wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

VTNE #1

Total questions: 170

Worksheet time: 42hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What canine bacterial disease can be transmitted

through the air by aerosolization of urine?

a)

Infectious hepatitis

b)

Leptospirosis

c)

Parvovirus infection

d)

Salmonellosis

2.

Why is it extremely important to exercise caution

when using balling guns, dose syringes, and stomach

tube in cattle?

a)

To prevent the development of traumatic

reticuloperitonitis

b)

To prevent the development of infectious

bovine rhinotracheitis

c)

To prevent the development of pharyngeal

cellulitis, abscessation, or hematoma

d)

To prevent the development of bovine respiratory

syncytial virus

3.

You are taking the heart rate of a cat. If you count

10 beats in 5 seconds, what is the rate in beats per

minute?

a)

50

b)

120

c)

300

d)

220

4.

What is the underlying cause of icterus?

a)

anemia

b)

hyperbilirubinemia

c)

ketonuria

d)

hyperhemaglobinemia

5.

Which types of syringe tips are needed to attach to

10fr Red Rubber tubes?

a)

Leur lock

b)

Eccentric

c)

Catheter

d)

Curved

6.

Ketosis in dairy cows may result from a primary

deficiency of _____ intake or may be secondary to

other diseases that cause _____.

a)

Water; dehydration

b)

Calcium; hypocalcemia

c)

Energy; anorexia

d)

Selenium; neurologic signs

7.

Which of the following is characterized as droopy

eyelids, protruding nictitans, and miosis?

a)

Brachycephalic syndrome

b)

Horner syndrome

c)

Wobbler syndrome

d)

Vestibular syndrome

8.

What vessel of the equine is palpable for the pulse

rate?

a)

Digital artery

b)

Cephalic vein

c)

Jugular vein

d)

Femoral artery

9.

Which of the following bovine vaccinations can

cause zoonotic disease if accidentally injected?

a)

Brucellosis

b)

Parainfluenza

c)

Listeriosis

d)

Clostridiosis

10.

When gavage feeding parrots you should ensure

that your feeding tube extends to the level of

a)

Just cranial of the thoracic inlet

b)

The 5th rib space

c)

The last rib margin

d)

The synsacrum

11.

What amount of diluent would you need to make 50

mL of a 10% solution from a stock solution of

80%?

a)

6.25 ml

b)

20 ml

c)

30.5 ml

d)

43.75 ml

12.

Coggins is the test for what Equine disease?

a)

Equine infection anemia

b)

Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis

c)

Potomac horse fever

d)

Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis

13.

A 4 year old Labrador Retriever with a heart rate of

160 has

a)

hypertension

b)

tachycardia

c)

bradypnea

d)

paresis

14.

You are asked to prepare 20 mEq of KCl for addition

to a 1-L bag of lactated Ringer solution. The

solution contains 30 mEq/15 ml. How much should

you draw into a syringe to add to the fluid bag?

a)

10 ml

b)

20 ml

c)

30 ml

d)

40 ml

15.

The respective gestation periods of a rabbit, guinea

pig, and mouse are

a)

30, 68 and 21 days

b)

30, 42 and 21 days

c)

24, 42 and 21 days

d)

21, 68, and 30 days

16.

In what species is scrotal circumference, rather than

a sperm count using a hemocytometer, used to estimate

sperm count?

a)

Horses

b)

Sheep

c)

Dogs

d)

Pigs

17.

If you are giving IV fluids using an IV set that delivers

10 drops/ml and you set the drip rate at 15

drips/minute, how much fluid will be delivered in 4

hours?

a)

240 mL

b)

360 mL

c)

400 mL

d)

720 mL

18.

How long after birth does gut closure typically occur

in calves and foals? (when protective maternal

antibodies can no longer be absorbed from the gut

to the bloodstream)

a)

1-3 hours

b)

3-6 hours

c)

9-12 hours

d)

18-24 hours

19.

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is transmitted by

a)

Exposure to pesticides

b)

Tick bites

c)

Consumption of uncooked fish

d)

Abrupt change to higher altitude environment

20.

Which animal is most vulnerable to severe spinal

cord damage when handled improperly?

a)

Cat

b)

Rabbit

c)

Ferret

d)

Parrot

21.

A 15 year old, 40 lb Corgi is 7% dehydrated. You

are instructed to administer fluids equal to the

deficit over then next 24 hours. How high should

you set the fluid pump?

a)

53 mL/hr

b)

67 mL/hr

c)

100 mL/hr

d)

221 mL/hr

22.

Which choice correctly lists the four core vaccines

for dogs?

a)

Bordetella bronchiseptica, rabies, canine

parainfluenza, canine adenovirus-1

b)

Canine influenza virus, canine distemper,

Leptospira interrogans, Borrelia burgdorferi

c)

Canine distemper, canine parvovirus,

canine adenovirus-2, rabies

d)

Crotalus atrox, canine hepatitis virus, canine

parvovirus, canine influenza

23.

Which parasites can infect puppies through the

dam's milk?

a)

Lungworm, flukes

b)

Tapeworm, whipworm

c)

Hookworm, roundworm

d)

Coccidia, Ringworm

24.

If a dog has flaccid paresis, what is the problem?

a)

Inflammation of the spinal cord

b)

Stiff limbs and paralysis

c)

Weak and limp muscles

d)

Inability to mate

25.

Appropriate blood collection sites in tortoises include

the jugular vein and

a)

caudal vena cava

b)

subcarapacial sinus

c)

medial metatarsal vein

d)

cephalic vein

26.

If an IV set dispenses 60 drops/ml, what is the IV

drip rate (drops per minute) needed to give a cat 300 ml of Lactated Ringer's solution (LRS) over 6

hours?

a)

60

b)

50

c)

100

d)

10

27.

You and the vet are called to a dairy farm at 4 a.m.

for a “prolapse". What kind of problem is this likely

to be?

a)

Uterus is hanging out

b)

Penis cannot retract into prepuce

c)

Eyeball protruded out of the socket

d)

Mismating

28.

In rabbits organism causes “walking dandruff”?

a)

Pasteurella multocida

b)

Otodectes cyanotis

c)

Cheyletiella yasurgi

d)

Francisella tularensis

29.

While examining a high-producing dairy cow that

is off-feed, the vet puts her stethoscope on the left

side in a line between the left elbow and the cow's

hip bones and starts flicking her fingers against the

side of the cow while listening to the stethoscope.

What is she listening for?

a)

The characteristic dead spot of an impacted

omasum

b)

The dull thud of rumen stasis

c)

The musical ping of a left displaced

abomasum

d)

The regular movement of rumen contraction

waves

30.

Which animal cannot normally regurgitate or vomit?

a)

Cow

b)

Horse

c)

Cat

d)

Ferret

31.

Feline injection site sarcomas are primarily linked

with which two vaccines?

a)

FeLV and Rabies vaccines

b)

Feline calici/herpes and panleukopenia

vaccines

c)

FeLV and feline calici/herpes vaccines

d)

Rabies and FIV vaccines

32.

A 12-year-old Warmblood mare has been sedated

intravenously with a combination of xylazine and

butorphanol for dental evaluation because she has

been dropping feed.


You listen to the heart immediately after sedation

and note a heart rate of 20 beats per minute [Normal

= 28-44 bpm] with an occasional “dropped”

beat; the horse is standing quietly.


What is the most appropriate action to take next?

a)

Prepare a dose of yohimbine to reverse the

xylazine

b)

Prepare a dose of atropine to increase heart

rate

c)

Nothing; this is a normal response

d)

Prepare a dose of naloxone to reverse the

butorphanol

33.

Which of the following choices is a common cause

of the Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern? (Fast

breathing, then slowing down, then no breathing,

then cycle starts again)

a)

Hypovolemia and low intracranial pressure

b)

Brain damage, animal too deeply anesthetized

c)

Light levels (phase 1) of inhalant anesthesia

d)

Severe metabolic acidosis, diabetic ketoacidosis

34.

How many mL of a 50:50 mixture of diazepam

and ketamine at a dose of 1mL/20lb should be administered

to an 8 lb cat?

a)

0.4 mL diazepam; 0.4 mL ketamine

b)

0.2 mL diazepam; 0.2 mL ketamine

c)

2 mL diazepam; 2 mL ketamine

d)

1 mL diazepam; 1 mL ketamine

35.

The endotracheal tube should not be inflated in

birds because:

a)

They can bite it off and swallow it

b)

They have complete tracheal rings, making

the trachea less compliant when the

endotracheal tube cuff is inflated

c)

The inflated cuff becomes easily lodged in

air sacs

d)

Their trachea is soft and may be traumatized

36.

Which drug is a dissociative anesthetic?

a)

Fentanyl

b)

Ketamine

c)

Xylazine

d)

Acepromazine

37.

A 10-year-old dog has been anesthetized for removal

of a skin tumor and is now maintained on

2% isoflurane. The anesthetist observes that its respirations

are 8/min and shallow, its heart rate is 80

beats/min, its pupils are centrally positioned, its jaw

tone is slack, and all of its reflexes are absent. This

animal is in what stage and plane of anesthesia?

a)

Stage III, plane 2

b)

Stage III, plane 3

c)

Stage III, plane 4

d)

Stage IV, plane 1

38.

Hypothermia

a)

Prolongs anesthetic induction

b)

Prolongs anesthetic recovery

c)

Is common in obese patients

d)

Is of no concern in neonatal patients

39.

Compared to Isoflurane the inhaled anesthetic

Sevoflurane has

a)

smaller dosage requirement

b)

quicker recovery time

c)

less respiratory depression

d)

All of the above

40.

What is a common side effect seen in the horse to

opioid administration?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Nystagmus

c)

Sweating

d)

Aggression

41.

If a 30 lb dog was held on anesthesia at an oxygen

flow rate of 700 ml/min and the surgery lasted 1.5

hours, what is the total volume of oxygen used during

the surgery?

a)

2.1 liters

b)

15 liters

c)

30 liters

d)

63 liters

42.

When an endotracheal tube is being inserted in a

horse, the animal should be in

a)

Sternal recumbency with its head at a 90⁰

angle to the neck

b)

Sternal recumbency with its head and neck

extended

c)

Lateral recumbency with its head at a 90⁰

angle to the neck

d)

Lateral recumbency with its head, neck

and back extended

43.

What is the main purpose of the scavenger on the

anesthetic machine?

a)

Relieve excess pressure

b)

Supply gas to breathing bag

c)

Remove waste gases

d)

Remove CO2 from the anesthetic gases

44.

If propofol is given to a patient too rapidly, it may

cause

a)

Profound transient apnea

b)

Irritation of the vein

c)

A long-lasting excitement phase

d)

Seizures

45.

An abnormally elevated central venous pressure

developing during anesthesia and surgery may indicate

a)

Intravenous fluid overload

b)

Increased cardiac output

c)

Dehydration

d)

Liver disease

46.

While ruminants are recovering from anesthesia,

they should be placed in _____ recumbency to minimize

_____.

a)

Left lateral; regurgitation

b)

Sternal; regurgitation

c)

Right lateral; regurgitation

d)

Left lateral, atelectasis

47.

Tidal volume for a dog is 15 ml/kg. If a 10 kg male

dog is taking 10 breaths per minute, what is his

minute volume?

a)

150 ml/min

b)

1500 ml/min

c)

15 ml/min

d)

10 ml/min

48.

Which anesthetic breathing system has the lowest

fresh gas flow rate during maintenance of anesthesia?

a)

Nonrebreathing

b)

Partial rebreathing

c)

Closed system

d)

Semi-closed system

49.

Which of the following is the most correct description

of multi-modal analgesia?

a)

Treatment with pain medication during

surgery and prior to recovery of a patient

b)

Use of an antagonist to reverse dangerous

side effects of an analgesic medication

c)

Combination of different types of analgesic

medications and procedures to treat

pain

d)

Use of higher doses of pain medication given

previously to a patient to achieve adequate

analgesia

50.

To prepare a dose of 0.2 mg of atropine using a

solution that contains 400 ug/mL, how much do you

draw into the syringe?

a)

0.05 mL

b)

0.2 mL

c)

0.5 mL

d)

2 mL

51.

Which choice is often used in combination with

ketamine or thiopental to induce anesthesia in horses?

a)

Halothane

b)

Phenobarbital

c)

Naloxone

d)

Guaifenesin

52.

Which choice indicates that the soda lime granules

in a CO2 absorbent canister have become exhausted?

a)

Color stays pink, regardless of CO2 exposure

b)

Color changes to brown and liquid accumulates

at the base of the canister

c)

Color change from purple to pink, crystals

become powder

d)

Crystals become hard and turn off-white

to pale purple

53.

Which two drugs are contraindicated in animals

with a history of seizures?

a)

Ketamine, diazepam

b)

Morphine, phenobarbital

c)

Xylazine, thiopental

d)

Acepromazine, ketamine

54.

What side effect is often seen in horses tranquilized

with acepromazine?

a)

Hives

b)

Penile protrusion

c)

Collapse

d)

Vomiting

55.

How many mL will you draw up to administer 25

units of epoetin (2000 units/mL)?

a)

2.5 mL

b)

0.25 mL

c)

0.01 mL

d)

0.1 mL

56.

Prednisone should not be given with:

a)

Midazolam

b)

Diphenhydramine

c)

Famotidine

d)

Meloxicam

57.

Which antibiotic will cause the enamel of teeth to

yellow in a young animal?

a)

Penicillin

b)

Streptomycin

c)

Chloramphenicol

d)

Tetracycline

58.

The safety margin between effective and toxicity is

called what?

a)

Partition coefficient

b)

Penol index

c)

Lethal dose

d)

Therapeutic index

59.

What drug is used to return a mare to proestrus

from diestrus through lysis of the corpus luteum?

a)

Progesterone

b)

Estrogen

c)

Prostaglandin

d)

Gonadotropin

60.

Scooter, a 13-year-old miniature schnauzer, has

arrested under anesthesia for routine dentistry. You

run to the crash cart and grab what you know to be

the drug of choice for cardiac arrest, which is

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Lidocaine

c)

Digoxin

d)

Dobutamine

61.

Methocarbamol is labeled as an adjunctive therapy

for

a)

Seizures

b)

Muscle tremors

c)

Increased intracranial pressure

d)

Endocrinopathies

62.

Which drug is exclusively against cestode parasites?

a)

Praziquantel

b)

Pyrantel

c)

Piperazine

d)

Polymyxin

63.

What vein is commonly used for IV injections in

Horses?

a)

Tail vein

b)

Aural vein

c)

Cephalic vein

d)

Jugular vein

64.

The NSAID that is extremely toxic to cats is

a)

Aspirin

b)

Acetominophen

c)

Carprofen

d)

Flunixin

65.

How many cc of 5% Ultra-mycin should you give

PO for 44 lb. dog, if the dose is 50 mg/kg?

a)

15 ml

b)

40 ml

c)

20 ml

d)

10 ml

66.

A calf with pinkeye is being treated with an injection

of long acting oxytetracycline. The calf weighs 100 lbs and the dose is 10mg/kg. How many milligrams

will be needed for one dose?

a)

1000 mg

b)

2200 mg

c)

454 mg

d)

75 mg

67.

Why are most antibiotics contraindicated in rabbits

and hamsters?

a)

Highly permeable blood-brain barrier

b)

Small hearts sensitive to overstimulation

c)

Disruption of gut flora

d)

Increased risk of renotoxicity

68.

The drug maropitant is best categorized as an

a)

prokinetic

b)

antiemetic

c)

antitussive

d)

analgesic

69.

Diuresis is best defined as

a)

excess tubular filtrate secretion

b)

increased urine production

c)

excess creatinine and sodium secretion

d)

water retention

70.

What is one of the most common long-term problems

associated using glucocorticoids like prednisolone

in dogs?

a)

Diabetes mellitus

b)

Hypoadrenocorticism

c)

Hypothyroidism

d)

Hyperadrenocorticism

71.

A cat that weighs 11 lb (5 kg) is prescribed antibiotics

at a dosage of 0.2 mg/lb (0.44 mg/kg). The

medication is available only in 2 mg tablets. How

many tablets should the cat receive in a single dose?

a)

~1/2 tablet

b)

~1 tablet

c)

~1/4 tablet

d)

~1 1/2 tablet

72.

Rochester Carmalt forceps are commonly used in

which choice?

a)

Spay

b)

Cardiosurgery

c)

Dentistry

d)

Orthopedic repair

73.

When folding surgical gowns for sterilization

a)

Tie the arms together so they do not dangle

when the surgeon is gowning

b)

Have the ends of the sleeves on top for easy

grasping

c)

Attention to the method of folding is not

necessary

d)

Place the inside of the shoulder seams on

top and fold all outer areas of the gown

to the inside

74.

Proud flesh is the

a)

Persistence of the spermatic cord following

castration of a horse

b)

Exuberant granulation tissue developing

in a wound

c)

Cutaneous neoplasm found in a horse

d)

Crest of a stallions’s neck

75.

What guidelines are followed when cutting suture

ends for the doctor in closing an incision?

a)

Cut the suture ends next to the knot

b)

Leave the suture ends long enough for

ease of removal

c)

The tips of the scissors should not be used

to cut the suture

d)

Technicians are not allowed to cut sutures

76.

A Caslick operation is done in horses to

a)

Stop roaring

b)

Improve fertility

c)

Treat navicular disease

d)

Clean out the guttural pouches

77.

If skin edges are under extreme tension, what is the

suture pattern of choice?

a)

Simple continuous

b)

Simple interrupted

c)

Interrupted horizontal mattress

d)

Continuous horizontal mattress

78.

What instrument is not a self-retaining tissue retractor?

a)

Finochietto

b)

Army-Navy

c)

Balfour

d)

Gelpi

79.

The instrument suitable for cutting a paper drape is

a)

Operating scissors

b)

Metzenbaum scissors

c)

Osteotome

d)

Olson Hegars

80.

When attaching an ECG, which leg should have the

red lead attached to it?

a)

Right foreleg

b)

Left foreleg

c)

Right hind leg

d)

Left hind leg

81.

If the testicles are not palpable, and a cryptorchidectomy

is performed, the incision would most likely

be

a)

Prescrotal

b)

Inguinal

c)

Ventral midline

d)

Perineal

82.

Which one of the following is a disadvantage of

multifilament (vs. monofilament) suture material?

a)

Less knot security

b)

Tears tissues more easily

c)

Greater tendency for wicking bacteria

d)

Less strength

83.

Which of the following is not true regarding crytorchidism

in horses?

a)

One or both of the testicles have not descended

into the prepuce.

b)

Surgery removal of the undescended testicle

is more involved than a normal castration.

c)

It is an inheritable condition

d)

Stallions affected with unilateral crytorchidism

will breed mares.

84.

When should used sponges be counted?

a)

After termination of surgery

b)

Before the incision is closed

c)

Before extubation

d)

Before the last skin suture is placed

85.

Which choice best describes the process of repairing

a clean wound within a few hours of injury by

first intention?

a)

Suture the wound closed

b)

Delayed primary closure

c)

Allow wound to contract and epithelialize

d)

Allow wound to granulate closed

86.

What is the purpose of a curette?

a)

Removes supragingival calculus

b)

Controls hemorrhage in soft tissues

c)

Scrapes hard tissues

d)

Holds intramedullary bone pins

87.

What is a urethrostomy?

a)

Removal of blockage from urethra

b)

Removal of the urethra

c)

Construction of a new opening in the

urethra

d)

Removal of kidney stones

88.

Which are good for tough connective tissue and

fascia?

a)

Debakey

b)

Brown-Adson

c)

Rat Toothed

d)

Russian thumb

89.

In normal healthy patients the most common leukocyte

on a canine patient are ____________, and

the most common leukocyte in bovine patients are

___________

a)

Neutrophils, Eosinophils

b)

Monocytes, Lymphocytes

c)

Neutrophils, Lymphocytes

d)

Monocytes, Neutrophils

90.

__________ result from antibody binding to the

RBC surface and removal of a portion of the membrane

by macrophages; this occurs in immune hemolytic

anemia (IHA), which is most commonly

recognized in dogs.

a)

Acanthocytes

b)

Spherocytes

c)

Leptocytes

d)

Echinocytes

91.

A California mastitis test

a)

Measures leukocytes in the milk of each

quarter

b)

Measures trypsin-like factor in the milk of

each quarter

c)

Measures bacterial cells in the whole milk

of the udder

d)

Measures cellular nuclear protein in the

whole milk of the udder

92.

The Azostix strip is a rapid quantitative test for

blood levels of

a)

Aspartateaminotransferase

b)

Alaninetransaminase

c)

Glucose

d)

Urea nitrogen

93.

The etiologic agent of Lyme disease is

a)

Bordetella bronchiseptica

b)

Borrelia burgdorferi

c)

Coronavirus

d)

Lentivirus

94.

In horses the blood chemistry tests most commonly

used to evaluate liver function are

a)

Alanine transaminase and aspartate aminotransferase

b)

Electrolytes and blood urea nitrogen

c)

Gamma-glutamyl transferase and sorbitol

dehydrogenase

d)

Amylase and lipase

95.

Polychromasia in an immature RBC will appear as

_____ on a blood smear stained with new methylene

blue stain

a)

Reticulocyte

b)

Dohle body

c)

Barr body

d)

Schistocyte

96.

The life cycle of the canine flea includes which of

the following intermediate stages?

a)

Egg, larva, nymph, adult

b)

Egg, larva, adult

c)

Egg, nymph, adult

d)

Egg, larva, pupa, adult

97.

Which one of the following nematodes has an ovoid

egg with thin shell and morulated embryo on fecal

exam?

a)

Toxascaris leonina

b)

Toxocara canis

c)

Trichuris vulpis

d)

Ancylostoma caninum

98.

Peritoneal fluid of horses

a)

Is normally very thick and viscid

b)

Is normally malodorous

c)

Is frequently examined in cases of colic

d)

Normally contains bacteria

99.

What is the common name for Fasciola hepatica?

a)

Whipworm

b)

Hookworm

c)

Fluke

d)

Tapeworm

100.

Hematocrit is another name for what lab measurement

a)

Hemoglobin (Hb, g/dl)

b)

Red Blood Cell count

c)

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration

(MCHC, g/dl)

d)

Packed cell volume (PCV, %)

101.

What is indicated by a clear colorless zone around a

bacterial colony on a blood agar plate?

a)

Sugar fermentation

b)

Fungal contaminat

c)

Hemolysis

d)

Antibiotic sensitivity

102.

What makes accurate determination of avian and

reptile white blood cell (WBC) counts more difficult

than WBC counts in mammalian blood?

a)

More kinds of leukocytes

b)

Significantly smaller leukocytes

c)

Nucleated erythrocytes

d)

White blood cell clumping

103.

Which one of the following choices is the most

likely to cause a brownish discoloration of urine?

a)

myoglobin

b)

oxalate crystals

c)

glucosuria

d)

byproducts of theobromine toxicity (chocolate

toxicity)

104.

What is the globulin level in a dog with an albumin

of 4.0 g/dl and a total serum protein level of 7.5 g/

dl?

a)

3.5 g/dl

b)

7.5 g/dl

c)

11.5 g/dl

d)

Cannot calculate with this information

105.

A stress leukogram is characterized by

a)

Neutropenia, lymphocytosis, eosinophilia

b)

Neutrophilia, lymphocytosis, eosinopenia

c)

Neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinophilia

d)

Neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia

106.

Which term best describes the condition of a canine

upper jaw which is longer than the lower jaw?

a)

Brachygnathism

b)

Prognathism

c)

Syngnathism

d)

Cow jaw

107.

What is the dental accumulation composed of food

particles and bacteria?

a)

Plaque

b)

Gingivitis

c)

Tartar

d)

Calculus

108.

Which species have no maxillary incisors?

a)

Cows and goats

b)

Horses and llamas

c)

Pigs and sheep

d)

Rabbits and Guinea Pigs

109.

What is the most important area from which tartar

must be cleaned?

a)

Subgingival space

b)

The buccal surface

c)

The very back teeth

d)

Between the teeth

110.

What is the contact time limit for each tooth with

the use of the ultrasonic tooth scaler?

a)

1-2 seconds

b)

3-5 seconds

c)

10-15 seconds

d)

25-30 seconds

111.

When administering an intra-oral regional nerve

block you want to inject the topical anesthetic

a)

Directly into the nerve

b)

Into the area directly surrounding the

nerve

c)

Into the gingiva surrounding the tooth

d)

Into the sulcus/pocket around the toot

112.

The purpose of polishing during the dental prophy

is to

a)

Massage the gums

b)

Smooth out the rough areas and retard

plaque formation

c)

Apply fluoride

d)

Disinfect the surface of the tooth

113.

Which equid does not have canine teeth?

a)

Mare

b)

Stallion

c)

Gelding

d)

Colt

114.

The correct dental formula for an adult cat is

a)

2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1) = 30

b)

2 (I 4/4 C 1/1 P 2/3 M 1/1) = 34

c)

2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 2/3 M 1/1) = 30

d)

2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 2/1) = 32

115.

You are called to a farm to help do a routine dental

exam and float the teeth of a 5-year old Quarter

horse gelding. If you needed to put your hand into

the horse's mouth, where is the best place to grip a

horse?

a)

Lower incisors

b)

Tongue

c)

Nasal Planum

d)

Diastema

116.

Which is more severe: periodontitis or gingivitis?

a)

Depends on the patient

b)

Gingivitis

c)

Periodontitis

d)

No inherent difference in severity

117.

By what age should a dog have all its permanent

teeth, and how many teeth are in the canine adult

dental formula?

a)

32 by 4 years

b)

30 by 7 months

c)

36-44 by 5 years

d)

42 by 7 months

118.

Which drug causes vomiting in cats?

a)

Xylazine

b)

Phenobarbital

c)

Ketamine

d)

Diazepam

119.

What are the signs of metaldehyde poisoning in the

dog?

a)

Salivation and weakness

b)

Continuous convulsions with no external

stimuli

c)

Vomiting and diarrhea

d)

Coughing and pulmonary edema

120.

In Equine emergency care cases in which it is not

possible to administer large volumes of desired fluids,

it may be beneficial to properly administer

a)

Isotonic saline

b)

Hypertonic saline

c)

Hypotonic saline

d)

D5W

121.

What is the most non-specific effective therapy for

hypovolemic shock?

a)

Crystalloid fluids

b)

Sodium bicarbonate

c)

Lidocaine bolus

d)

Warm blankets

122.

What electrolyte imbalance is most likely to be

found in a cat with total urethral obstruction?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hyponatremia

d)

Hypercalcemia

123.

Normal urine output in cats and dogs is

a)

1 to 2 ml/kg/hr

b)

3 to 4 ml/kg/hr

c)

0.5 ml/kg/hr

d)

10 ml/kg/hr

124.

Intraosseous infusion can be used in all of the following

cases except

a)

Young and debilitated animals

b)

Epinephrine and atropine administration in

an arrest

c)

Animals with septicemia

d)

Rapid access to the circulatory system in

hypovolemic animals

125.

A frantic client calls to say that her horse is acting

strangely. The horse does not appear to be able to

eat or drink and is moving with a stiff gait, there is

a pink membrane present in the medial aspect of the

eye, and it seems to be agitated by loud noises. The

horse is apparently suffering from

a)

Night blindness

b)

Potomac horse fever

c)

Tetanus

d)

Equine herpes virus 4

126.

A 28kg dog has a resting energy requirement of

a)

128 kcal

b)

910 kcal

c)

1128 kcal

d)

1990 kcal

127.

A client brings in her dog who ate a box of rat poison

in the last 2 days. Which symptoms would be

expected?

a)

Severe pain, caudal limb paralysis

b)

Seizures, emesis

c)

Unconscious, tachycardia

d)

petechiation, paresis

128.

A 3 year-old domestic longhair female spayed cat is

presented at your clinic with hypersalivation, vomiting,

diarrhea, tremors, stumbling and a temperature

of 105.2 F (40.7 C).


Her pupils are normal size and responsive to light.

While the vet examines the animal, she has a

seizure.


The owner relates that he had treated her the night

before with a flea dip he had originally bought for

his dog.


What toxic ingredient do you suspect most highly?

a)

Ethylene Glycol

b)

Carbamate

c)

Permethrin

d)

Organophosphate

129.

Which one of the following monitors is used to continuously

measure blood oxygen saturation (SaO2)

in anesthetized and critical care patients?

a)

Oscillometry

b)

Pulse oximeter

c)

Electrocardiograph

d)

Capnography

130.

In a dorsoventral view on a small animal x-ray,

which organ appears in the shape of a question

mark?

a)

Colon

b)

Spleen

c)

Right kidney

d)

Diaphragm

131.

You have been asked to obtain a lateral view of the

coelom in a large cockatoo but only have a modified

cat abdominal chart. Where will you measure

this patient?

a)

The thickest part of the skull.

b)

Over the keel.

c)

From the thickest part of the skull to the

bottom of the rib cage

d)

From throat to keel.

132.

The grid is used between the x-ray head and the

film for what reason?

a)

To keep light from exposing the film

b)

To mark the film

c)

To eliminate the need for a collimator

d)

To decrease the number of scatter rays

striking the film

133.

What happens to the image when the object-tofilm

distance is increased?

a)

The image is shortened

b)

The image is magnified

c)

The image is darkened

d)

The image is lightened

134.

When naming a radiographic view, which of the

following best describes a DPaMLO of the equine

carpus?

a)

The beam enters the dorsal/medial surface

of the carpus and exits the palmar/

lateral surface.

b)

The beam enters the palmar/lateral surface

and exits the dorsal/medial surface

c)

This is a dorsal/ventral view of the carpus

d)

This is a lateral/medial view of the carpus.

135.

Hypoechoic tissues have which of the following

characteristics in an ultrasound study?

a)

Reflect few echoes that result in low-level

grays on the screen

b)

Reflect many echoes that result in bright

white areas on the screen

c)

Reflect few to no echoes that result in black

areas on the screen

d)

Reflect few echoes that result in bright

white areas on the screen

136.

Which contrast medium listed is contraindicated if

a rupture or perforation of the bowel is suspected?

a)

Diatrizoate (gastrografin)

b)

Barium sulfate

c)

Water-soluble organic iodide

d)

Air

137.

Which tissue is likely to produce an ultrasound reverberation

artifact described as a "comet tail" with

sets of bright parallel lines?

a)

Urinary bladder

b)

Gallbladder

c)

Enterolith

d)

Lungs

138.

Which setting is better for an x-ray of a part of the

body with high contrast between tissues, like a hip

x-ray of a young dog?

a)

High kilovoltage; low milliamp-seconds

b)

Low kilovoltage; low milliamp-seconds

c)

Low kilovoltage; high milliamp-seconds

d)

High kilovoltage; high milliamp-seconds

139.

Which factor would contribute to making an x-ray

film come out with white spots?

a)

Excessive scatter radiation

b)

Drops of fixer on film before processing

c)

Fixation time to short

d)

Air bubbles in the film

140.

A 13-year-old male neutered King Charles Cavalier

spaniel has a suspected brain tumor. What

would be the best imaging modality for this lesion?

a)

Contrast radiography

b)

M-mode ultrasound

c)

Magnetic resonance imaging

d)

Nuclear scintigraphy

141.

How effective is analgesia of the tranquilizer Acepromazine?

a)

Excellent visceral and superficial analgesia

b)

Excellent superficial analgesia

c)

Excellent visceral analgesia

d)

No analgesia

142.

Fentanyl transdermal patches will provide analgesia

in about 6-12 _______ and last for

3-5_________.

a)

Minutes, hours

b)

Hours, hours

c)

Hours, days

d)

Days, days

e)

Days, months

143.

Opioids are analgesics that affect the brain’s ability

to interpretation of nociceptive signals. These drugs

manipulate which step in the pain pathway?

a)

Modulation

b)

Perception

c)

Transduction

d)

Transmission

144.

During cryotherapy, the cold temperature raises the

activation threshold of

a)

Reflex muscles

b)

Blood vessels

c)

Tissue nociceptors

d)

Painful nerves

145.

Patients given alpha-2 agonist often have pale mucous

membranes with cold extremities in the initial

phase because of what side effects of the drug?

a)

Peripheral vasoconstriction

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Decreased hepatic blood flow

146.

Which type of nerve block is useful to provide

analgesia before or after surgery of the thoracic cavity?

a)

Infraorbital nerve blocks

b)

Retrobulbar nerve blocks

c)

Intercostal nerve blocks

d)

Mental nerve blocks

147.

Which NSAID is labeled for use in horses and cattle

but has extra label uses in other species?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Flunixin meglumine

c)

Carprofen

d)

Meloxicam

148.

The inflammatory mediator histamine originates

where?

a)

Mast cells

b)

Damaged tissue

c)

C fibers

d)

A-delta fibers

149.

Which of the following can be used to reverse all

opioid agonist effects at all receptors?

a)

Butorphanol

b)

Naloxone hydrochloride

c)

Morphine

d)

Hydromorphone

150.

Which of the following choices most correctly lists

the side effects of morphine in dogs?

a)

Salivation, mydriasis, hyperactivity

b)

Vasoconstriction, arrhythmias, respiratory

depression

c)

Vomiting, constipation, sedation, dysphoria

d)

Diarrhea, tachycardia, pruritus, hypertension

151.

Cachexia is the term used to describe

a)

anorexia in animals

b)

loss of lean body mass

c)

tissue synthesis

d)

immunodeficiency in mammals

152.

A 15 year old, 40 lb Corgi is 7% dehydrated. You

are instructed to administer fluids equal to the

deficit over then next 24 hours. How high should

you set the fluid pump?

a)

43 mL/hr

b)

67 mL/hr

c)

100 mL/hr

d)

221 mL/hr

153.

Which of the following is not a possible treatment

option for ruminants with traumatic reticuloperitonitis?

a)

exploratory laparotomy and rumenotomy

b)

administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics

c)

oral administration of a magnet

d)

IV fluid therapy

154.

Which is a viable phlebotomy site on the pelvic

limb of raptors?

a)

Lateral saphenous vein

b)

Medial metatarsal vein

c)

Ulnar vein

d)

Dorsal metatarsal artery

155.

Sulfa drugs work by

a)

Disrupting microbial metabolic activity

b)

Preventing DNA synthesis

c)

Damaging microbial cell membranes

d)

Disrupting microbial protein synthesis

156.

Both intermediate-acting insulin and long- acting

insulin are administered

a)

intravenously

b)

subcutaneously

c)

intramuscularly

d)

intradermally

e)

intranasally

157.

What is the status of the epithelial cells during estrus

in a canine vaginal smear?

a)

Large numbers of noncornified cells

b)

Large numbers of cornified cells

c)

No visible epithelium

d)

Normal nucleated epithelial cells

158.

In the cow, pregnancy is most frequently diagnosed

using:

a)

rectal palpation or ultrasound

b)

serum progesterone

c)

Failure to return to estrus 21 days after behavioral

estrus

d)

appearance of the vulva

159.

Caudal paralysis, as a consequence of injury to the

spinal cord from a fractured back, occurs commonly

in the

a)

Gerbil

b)

Rabbit

c)

Hamster

d)

Guinea Pig

160.

An acute hemolytic crisis of copper toxicity, there is

often irreversible, significant damage to the ______

due to ________.

a)

Liver; hemolysis

b)

Heart; hemoglobinemia

c)

Kidneys; hemoglobinuria

d)

Brain; myoglobinemia

161.

Which best describes a chondrosarcoma?

a)

Malignant tumor of bone

b)

Malignant tumor of cartilage

c)

Benign tumor of fibrous tissue

d)

Benign tumor of glandular tissue

162.

A technician notes that during a dog’s bath, the

rinse water is filled with little specks of blacksh

“dirt” that are actually larvae and pupae. Which

infestation might this indicate?

a)

Ctenocephalides

b)

Ancylostoma

c)

Oxyuris

d)

Dirofilaria

163.

The group of drugs called “beta-lactams” are

a)

Anti-emetics

b)

Inotropic cardiac medications

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Muscle relaxants

164.

Which group of animals is most likely to be a vector

for human herpes B infection?

a)

Primates

b)

Reptiles

c)

Canids

d)

Bovids

165.

Which is most likely to result from not following

proper safelight procedures in the x-ray dark room?

a)

Fogging of the film

b)

Underexposure of the film

c)

A dark border around the edges of the film

d)

Clearing of the film when it is developed

and fixed

166.

Which of the following patients will benefit the

most from the use of pre-emptive analgesia?

a)

Horse with chronic laminitis

b)

Dog presented for ovariohysterectomy

c)

German shepherd with osteosarcoma of the

humerus

d)

Cat for an amputation following hit by car

167.

Myositis in the equine is a result of

a)

Improper padding during surgery

b)

Improper prepping for surgery

c)

Horse not taken off feed before surgery

d)

Feeding horse too soon after surgery

168.

What is the etiologic agent for tetanus?

a)

Clostridium perfringens

b)

Clostridium difficile

c)

Clostridium tetani

d)

Ehrlichia co

169.

Which is not represented on an ECG tracing?

a)

Atrial depolarization

b)

Atrial repolarizati

c)

Ventricular depolarizati

d)

Ventricular repolarization

170.

Which type of ophthalmic drug is contraindicated

if a corneal ulcer is present?

a)

Hydrocortisone

b)

Proparacaine

c)

Cyclosporine

d)

Gentamycin