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Worksheets

Antimicrobials & Resistance

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When two drugs are given simultaneously and work better together:

a)

commensalism

b)

antagonism

c)

synergism

d)

symbiosis

2.

When two drugs are given simultaneously and inhibit one another:

a)

commensalism

b)

antagonism

c)

synergism

d)

symbiosis

3.

Antibiotics that target bacterial translation denature the:

a)

nucleus

b)

70s ribosome

c)

80s ribosome

d)

nucleoid

4.

Microbes with genetic characteristics allowing for their survival when exposed to an antibiotic are called ______________________

a)

persister cells

b)

alterations

c)

super-infections

d)

transducers

5.

Which of the following is easiest to treat with antimicrobial agents:

a)

fungi

b)

bacteria

c)

protists

d)

viruses

6.

According to the chemotherapeutic index, the larger the number, the safer the drug

a)

True

b)

False

7.

_________________________ is the ability of the body to ward off disease using physical and chemical factors, including secretions and antimicrobials.

a)

autoimmunity

b)

resistance

c)

selective toxicity

d)

hypersensitivity

8.

Sometimes, drugs are combined to target different areas of the microbe.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Gram negative organisms are more resistant to control agents than Gram positive.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

_________________________ is a set of undesirable reactions produced by the normal immune system, including drug allergies and autoimmunity.

a)

selective toxicity

b)

hypersensitivity

c)

allergies

d)

resistance

11.

Which of the following is not an example of antibiotic misuse?

a)

using antibiotics in animal feed

b)

using outdated antibiotics

c)

finishing a full prescription of antibiotics

d)

prescribing antibiotics for viruses

12.

There are selectively toxic drugs for prion treatment.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

One disadvantage of using broad spectrum antibiotics is that they:

a)

target host cells

b)

destroy normal microbiota

c)

are easily inactivated by the host

d)

are extremely toxic

14.

Gram-negative bacteria are relatively more resistant to antibiotics because:

a)

they are too small for the antibiotic to attack.

b)

their cell wall restricts absorption of molecules through porins.

c)

they all have capsules that resist antibiotics.

d)

they secrete antibiotic-destroying compounds.

15.

If you measure a large zone of inhibition in a disk-diffusion test, one can assume that the bacteria are:

a)

Producing the antibiotic

b)

Sensitive to the antibiotic

c)

Unaffected by the antibiotic

d)

Resistant to the antibiotic

16.

If you measure no zone of inhibition in a disk-diffusion test, one can assume that the bacteria are:

a)

Producing the antibiotic

b)

Sensitive to the antibiotic

c)

Unaffected by the antibiotic

d)

Resistant to the antibiotic

17.

An antibiotic that attacks the LPS layer would be expected to have a narrow spectrum of activity.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

An antibiotic that attacks both G+ and G- cells would be expected to have a narrow spectrum of activity.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

In what way are semisynthetic penicillins and natural penicillins alike?

a)

Both are bactericidal.

b)

Both are broad spectrum.

c)

Both are resistant to penicillinase.

d)

Both are based on β-lactam rings.

20.

In the ____________________ method, filter paper disks are soaked in a chemical and placed on a culture to evaluate the efficacy of chemical agents.

a)

Use-Dilution

b)

Disk-Diffusion

c)

Kinyoun

d)

Ehrlich

21.

Which of the following antimicrobials has the broadest spectrum of activity?

a)

streptomycin

b)

isoniazid

c)

penicillin

d)

tetracycline

22.

A “fake nucleotide” that acts as a DNA/RNA inhibitor:

a)

faucleotide

b)

cytosine dimer

c)

nucleoside analog

d)

thymine dimer

23.

The ability of antibiotics to target specific microbial structures without harming the host is termed _________________________.

a)

Anaphylaxis

b)

Selective toxicity

c)

Hypersensitivity

d)

Resistance

24.

________________, ________________, and _______________ are the main components in topical ointments like Neosporin.

a)

bacitracin, neomycin, polymyxin-B

b)

bacitracin, neomycin, imidizole

c)

peuromutilins, neomycin, polymyxin-B

d)

tetracycline, neomycin, pleuromutilins

25.

The formation of hives is considered a ___________ reaction.

a)

resistance

b)

hypersensitivity

26.

Some Gram + bacteria contain an enzyme called _____________ that breaks down penicillin’s beta-lactam ring.

a)

penicillinase

b)

beta-lactamase

c)

beta-galactosidase

d)

both beta-lactamase & penicillinase

27.

One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in:

a)

increased susceptibility to disease

b)

body odor

c)

fewer diseases

d)

overcolonization by normal microbes

28.

The first penicillinase-resistant semisynthetic penicillin was:

a)

methicillin

b)

penicillin

c)

cephalosporin

d)

augmentin

29.

In penicillin-reisistant G+ infections, what chemical is used as a noncompetitive inhibitor of penicillinase?

a)

clavulanate

b)

ampicillin

c)

methicillin

d)

penicillin

30.

If a patient is allergic to penicillin, ___________ is prescribed.

a)

cephalosporin

b)

tetracycline

c)

bacitracin

d)

isoniazid

31.

Topical treatment used against G+ bacteria.

a)

bacitracin

b)

polymyxin B

c)

vancomycin

d)

penicillin

32.

Topical treatment used against G- bacteria.

a)

bacitracin

b)

polymyxin B

c)

vancomycin

d)

penicillin

33.

Last line of defense against MRSA

a)

vancomycin

b)

methicillin

c)

penicillin

d)

cephalosporins

34.

Danny has tuberculosis, which of the following would be the best treatment?

a)

isoniazid

b)

penicillin

c)

vancimysin

d)

augmentin

35.

Inhibits folic acid synthesis:

a)

sulfonamides

b)

methicillin

c)

isoniazid

d)

amphotericin B

36.

Antiretrovirals treat viruses that have:

a)

betalactamase

b)

betagalactosidase

c)

reverse transcriptase

d)

DNA polymerase

37.

Which of the following target fungal cell walls?

a)

amphotericin B

b)

quinine

c)

polymyxin B

d)

penicillin

38.

Treats malaria:

a)

niclosamide

b)

tetracycline

c)

isoniazid

d)

chlorocrine

39.

Treats helminthic infections:

a)

niclosamide

b)

ergosterol

c)

quinine

d)

chloramphenical

40.

Bacteria require resistance genes via _________ & __________.

a)

mutation; HGT

b)

mutation; VGT

c)

VGT; HGT

d)

None of these

41.

Antibiotic resistance refers to a microbes ability to survive treatment by resisting the antibiotic.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Antibiotic resistance refers to a host's ability to survive treatment by resisting the antibiotic.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Natural, chemical, and synthetic drugs that combat disease in the body.

a)

chemotherapeutic agents

b)

antibiotics

c)

prescriptions

d)

persisters

44.

Protein synthesis inhibitors like chloramphenicol target the:

a)

cell wall

b)

plasma membrane

c)

70s ribosome

d)

DNA

45.

Some G+ cells treated with penicillin can survive without peptidoglycan.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Which of the following combinations would most likely contribute to the development of a superinfection?

a)

short-term use of broad-spectrum antimicrobials

b)

short-term use of narrow-spectrum antimicrobials

c)

long-term use of broad-spectrum antimicrobials

d)

long-term use of narrow-spectrum antimicrobials

47.

Which of the following routes of administration would be appropriate for home administration to treat a systemic infection?

a)

oral

b)

intravenous

c)

topical

d)

parenteral

48.

Which clinical situation would be appropriate for treatment with a narrow-spectrum antimicrobial drug?

a)

treatment of a polymicrobial mixed infection in the intestine

b)

prophylaxis against infection after a surgical procedure

c)

treatment of strep throat caused by culture identified Streptococcus pyogenes

d)

therapy of pneumonia while waiting for culture results

49.

Narrow-spectrum antimicrobials are commonly used for prophylaxis following surgery.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Which of the following is not a type of β-lactam antimicrobial?

a)

penicillins

b)

methicillin

c)

cephalosporins

d)

ciprofloxacin

51.

Which of the following does not bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit?

a)

chloramphenicol

b)

tetracycline

c)

neomycin

d)

tobramycin

52.

Which of the following antimicrobials inhibits the activity of DNA gyrase?

a)

ciprofloxacin

b)

rifampin

c)

clindamycin

d)

polymyxin B

53.

Which of the following is not an appropriate target for antifungal drugs?

a)

β-glucan

b)

chitin

c)

ergosterol

d)

cholesterol

54.

Which of the following drug classes specifically inhibits neuron transmission in helminths?

a)

chlorocrine

b)

ivermectin

c)

niclosamide

d)

mebendazole

55.

Which of the following is a nucleoside analog commonly used as a reverse transcriptase inhibitor in the treatment of HIV?

a)

acyclovir

b)

ribavirin

c)

azidothymidine (AZT)

d)

amantadine

56.

Antiviral drugs, like _____ are neuraminidase inhibitors that prevent influenza virus escape from host cells.

a)

Olsetamivir

b)

Pleconaril

c)

Amantadine

d)

Simeprevir

57.

Which of the following resistance mechanisms describes the function of β-lactamase?

a)

target overproduction

b)

drug inactivation

c)

target mimicry

d)

efflux pump

58.

Which of the following resistance mechanisms is commonly effective against a wide range of antimicrobials in multiple classes?

a)

target overproduction

b)

target modification

c)

target mimicry

d)

efflux pump

59.

In the Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion test, the _______ of the zone of inhibition is measured and used for interpretation.

a)

depth

b)

circumference

c)

microbial population

d)

diameter

60.

If drug A produces a larger zone of inhibition than drug B on the Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion test, drug A should always be prescribed.

a)

True

b)

False