzymatic activities

e)

All of the answers are correct

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