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Test Review II

Total questions: 57

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In late 1989 President George H. W. Bush launched an invasion of which country in order to depose its president?

a)

Panama

b)

The Dominican Republic

c)

Cuba

d)

Nicaragua

2.

Jamestown was founded in 1607 for which of the following reasons?

a)

To search for Gold

b)

To find passage to Asia

c)

To discover new plant and animal species

d)

To trade with Native Americans

3.

The Olive Branch Petition, written at the Second Continental Congress in 1775, reflects a colonial desire to

a)

Declare immediate independence from Great Britian

b)

Seek peace with Great Britain despite recent mounting tension

c)

End the practice of mercantilism and promote industrialization

d)

Expand agriculture beyond the Mississippi River

4.

Which of the following was a result of the rebellion against the Virginia colonial government in 1676 led by Nathaniel Bacon?

a)

The planters in Virginia sought to use the labor of enslaved Africans instead of White indentured servants.

b)

Colonists began a movement for independence that would culminate in the American Revolution

c)

The colonial government distributed 40 acres of farmland to every white resident

d)

The British government raised taxes on imported goods to pay for the troops stationed in Virginia.

5.

Which of the following constitutionally precepts is contained in the Bill of Rights?

a)

The right of all citizens to vote regardless of gender

b)

The direct election of senators and representatives

c)

The protection of individual privacy from government intrusion

d)

The granting of citizenship to anyone born on United States soil

6.

Which of the following is outlined in the United States Constitution as ratified in 1788

a)

How members of the House of Representatives are chosen

b)

The role of the Supreme Court in judicial review

c)

The composition of the Presidential Cabinet

d)

The role of the political parties in choosing presidential candidates

7.

Which TWO of the following were results of the 1783 Treaty of Paris between the United States and Great Britain?

a)

The United States agreed to outlaw the Atlantic slave trade

b)

Great Britain agreed to pay the United States reparations

c)

Great Britain relinquished all claims to the United States

d)

The United States gained access to lands east of the Mississippi River

8.

Which of the following Statements best describes the Monroe Doctrine

a)

The United States declared that it would eschew alliances with European powers in an attempt to avoid foreign conflicts

b)

The United States declared that lands occupied by Native Americans should be evacuated for resettlement by Whites

c)

The United States vowed to protect Latin American countries from the spread of communism

d)

The United States would intervene to prevent European powers from establishing more colonies in the Western Hemisphere

9.

Which of the following was a main goal of the 1848 Seneca Falls Convention?

a)

To obtain political recognition for newly freed slaves

b)

To determine how to relocate members of the Seneca Nation

c)

To declare that women should be granted more civil rights

d)

To discuss the political functions of the temperance movement

10.

Which of the following developments best accounts for the first appearance of villages in southwestern North America circa 300 BCE?

a)

The ability to adapt and grow crops such as maize

b)

The use of pottery in ritual ceremonies

c)

The emergence of trade routes connecting southwestern communities

d)

The use of domesticated animals for agriculture and trade

11.

Which of the following scriptures is associated with Hinduism?

a)

The Gathas

b)

The Daodejing

c)

The Vedas

d)

The Analects

12.

The conquests of Alexander of Macedon most directly resulted in which of the following?

a)

The spread of Roman power across the Mediterranean

b)

The spread of Greek culture to Middle East, Central Asia, and India

c)

The spread of Buddhism to Greece

d)

The spread of Chinese science and technology to Europe

13.

Which of the following was the most important factor in the conduct of long-distance trade in the Indian Ocean region prior to circa 1500 CE?

a)

The ability to determine longitude

b)

The ability to use monsoon winds

c)

The Spread of advanced maritime technology from Europe

d)

The spread of Islam

14.

Which of the following political developments most immediately allowed for the emergence of Turkic empires and states across the Middle East and Central Asia shortly after circa 1000 CE

a)

The arrival of Latin Christian Crusading armies in the Middle East

b)

The resurgence of the Byzantine Empire's power following conquests in the Balkans

c)

The collapse of the Tang Empire in China and its subsequent loss of territories in Central Asia

d)

The decline of the Abbasid caliphate's power because of frequent revolts and political instability

15.

Which of the following best describes how the Scientific Revolution affected seventeenth-century Europe?

a)

It undermined religious teachings about the nature of the universe and physical matter

b)

It challenged traditional gender roles

c)

It reinforced Greco-Islamic scientific and mathematical theories about natural forces.

d)

It prevented the growth of new religious movements such as Deism

16.

The construction of the Suez Canal in the nineteenth century was most directly a result of which of the following?

a)

The discovery of petroleum in the Arabian peninsula

b)

Napoleon's invasion of Egypt during the French Revolution

c)

The emergence of new Arab states following the collapse of the Ottoman Empire

d)

The rise of European imperialism in Africa and Asia

17.

The Supreme Court's power of judicial was established under

a)

Hylton v. United States

b)

Marbury v. Madison

c)

Article I of the US Constitution

d)

The Ninth Amendment of the United States Constitution

18.

Which of the following outlines and basic structure of the three-tiered federal court system from lowest to highest tier?

a)

State supreme court, circuit court, United States Supreme Court

b)

District court, state supreme court, United States Supreme Court

c)

Circuit Court, district court, United States Supreme Court

d)

District court, circuit court, United States Supreme Court

19.

Which of the following is a result of the system of checks and balances outlined in the United States Constitution

a)

Each branch of government is equally insulated from public pressure

b)

The political system often requires compromise for changes to be made

c)

The federal government and the states share power in many policy areas

d)

Policy concerns are often neglected because of barriers created in Congress

20.

According to pluralist theories of democracy, which of the following is a benefit provided by the activities of interest groups?

a)

Judicial interpretation

b)

Raising revenue

c)

Interest aggregation

d)

Government accountability

21.

"Democracies have ever been spectacles of turbulence and contention; have ever been found incompatible with personal security or the rights of property; and have in general been short in their lives as they have been violent in their deaths."


Which of the following best characterizes Madison's preferred form of government?

a)

Parliamentary democracy

b)

Theocracy

c)

Constitutional republic

d)

Constitutional monarchy

22.

Which of the following officials is most likely to have the greatest access to the president?

a)

The White House chief of staff

b)

The secretary of state

c)

The vice president

d)

The speaker of the house

23.

Which of the following checks is an implied power Congress has over the executive branch

a)

Approving presidential appointments

b)

Declaring war

c)

Impeachment

d)

Oversight of executive agencies

24.

The federalist no 78, Hamilton argued in favor of a lifetime tenure for federal judges on the basis of

a)

keeping the judiciary independent from political pressure

b)

ensuring that the judiciary upholds high moral standards

c)

offering stable careers to qualified personnel

d)

alternating party control of the federal bench

25.

Which of the following had the responsibility to oversee the implementation of school desegregation after the Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka ruling?

a)

The president

b)

Congress

c)

Federal district court

d)

The police

26.

The United States political system differs from parliamentary democracies in which of the following ways?

a)

The United States has fixed terms of office for the president and legislature, while most parliamentary democracies have variable terms.

b)

The United States holds direct elections for all national legislators, while legislators in most parliamentary democracies are appointed

c)

The United States does not use primary elections, while primary elections are common in the most parliamentary democracies

d)

The United States legislature is bicameral, while all parliaments are unicameral.

27.

The United States political system differs from parliamentary democracies in which of the following ways?

a)

The United States has fixed terms of office for the president and legislature, while most parliamentary democracies have variable terms.

b)

The United States holds direct elections for all national legislators, while legislators in most parliamentary democracies are appointed.

c)

The United States does not use primary elections, while primary elections are common in most parliamentary democracies

d)

The United States legislature is bicameral, while all parliaments are unicameral.

28.

Which of the following expansions of presidential power has been limited by the courts?

a)

Executive orders on bureaucratic issues

b)

Executive agreements with other countries

c)

Signing statements attached to bills

d)

Impoundment of funds from Congress

29.

Which of the following best describes selective incorporation?

a)

If there is a conflict between federal and state law, federal law is superior

b)

Business in the United States is regulated by the commerce clause of the Constitution

c)

Portions of the Bill of Rights are applied to states on a case-by-case approach

d)

Segregation deprives people of equal protection under the law

30.

Which of the following can serve as a limit on a president's foreign-policy-making power?

a)

Congress can veto a president's declaration of war.

b)

The Senate can refuse to ratify an executive agreement with another country.

c)

Low public-approval ratings can undermine a president's foreign policy agenda

d)

Limited media coverage of foreign affairs can diminish the president's ability to take action abroad

31.

A narrow corridor extends the Democratic republic of Congo to the Atlantic Ocean, and the Caprivi Strip extends a very slim section of Namibia to the Zambezi River. The Democratic Republic of Congo and Namibia are examples of

a)

Prorupt states

b)

Compact states

c)

Fragmented states

d)

Perforated states

32.

The global industrial division of labor has impacted East Asia in which of the following ways?

a)

Poverty has increased within the urban populations of East Asia.

b)

The middle-class population of East Asia has grown substantially

c)

The status of East Asian women has declined substantially

d)

Population growth in most East Asian countries has boomed

33.

In the model presented in The Isolated State, von Thunen argued that agricultural land-use types would develop in rings around a town or village. The innermost ring of von Thunen's model, closest to the center, was characterized by

a)

forest used for timber products and firewood

b)

grain production

c)

market gardens and dairying

d)

extensive grazing of animals

34.

The mean December-February temperature in Moscow is significantly lower than that in Copenhagen, even though both cities are located in the same distance from the equator, because Moscow's temperature reflects its location in

a)

an arctic climate region

b)

a highland climate region

c)

a continental climate region

d)

a marine climate region

35.

The primary reason why certain areas experience more damage and loss of life from natural disasters is due to

a)

nondemocratic political systems

b)

underfunded public services

c)

a lack of energy and food resources

d)

warmer, more humid climates

36.

What type of map projection shows lines of longitude as straight, parallel lines but shows the shortest land distance between two points on such a map as a great circle route?

a)

Polar azimuthal

b)

Robinson

c)

Goode homolosine

d)

Mercator

37.

The farther it is from the source of its invention, the less likely an innovation is to be adopted, and the weaker its impact is likely to be. The geographic effect is known as:

a)

a cultural barrier

b)

distance decay

c)

physical barrier

d)

time-space convergence

38.

Which of the following are in the M1 measure of the money supply

a)

Currency held in banks and demand deposit balances

b)

Currency held in banks and excess reserves

c)

Currency in circulation, demand deposit balances, and credit card balances

d)

Currency in circulation and demand deposit balances

39.

Which of the following actions by the Federal Reserve Bank will decrease the federal funds rate?

a)

Purchasing bonds on the open market

b)

decreasing the money supply

c)

Increasing the required reserve ratio

d)

increasing the discount rate

40.

The commercial banking system creates money when

a)

Required reserves equal excess reserves

b)

Excess reserves decrease with additional deposits

c)

Excess reserves are loaned out

d)

Borrowers pay back loans

41.

Which of the following illustrates the short-run impacts of an increase in government purchases on the price level and real output?

a)

The aggregate demand curve shifts to the rights, decreasing the prices level and real output

b)

The aggregate demand curve shifts to the right, increasing the price level and real output

c)

The aggregate supply curve shifts to the right, increasing the price level and real output

d)

The aggregate supply curve shifts to the left, increasing the price level and decreasing real output

42.

Which of the following is an example of frictional unemployment?

a)

After retirement, Archeta decides to volunteer at a local food bank instead of looking for paid jobs

b)

Guillermo is laid off when sales at his firm decline

c)

Pingli loses her job after a robot is developed that can do her work

d)

Donte has completed his mater's degree and is looking into several job offers.

43.

Which of the following describes the fundamental economic problem?

a)

Resources are used by the private sector and the public sector

b)

There is a lack of appropriate information for making decisions

c)

Resources are limited and wants and needs are unlimited

d)

Different economic systems distribute wealth differently

44.

Which of the following financial instruments is most likely to offer the lowest risk and highest return for a short-term investment?

a)

Cash

b)

Certificate of deposit

c)

Real estate

d)

Stocks

45.

Which of the following can best account for the fact that opportunity costs in production are typically increasing?

a)

Imperfect consumer preferences

b)

Inadequate technology changes

c)

Depreciation of physical capital

d)

Imperfect substitutability of resources

46.

Rhonda owns her own business settling up web sites for individual and businesses. Working from her home office, she uses her computer to design the sites. She earns $50 per hour for her efforts. Which of the following is an example of capital as a factor of production for Rhonda?

a)

The $50 per hour that Rhonda earns designing Web sites

b)

The time that Rhonda devotes to her business

c)

The computer Rhonda uses to design the web sites

d)

The web sites that Rhonda sets up for her clients

47.

Which of the following is an example of government intervention in a mixed economy?

a)

Spending for infrastructure improvement and maintenance

b)

Allocating scarce resources to their best use

c)

Protecting workers from dangerous working conditions

d)

Setting production goals

48.

Increased access to higher education may lead to productivity gains because of which of the following?

a)

An increase in human capital

b)

An increase in college tuition

c)

A decrease in financial capital

d)

A decrease in educational loans

49.

If the government imposes new regulations on businesses to increase product safety, real output and price level will change in which of the following ways? Real input will: and the Price level will:

a)

Decrease Decrease

b)

Decrease Increase

c)

Increase Increase

d)

Increase Decrease

50.

Which of the following is true about monopoly and perfect competition?

a)

Monopoly produces larger output and charges a higher price than perfect competition does

b)

Monopoly produces larger output and charges a lower price than perfect competition does

c)

Monopoly produces smaller output and charges a higher price than perfect competition does

d)

Monopoly produces smaller output and charges a lower price than perfect competition does

51.

Which of the following will decrease the quantity demanded of gasoline?

a)

A decrease in the price of cars operated by gasoline

b)

A decrease in per-unit sales taxes on gasoline

c)

An increase in consumers' income and gasoline is a normal good

d)

An increase in the price of gasoline

52.

Which of the following best describes a situation where economic efficiency is achieved?

a)

The economy can produce more goods and services when resources are redistributed

b)

A country distributes income and wealth equally among its citizens

c)

An economy can only produce more goods and services when more resources and available

d)

A country's unemployment rate is higher than its natural rate of unemployment

53.

Which of the following are the four types of anthropology?

a)

Linguistic, archaeological, social, and civilized

b)

Biological, archaeological, linguistic, and cultural

c)

Linguistic, sociological, biological, and psychological

d)

Psychological, paleontological, linguistic, and cultural

54.

Reinforcers and punishers influence the probability that a given behavior will be repeated in the future. What impact does a negative reinforcer have on a future behavior?

a)

It increases the probability of reoccurrence

b)

It decreases the probability of reoccurrence

c)

It has no effect on the probability of reoccurrence

d)

It can either increase or decrease the probability of reoccurrence depending on the situation.

55.

Which of the following types of learning takes place through imitating others?

a)

Classical conditioning

b)

Operant conditioning

c)

Observational

d)

Logical

56.

Which of the following schedules of reinforcement involves reinforcing behavior after a given amount of time?

a)

Fixed ratio

b)

Variable ratio

c)

Fixed interval

d)

Variable interval

57.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the neural action of reuptake?

a)

It takes place in the axon terminals by the sending neuron

b)

It takes place in the dendrites of a receiving neuron

c)

It takes place in the nodes of Ranvier of the sending neuron

d)

It takes place in the axon hillock to initiate the action potential