WorksheetsVTNE #1
Total questions: 170
Worksheet time: 42hrs 1mins
What canine bacterial disease can be transmitted
through the air by aerosolization of urine?
Infectious hepatitis
Leptospirosis
Parvovirus infection
Salmonellosis
Why is it extremely important to exercise caution
when using balling guns, dose syringes, and stomach
tube in cattle?
To prevent the development of traumatic
reticuloperitonitis
To prevent the development of infectious
bovine rhinotracheitis
To prevent the development of pharyngeal
cellulitis, abscessation, or hematoma
To prevent the development of bovine respiratory
syncytial virus
You are taking the heart rate of a cat. If you count
10 beats in 5 seconds, what is the rate in beats per
minute?
50
120
300
220
What is the underlying cause of icterus?
anemia
hyperbilirubinemia
ketonuria
hyperhemaglobinemia
Which types of syringe tips are needed to attach to
10fr Red Rubber tubes?
Leur lock
Eccentric
Catheter
Curved
Ketosis in dairy cows may result from a primary
deficiency of _____ intake or may be secondary to
other diseases that cause _____.
Water; dehydration
Calcium; hypocalcemia
Energy; anorexia
Selenium; neurologic signs
Which of the following is characterized as droopy
eyelids, protruding nictitans, and miosis?
Brachycephalic syndrome
Horner syndrome
Wobbler syndrome
Vestibular syndrome
What vessel of the equine is palpable for the pulse
rate?
Digital artery
Cephalic vein
Jugular vein
Femoral artery
Which of the following bovine vaccinations can
cause zoonotic disease if accidentally injected?
Brucellosis
Parainfluenza
Listeriosis
Clostridiosis
When gavage feeding parrots you should ensure
that your feeding tube extends to the level of
Just cranial of the thoracic inlet
The 5th rib space
The last rib margin
The synsacrum
What amount of diluent would you need to make 50
mL of a 10% solution from a stock solution of
80%?
6.25 ml
20 ml
30.5 ml
43.75 ml
Coggins is the test for what Equine disease?
Equine infection anemia
Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis
Potomac horse fever
Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
A 4 year old Labrador Retriever with a heart rate of
160 has
hypertension
tachycardia
bradypnea
paresis
You are asked to prepare 20 mEq of KCl for addition
to a 1-L bag of lactated Ringer solution. The
solution contains 30 mEq/15 ml. How much should
you draw into a syringe to add to the fluid bag?
10 ml
20 ml
30 ml
40 ml
The respective gestation periods of a rabbit, guinea
pig, and mouse are
30, 68 and 21 days
30, 42 and 21 days
24, 42 and 21 days
21, 68, and 30 days
In what species is scrotal circumference, rather than
a sperm count using a hemocytometer, used to estimate
sperm count?
Horses
Sheep
Dogs
Pigs
If you are giving IV fluids using an IV set that delivers
10 drops/ml and you set the drip rate at 15
drips/minute, how much fluid will be delivered in 4
hours?
240 mL
360 mL
400 mL
720 mL
How long after birth does gut closure typically occur
in calves and foals? (when protective maternal
antibodies can no longer be absorbed from the gut
to the bloodstream)
1-3 hours
3-6 hours
9-12 hours
18-24 hours
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is transmitted by
Exposure to pesticides
Tick bites
Consumption of uncooked fish
Abrupt change to higher altitude environment
Which animal is most vulnerable to severe spinal
cord damage when handled improperly?
Cat
Rabbit
Ferret
Parrot
A 15 year old, 40 lb Corgi is 7% dehydrated. You
are instructed to administer fluids equal to the
deficit over then next 24 hours. How high should
you set the fluid pump?
53 mL/hr
67 mL/hr
100 mL/hr
221 mL/hr
Which choice correctly lists the four core vaccines
for dogs?
Bordetella bronchiseptica, rabies, canine
parainfluenza, canine adenovirus-1
Canine influenza virus, canine distemper,
Leptospira interrogans, Borrelia burgdorferi
Canine distemper, canine parvovirus,
canine adenovirus-2, rabies
Crotalus atrox, canine hepatitis virus, canine
parvovirus, canine influenza
Which parasites can infect puppies through the
dam's milk?
Lungworm, flukes
Tapeworm, whipworm
Hookworm, roundworm
Coccidia, Ringworm
If a dog has flaccid paresis, what is the problem?
Inflammation of the spinal cord
Stiff limbs and paralysis
Weak and limp muscles
Inability to mate
Appropriate blood collection sites in tortoises include
the jugular vein and
caudal vena cava
subcarapacial sinus
medial metatarsal vein
cephalic vein
If an IV set dispenses 60 drops/ml, what is the IV
drip rate (drops per minute) needed to give a cat 300 ml of Lactated Ringer's solution (LRS) over 6
hours?
60
50
100
10
You and the vet are called to a dairy farm at 4 a.m.
for a “prolapse". What kind of problem is this likely
to be?
Uterus is hanging out
Penis cannot retract into prepuce
Eyeball protruded out of the socket
Mismating
In rabbits organism causes “walking dandruff”?
Pasteurella multocida
Otodectes cyanotis
Cheyletiella yasurgi
Francisella tularensis
While examining a high-producing dairy cow that
is off-feed, the vet puts her stethoscope on the left
side in a line between the left elbow and the cow's
hip bones and starts flicking her fingers against the
side of the cow while listening to the stethoscope.
What is she listening for?
The characteristic dead spot of an impacted
omasum
The dull thud of rumen stasis
The musical ping of a left displaced
abomasum
The regular movement of rumen contraction
waves
Which animal cannot normally regurgitate or vomit?
Cow
Horse
Cat
Ferret
Feline injection site sarcomas are primarily linked
with which two vaccines?
FeLV and Rabies vaccines
Feline calici/herpes and panleukopenia
vaccines
FeLV and feline calici/herpes vaccines
Rabies and FIV vaccines
A 12-year-old Warmblood mare has been sedated
intravenously with a combination of xylazine and
butorphanol for dental evaluation because she has
been dropping feed.
You listen to the heart immediately after sedation
and note a heart rate of 20 beats per minute [Normal
= 28-44 bpm] with an occasional “dropped”
beat; the horse is standing quietly.
What is the most appropriate action to take next?
Prepare a dose of yohimbine to reverse the
xylazine
Prepare a dose of atropine to increase heart
rate
Nothing; this is a normal response
Prepare a dose of naloxone to reverse the
butorphanol
Which of the following choices is a common cause
of the Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern? (Fast
breathing, then slowing down, then no breathing,
then cycle starts again)
Hypovolemia and low intracranial pressure
Brain damage, animal too deeply anesthetized
Light levels (phase 1) of inhalant anesthesia
Severe metabolic acidosis, diabetic ketoacidosis
How many mL of a 50:50 mixture of diazepam
and ketamine at a dose of 1mL/20lb should be administered
to an 8 lb cat?
0.4 mL diazepam; 0.4 mL ketamine
0.2 mL diazepam; 0.2 mL ketamine
2 mL diazepam; 2 mL ketamine
1 mL diazepam; 1 mL ketamine
The endotracheal tube should not be inflated in
birds because:
They can bite it off and swallow it
They have complete tracheal rings, making
the trachea less compliant when the
endotracheal tube cuff is inflated
The inflated cuff becomes easily lodged in
air sacs
Their trachea is soft and may be traumatized
Which drug is a dissociative anesthetic?
Fentanyl
Ketamine
Xylazine
Acepromazine
A 10-year-old dog has been anesthetized for removal
of a skin tumor and is now maintained on
2% isoflurane. The anesthetist observes that its respirations
are 8/min and shallow, its heart rate is 80
beats/min, its pupils are centrally positioned, its jaw
tone is slack, and all of its reflexes are absent. This
animal is in what stage and plane of anesthesia?
Stage III, plane 2
Stage III, plane 3
Stage III, plane 4
Stage IV, plane 1
Hypothermia
Prolongs anesthetic induction
Prolongs anesthetic recovery
Is common in obese patients
Is of no concern in neonatal patients
Compared to Isoflurane the inhaled anesthetic
Sevoflurane has
smaller dosage requirement
quicker recovery time
less respiratory depression
All of the above
What is a common side effect seen in the horse to
opioid administration?
Increased appetite
Nystagmus
Sweating
Aggression
If a 30 lb dog was held on anesthesia at an oxygen
flow rate of 700 ml/min and the surgery lasted 1.5
hours, what is the total volume of oxygen used during
the surgery?
2.1 liters
15 liters
30 liters
63 liters
When an endotracheal tube is being inserted in a
horse, the animal should be in
Sternal recumbency with its head at a 90⁰
angle to the neck
Sternal recumbency with its head and neck
extended
Lateral recumbency with its head at a 90⁰
angle to the neck
Lateral recumbency with its head, neck
and back extended
What is the main purpose of the scavenger on the
anesthetic machine?
Relieve excess pressure
Supply gas to breathing bag
Remove waste gases
Remove CO2 from the anesthetic gases
If propofol is given to a patient too rapidly, it may
cause
Profound transient apnea
Irritation of the vein
A long-lasting excitement phase
Seizures
An abnormally elevated central venous pressure
developing during anesthesia and surgery may indicate
Intravenous fluid overload
Increased cardiac output
Dehydration
Liver disease
While ruminants are recovering from anesthesia,
they should be placed in _____ recumbency to minimize
_____.
Left lateral; regurgitation
Sternal; regurgitation
Right lateral; regurgitation
Left lateral, atelectasis
Tidal volume for a dog is 15 ml/kg. If a 10 kg male
dog is taking 10 breaths per minute, what is his
minute volume?
150 ml/min
1500 ml/min
15 ml/min
10 ml/min
Which anesthetic breathing system has the lowest
fresh gas flow rate during maintenance of anesthesia?
Nonrebreathing
Partial rebreathing
Closed system
Semi-closed system
Which of the following is the most correct description
of multi-modal analgesia?
Treatment with pain medication during
surgery and prior to recovery of a patient
Use of an antagonist to reverse dangerous
side effects of an analgesic medication
Combination of different types of analgesic
medications and procedures to treat
pain
Use of higher doses of pain medication given
previously to a patient to achieve adequate
analgesia
To prepare a dose of 0.2 mg of atropine using a
solution that contains 400 ug/mL, how much do you
draw into the syringe?
0.05 mL
0.2 mL
0.5 mL
2 mL
Which choice is often used in combination with
ketamine or thiopental to induce anesthesia in horses?
Halothane
Phenobarbital
Naloxone
Guaifenesin
Which choice indicates that the soda lime granules
in a CO2 absorbent canister have become exhausted?
Color stays pink, regardless of CO2 exposure
Color changes to brown and liquid accumulates
at the base of the canister
Color change from purple to pink, crystals
become powder
Crystals become hard and turn off-white
to pale purple
Which two drugs are contraindicated in animals
with a history of seizures?
Ketamine, diazepam
Morphine, phenobarbital
Xylazine, thiopental
Acepromazine, ketamine
What side effect is often seen in horses tranquilized
with acepromazine?
Hives
Penile protrusion
Collapse
Vomiting
How many mL will you draw up to administer 25
units of epoetin (2000 units/mL)?
2.5 mL
0.25 mL
0.01 mL
0.1 mL
Prednisone should not be given with:
Midazolam
Diphenhydramine
Famotidine
Meloxicam
Which antibiotic will cause the enamel of teeth to
yellow in a young animal?
Penicillin
Streptomycin
Chloramphenicol
Tetracycline
The safety margin between effective and toxicity is
called what?
Partition coefficient
Penol index
Lethal dose
Therapeutic index
What drug is used to return a mare to proestrus
from diestrus through lysis of the corpus luteum?
Progesterone
Estrogen
Prostaglandin
Gonadotropin
Scooter, a 13-year-old miniature schnauzer, has
arrested under anesthesia for routine dentistry. You
run to the crash cart and grab what you know to be
the drug of choice for cardiac arrest, which is
Epinephrine
Lidocaine
Digoxin
Dobutamine
Methocarbamol is labeled as an adjunctive therapy
for
Seizures
Muscle tremors
Increased intracranial pressure
Endocrinopathies
Which drug is exclusively against cestode parasites?
Praziquantel
Pyrantel
Piperazine
Polymyxin
What vein is commonly used for IV injections in
Horses?
Tail vein
Aural vein
Cephalic vein
Jugular vein
The NSAID that is extremely toxic to cats is
Aspirin
Acetominophen
Carprofen
Flunixin
How many cc of 5% Ultra-mycin should you give
PO for 44 lb. dog, if the dose is 50 mg/kg?
15 ml
40 ml
20 ml
10 ml
A calf with pinkeye is being treated with an injection
of long acting oxytetracycline. The calf weighs 100 lbs and the dose is 10mg/kg. How many milligrams
will be needed for one dose?
1000 mg
2200 mg
454 mg
75 mg
Why are most antibiotics contraindicated in rabbits
and hamsters?
Highly permeable blood-brain barrier
Small hearts sensitive to overstimulation
Disruption of gut flora
Increased risk of renotoxicity
The drug maropitant is best categorized as an
prokinetic
antiemetic
antitussive
analgesic
Diuresis is best defined as
excess tubular filtrate secretion
increased urine production
excess creatinine and sodium secretion
water retention
What is one of the most common long-term problems
associated using glucocorticoids like prednisolone
in dogs?
Diabetes mellitus
Hypoadrenocorticism
Hypothyroidism
Hyperadrenocorticism
A cat that weighs 11 lb (5 kg) is prescribed antibiotics
at a dosage of 0.2 mg/lb (0.44 mg/kg). The
medication is available only in 2 mg tablets. How
many tablets should the cat receive in a single dose?
~1/2 tablet
~1 tablet
~1/4 tablet
~1 1/2 tablet
Rochester Carmalt forceps are commonly used in
which choice?
Spay
Cardiosurgery
Dentistry
Orthopedic repair
When folding surgical gowns for sterilization
Tie the arms together so they do not dangle
when the surgeon is gowning
Have the ends of the sleeves on top for easy
grasping
Attention to the method of folding is not
necessary
Place the inside of the shoulder seams on
top and fold all outer areas of the gown
to the inside
Proud flesh is the
Persistence of the spermatic cord following
castration of a horse
Exuberant granulation tissue developing
in a wound
Cutaneous neoplasm found in a horse
Crest of a stallions’s neck
What guidelines are followed when cutting suture
ends for the doctor in closing an incision?
Cut the suture ends next to the knot
Leave the suture ends long enough for
ease of removal
The tips of the scissors should not be used
to cut the suture
Technicians are not allowed to cut sutures
A Caslick operation is done in horses to
Stop roaring
Improve fertility
Treat navicular disease
Clean out the guttural pouches
If skin edges are under extreme tension, what is the
suture pattern of choice?
Simple continuous
Simple interrupted
Interrupted horizontal mattress
Continuous horizontal mattress
What instrument is not a self-retaining tissue retractor?
Finochietto
Army-Navy
Balfour
Gelpi
The instrument suitable for cutting a paper drape is
Operating scissors
Metzenbaum scissors
Osteotome
Olson Hegars
When attaching an ECG, which leg should have the
red lead attached to it?
Right foreleg
Left foreleg
Right hind leg
Left hind leg
If the testicles are not palpable, and a cryptorchidectomy
is performed, the incision would most likely
be
Prescrotal
Inguinal
Ventral midline
Perineal
Which one of the following is a disadvantage of
multifilament (vs. monofilament) suture material?
Less knot security
Tears tissues more easily
Greater tendency for wicking bacteria
Less strength
Which of the following is not true regarding crytorchidism
in horses?
One or both of the testicles have not descended
into the prepuce.
Surgery removal of the undescended testicle
is more involved than a normal castration.
It is an inheritable condition
Stallions affected with unilateral crytorchidism
will breed mares.
When should used sponges be counted?
After termination of surgery
Before the incision is closed
Before extubation
Before the last skin suture is placed
Which choice best describes the process of repairing
a clean wound within a few hours of injury by
first intention?
Suture the wound closed
Delayed primary closure
Allow wound to contract and epithelialize
Allow wound to granulate closed
What is the purpose of a curette?
Removes supragingival calculus
Controls hemorrhage in soft tissues
Scrapes hard tissues
Holds intramedullary bone pins
What is a urethrostomy?
Removal of blockage from urethra
Removal of the urethra
Construction of a new opening in the
urethra
Removal of kidney stones
Which are good for tough connective tissue and
fascia?
Debakey
Brown-Adson
Rat Toothed
Russian thumb
In normal healthy patients the most common leukocyte
on a canine patient are ____________, and
the most common leukocyte in bovine patients are
___________
Neutrophils, Eosinophils
Monocytes, Lymphocytes
Neutrophils, Lymphocytes
Monocytes, Neutrophils
__________ result from antibody binding to the
RBC surface and removal of a portion of the membrane
by macrophages; this occurs in immune hemolytic
anemia (IHA), which is most commonly
recognized in dogs.
Acanthocytes
Spherocytes
Leptocytes
Echinocytes
A California mastitis test
Measures leukocytes in the milk of each
quarter
Measures trypsin-like factor in the milk of
each quarter
Measures bacterial cells in the whole milk
of the udder
Measures cellular nuclear protein in the
whole milk of the udder
The Azostix strip is a rapid quantitative test for
blood levels of
Aspartateaminotransferase
Alaninetransaminase
Glucose
Urea nitrogen
The etiologic agent of Lyme disease is
Bordetella bronchiseptica
Borrelia burgdorferi
Coronavirus
Lentivirus
In horses the blood chemistry tests most commonly
used to evaluate liver function are
Alanine transaminase and aspartate aminotransferase
Electrolytes and blood urea nitrogen
Gamma-glutamyl transferase and sorbitol
dehydrogenase
Amylase and lipase
Polychromasia in an immature RBC will appear as
_____ on a blood smear stained with new methylene
blue stain
Reticulocyte
Dohle body
Barr body
Schistocyte
The life cycle of the canine flea includes which of
the following intermediate stages?
Egg, larva, nymph, adult
Egg, larva, adult
Egg, nymph, adult
Egg, larva, pupa, adult
Which one of the following nematodes has an ovoid
egg with thin shell and morulated embryo on fecal
exam?
Toxascaris leonina
Toxocara canis
Trichuris vulpis
Ancylostoma caninum
Peritoneal fluid of horses
Is normally very thick and viscid
Is normally malodorous
Is frequently examined in cases of colic
Normally contains bacteria
What is the common name for Fasciola hepatica?
Whipworm
Hookworm
Fluke
Tapeworm
Hematocrit is another name for what lab measurement
Hemoglobin (Hb, g/dl)
Red Blood Cell count
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration
(MCHC, g/dl)
Packed cell volume (PCV, %)
What is indicated by a clear colorless zone around a
bacterial colony on a blood agar plate?
Sugar fermentation
Fungal contaminat
Hemolysis
Antibiotic sensitivity
What makes accurate determination of avian and
reptile white blood cell (WBC) counts more difficult
than WBC counts in mammalian blood?
More kinds of leukocytes
Significantly smaller leukocytes
Nucleated erythrocytes
White blood cell clumping
Which one of the following choices is the most
likely to cause a brownish discoloration of urine?
myoglobin
oxalate crystals
glucosuria
byproducts of theobromine toxicity (chocolate
toxicity)
What is the globulin level in a dog with an albumin
of 4.0 g/dl and a total serum protein level of 7.5 g/
dl?
3.5 g/dl
7.5 g/dl
11.5 g/dl
Cannot calculate with this information
A stress leukogram is characterized by
Neutropenia, lymphocytosis, eosinophilia
Neutrophilia, lymphocytosis, eosinopenia
Neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinophilia
Neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia
Which term best describes the condition of a canine
upper jaw which is longer than the lower jaw?
Brachygnathism
Prognathism
Syngnathism
Cow jaw
What is the dental accumulation composed of food
particles and bacteria?
Plaque
Gingivitis
Tartar
Calculus
Which species have no maxillary incisors?
Cows and goats
Horses and llamas
Pigs and sheep
Rabbits and Guinea Pigs
What is the most important area from which tartar
must be cleaned?
Subgingival space
The buccal surface
The very back teeth
Between the teeth
What is the contact time limit for each tooth with
the use of the ultrasonic tooth scaler?
1-2 seconds
3-5 seconds
10-15 seconds
25-30 seconds
When administering an intra-oral regional nerve
block you want to inject the topical anesthetic
Directly into the nerve
Into the area directly surrounding the
nerve
Into the gingiva surrounding the tooth
Into the sulcus/pocket around the toot
The purpose of polishing during the dental prophy
is to
Massage the gums
Smooth out the rough areas and retard
plaque formation
Apply fluoride
Disinfect the surface of the tooth
Which equid does not have canine teeth?
Mare
Stallion
Gelding
Colt
The correct dental formula for an adult cat is
2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1) = 30
2 (I 4/4 C 1/1 P 2/3 M 1/1) = 34
2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 2/3 M 1/1) = 30
2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 2/1) = 32
You are called to a farm to help do a routine dental
exam and float the teeth of a 5-year old Quarter
horse gelding. If you needed to put your hand into
the horse's mouth, where is the best place to grip a
horse?
Lower incisors
Tongue
Nasal Planum
Diastema
Which is more severe: periodontitis or gingivitis?
Depends on the patient
Gingivitis
Periodontitis
No inherent difference in severity
By what age should a dog have all its permanent
teeth, and how many teeth are in the canine adult
dental formula?
32 by 4 years
30 by 7 months
36-44 by 5 years
42 by 7 months
Which drug causes vomiting in cats?
Xylazine
Phenobarbital
Ketamine
Diazepam
What are the signs of metaldehyde poisoning in the
dog?
Salivation and weakness
Continuous convulsions with no external
stimuli
Vomiting and diarrhea
Coughing and pulmonary edema
In Equine emergency care cases in which it is not
possible to administer large volumes of desired fluids,
it may be beneficial to properly administer
Isotonic saline
Hypertonic saline
Hypotonic saline
D5W
What is the most non-specific effective therapy for
hypovolemic shock?
Crystalloid fluids
Sodium bicarbonate
Lidocaine bolus
Warm blankets
What electrolyte imbalance is most likely to be
found in a cat with total urethral obstruction?
Hyperkalemia
Hypokalemia
Hyponatremia
Hypercalcemia
Normal urine output in cats and dogs is
1 to 2 ml/kg/hr
3 to 4 ml/kg/hr
0.5 ml/kg/hr
10 ml/kg/hr
Intraosseous infusion can be used in all of the following
cases except
Young and debilitated animals
Epinephrine and atropine administration in
an arrest
Animals with septicemia
Rapid access to the circulatory system in
hypovolemic animals
A frantic client calls to say that her horse is acting
strangely. The horse does not appear to be able to
eat or drink and is moving with a stiff gait, there is
a pink membrane present in the medial aspect of the
eye, and it seems to be agitated by loud noises. The
horse is apparently suffering from
Night blindness
Potomac horse fever
Tetanus
Equine herpes virus 4
A 28kg dog has a resting energy requirement of
128 kcal
910 kcal
1128 kcal
1990 kcal
A client brings in her dog who ate a box of rat poison
in the last 2 days. Which symptoms would be
expected?
Severe pain, caudal limb paralysis
Seizures, emesis
Unconscious, tachycardia
petechiation, paresis
A 3 year-old domestic longhair female spayed cat is
presented at your clinic with hypersalivation, vomiting,
diarrhea, tremors, stumbling and a temperature
of 105.2 F (40.7 C).
Her pupils are normal size and responsive to light.
While the vet examines the animal, she has a
seizure.
The owner relates that he had treated her the night
before with a flea dip he had originally bought for
his dog.
What toxic ingredient do you suspect most highly?
Ethylene Glycol
Carbamate
Permethrin
Organophosphate
Which one of the following monitors is used to continuously
measure blood oxygen saturation (SaO2)
in anesthetized and critical care patients?
Oscillometry
Pulse oximeter
Electrocardiograph
Capnography
In a dorsoventral view on a small animal x-ray,
which organ appears in the shape of a question
mark?
Colon
Spleen
Right kidney
Diaphragm
You have been asked to obtain a lateral view of the
coelom in a large cockatoo but only have a modified
cat abdominal chart. Where will you measure
this patient?
The thickest part of the skull.
Over the keel.
From the thickest part of the skull to the
bottom of the rib cage
From throat to keel.
The grid is used between the x-ray head and the
film for what reason?
To keep light from exposing the film
To mark the film
To eliminate the need for a collimator
To decrease the number of scatter rays
striking the film
What happens to the image when the object-tofilm
distance is increased?
The image is shortened
The image is magnified
The image is darkened
The image is lightened
When naming a radiographic view, which of the
following best describes a DPaMLO of the equine
carpus?
The beam enters the dorsal/medial surface
of the carpus and exits the palmar/
lateral surface.
The beam enters the palmar/lateral surface
and exits the dorsal/medial surface
This is a dorsal/ventral view of the carpus
This is a lateral/medial view of the carpus.
Hypoechoic tissues have which of the following
characteristics in an ultrasound study?
Reflect few echoes that result in low-level
grays on the screen
Reflect many echoes that result in bright
white areas on the screen
Reflect few to no echoes that result in black
areas on the screen
Reflect few echoes that result in bright
white areas on the screen
Which contrast medium listed is contraindicated if
a rupture or perforation of the bowel is suspected?
Diatrizoate (gastrografin)
Barium sulfate
Water-soluble organic iodide
Air
Which tissue is likely to produce an ultrasound reverberation
artifact described as a "comet tail" with
sets of bright parallel lines?
Urinary bladder
Gallbladder
Enterolith
Lungs
Which setting is better for an x-ray of a part of the
body with high contrast between tissues, like a hip
x-ray of a young dog?
High kilovoltage; low milliamp-seconds
Low kilovoltage; low milliamp-seconds
Low kilovoltage; high milliamp-seconds
High kilovoltage; high milliamp-seconds
Which factor would contribute to making an x-ray
film come out with white spots?
Excessive scatter radiation
Drops of fixer on film before processing
Fixation time to short
Air bubbles in the film
A 13-year-old male neutered King Charles Cavalier
spaniel has a suspected brain tumor. What
would be the best imaging modality for this lesion?
Contrast radiography
M-mode ultrasound
Magnetic resonance imaging
Nuclear scintigraphy
How effective is analgesia of the tranquilizer Acepromazine?
Excellent visceral and superficial analgesia
Excellent superficial analgesia
Excellent visceral analgesia
No analgesia
Fentanyl transdermal patches will provide analgesia
in about 6-12 _______ and last for
3-5_________.
Minutes, hours
Hours, hours
Hours, days
Days, days
Days, months
Opioids are analgesics that affect the brain’s ability
to interpretation of nociceptive signals. These drugs
manipulate which step in the pain pathway?
Modulation
Perception
Transduction
Transmission
During cryotherapy, the cold temperature raises the
activation threshold of
Reflex muscles
Blood vessels
Tissue nociceptors
Painful nerves
Patients given alpha-2 agonist often have pale mucous
membranes with cold extremities in the initial
phase because of what side effects of the drug?
Peripheral vasoconstriction
Hypothermia
Hypoglycemia
Decreased hepatic blood flow
Which type of nerve block is useful to provide
analgesia before or after surgery of the thoracic cavity?
Infraorbital nerve blocks
Retrobulbar nerve blocks
Intercostal nerve blocks
Mental nerve blocks
Which NSAID is labeled for use in horses and cattle
but has extra label uses in other species?
Acetaminophen
Flunixin meglumine
Carprofen
Meloxicam
The inflammatory mediator histamine originates
where?
Mast cells
Damaged tissue
C fibers
A-delta fibers
Which of the following can be used to reverse all
opioid agonist effects at all receptors?
Butorphanol
Naloxone hydrochloride
Morphine
Hydromorphone
Which of the following choices most correctly lists
the side effects of morphine in dogs?
Salivation, mydriasis, hyperactivity
Vasoconstriction, arrhythmias, respiratory
depression
Vomiting, constipation, sedation, dysphoria
Diarrhea, tachycardia, pruritus, hypertension
Cachexia is the term used to describe
anorexia in animals
loss of lean body mass
tissue synthesis
immunodeficiency in mammals
A 15 year old, 40 lb Corgi is 7% dehydrated. You
are instructed to administer fluids equal to the
deficit over then next 24 hours. How high should
you set the fluid pump?
43 mL/hr
67 mL/hr
100 mL/hr
221 mL/hr
Which of the following is not a possible treatment
option for ruminants with traumatic reticuloperitonitis?
exploratory laparotomy and rumenotomy
administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
oral administration of a magnet
IV fluid therapy
Which is a viable phlebotomy site on the pelvic
limb of raptors?
Lateral saphenous vein
Medial metatarsal vein
Ulnar vein
Dorsal metatarsal artery
Sulfa drugs work by
Disrupting microbial metabolic activity
Preventing DNA synthesis
Damaging microbial cell membranes
Disrupting microbial protein synthesis
Both intermediate-acting insulin and long- acting
insulin are administered
intravenously
subcutaneously
intramuscularly
intradermally
intranasally
What is the status of the epithelial cells during estrus
in a canine vaginal smear?
Large numbers of noncornified cells
Large numbers of cornified cells
No visible epithelium
Normal nucleated epithelial cells
In the cow, pregnancy is most frequently diagnosed
using:
rectal palpation or ultrasound
serum progesterone
Failure to return to estrus 21 days after behavioral
estrus
appearance of the vulva
Caudal paralysis, as a consequence of injury to the
spinal cord from a fractured back, occurs commonly
in the
Gerbil
Rabbit
Hamster
Guinea Pig
An acute hemolytic crisis of copper toxicity, there is
often irreversible, significant damage to the ______
due to ________.
Liver; hemolysis
Heart; hemoglobinemia
Kidneys; hemoglobinuria
Brain; myoglobinemia
Which best describes a chondrosarcoma?
Malignant tumor of bone
Malignant tumor of cartilage
Benign tumor of fibrous tissue
Benign tumor of glandular tissue
A technician notes that during a dog’s bath, the
rinse water is filled with little specks of blacksh
“dirt” that are actually larvae and pupae. Which
infestation might this indicate?
Ctenocephalides
Ancylostoma
Oxyuris
Dirofilaria
The group of drugs called “beta-lactams” are
Anti-emetics
Inotropic cardiac medications
Antibiotics
Muscle relaxants
Which group of animals is most likely to be a vector
for human herpes B infection?
Primates
Reptiles
Canids
Bovids
Which is most likely to result from not following
proper safelight procedures in the x-ray dark room?
Fogging of the film
Underexposure of the film
A dark border around the edges of the film
Clearing of the film when it is developed
and fixed
Which of the following patients will benefit the
most from the use of pre-emptive analgesia?
Horse with chronic laminitis
Dog presented for ovariohysterectomy
German shepherd with osteosarcoma of the
humerus
Cat for an amputation following hit by car
Myositis in the equine is a result of
Improper padding during surgery
Improper prepping for surgery
Horse not taken off feed before surgery
Feeding horse too soon after surgery
What is the etiologic agent for tetanus?
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium difficile
Clostridium tetani
Ehrlichia co
Which is not represented on an ECG tracing?
Atrial depolarization
Atrial repolarizati
Ventricular depolarizati
Ventricular repolarization
Which type of ophthalmic drug is contraindicated
if a corneal ulcer is present?
Hydrocortisone
Proparacaine
Cyclosporine
Gentamycin
