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Pathogenicity

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to Koch’s Postulates, in order to identify a specific pathogen, it must be present in every case of the disease.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Mobile elements in the cell wall of bacteria that carry virulence genes and are often shuffled/deleted:

a)

Motility Bridges

b)

Transposons

c)

Pathogenicity Islands

d)

HFR Elements

3.

Jill stepped on a rusty nail and contracted tetanus, what route will the bacteria use to cause infection:

a)

Urogenital

b)

Parenteral

c)

Gastrointestinal

d)

Inhalation

4.

In a biofilm, adhesins are used to form the bacterial ___________________, allowing adhesion and sharing of nutrients.

a)

Spikes

b)

Glycocalyx

c)

Cell wall

d)

Cell membrane

5.

Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria both utilize __________________ as a method of adhesion.

a)

Fimbriae

b)

MSCRAMMS

c)

Pili

d)

Afimbriae

6.

The process used by some microbes to force host cell endocytosis of the pathogen is termed:

a)

Membrane ruffling

b)

Forced-exocytosis

c)

Siderophoration

d)

Pinocytosis

7.

Protein that is released by bacteria and pokes holes in host cell membranes.

a)

Invasin

b)

Coagulase

c)

Cadherin

d)

Perforin

8.

The primary factors that contribute to microbial pathogenicity are __________________.

a)

Toxins

b)

Genes

c)

Cell walls

d)

Nutrient availability

9.

Membrane disrupting toxins that lyse blood cells:

a)

Leukocidins

b)

Hemolysins

c)

Streptolysins

d)

All of these

10.

Pyrogens cause:

a)

Vomiting

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Fever

d)

Itching

11.

Ergot is a hallucinogenic toxin released by some:

a)

Fungi

b)

Prion

c)

Virus

d)

Bacteria

12.

Cytopathic effects of viruses do not include:

a)

Syncytium

b)

Uncontrolled mitosis

c)

Bacteriocins

d)

Inclusion Bodies

13.

Which of the following bacteria contain exotoxins:

a)

Corynebacterium diptheriae

b)

Clostridium tetanae

c)

Clostridium botulinum

d)

All of these

14.

Which of the following bacteria contain endotoxins:

a)

Clostridium botulinum

b)

Salmonella typhimurium

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Streptococcus pyogenes

15.

Allow the formation of blood clots:

a)

Coagulases

b)

Collagenase

c)

Hyaluronidase

d)

Kinases

16.

Allow the digestion of blood clots:

a)

Coagulases

b)

Collagenase

c)

Hyaluronidase

d)

Kinases

17.

Protozoates and helminths cause disease symptoms due to the buildup of _________________ in the host.

a)

Worms

b)

Phagocytosis

c)

Wastes

d)

Endotoxins

18.

Which of the following are both portals of entry and exit.

a)

Gastrointestinal tract

b)

Mucus membranes

c)

Skin

d)

All of these

19.

The ability to cause disease by overcoming host defenses is termed __________, whereas ____________ is the degree to which the pathogen overcomes host defenses.

a)

pathogenicity; virulence

b)

virulence; pathogenicity

20.

In some cases, microbes process information by using cascades to regulate gene expression in response to environmental cues via __________________.

a)

signal transduction

b)

positive feedback

c)

perspiration

d)

immunity

21.

The _____measures the potency of a microbe’s toxin, whereas the _____ measures a microbe’s overall virulence.

a)

LD50; ID50

b)

ID50; LD50

22.

The _________________ is the period between the entry of the microbe and the appearance of disease symptoms.

a)

prodromal

b)

incubation

c)

decline

d)

illness

23.

_______________are proteins secreted by pathogens that scavenge iron deposits from host cells.

a)

MSCRAMMS

b)

Siderophores

c)

Fimbriae

d)

Bacteriocins

24.

Amoebocytes are cultured from __________________ and are used to test for the presence of endotoxins.

a)

horseshoe crabs

b)

cats

c)

rabbits

d)

goldfish

25.

Microbiota can protect against infection by preventing pathogens from colonizing epithelial surfaces. This is:

a)

colonization resistance

b)

vaccinomics

c)

pathogenicity

d)

virulence

26.

The likelihood of disease increases as the number of microbes decreases.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Which of the pathogens below are the most virulent:

a)

Ebola virus

b)

Rhinovirus

c)

Chlamydia

d)

Strep-Throat

28.

Which of the pathogens below are the least virulent:

a)

Ebola virus

b)

Rabies virus

c)

Vibrio cholerae

d)

Rhinovirus

29.

Most microbes are never pathogenic.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

The shorter the incubation period, the more chance the microbe will be transmitted.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Diagnosis and effective treatment of infection depends on:

a)

Recognized syndromes

b)

Patient’s clinical condition (signs & symptoms)

c)

Isolation and biochemical testing of potential pathogen

d)

All of these

32.

Stephanie has an enterohemorrhagic E. coli infection. What was the most likely portal of entry?

a)

gastrointestinal

b)

parenteral

c)

respiratory

d)

genitourinary

33.

Which of the following is not a method of bacterial sex?

a)

transformatio

b)

transduction

c)

conjugation

d)

mitosis

34.

When a pathogen alters its PAMPs and is no longer recognized by host antibodies, _____________ has occurred.

a)

Conversion

b)

Affinity

c)

Immunity

d)

Antigenic variation

35.

The epidemiological triangle does not include:

a)

Factors of the agent

b)

Factors of the host

c)

Factors of the environment

d)

Factors of government control

36.

To cause disease, pathogens must first:

a)

Enter the host

b)

Adhere to host tissues

c)

Penetrate or evade host defenses

d)

Damage the host tissues

e)

Exit from the host

37.

Most pathogens have a preferred portal of entry.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

In biofilm environments, pathogenicity is more likely to occur when:

a)

there are more microbes present

b)

quorum sensing is occurring

c)

the host is immunocompromised

d)

all of these

39.

Two variations of the Influenza A virus have combined to in the last year to form a more virulent strain. This is called:

a)

antigenic shift

b)

antigenic drift

40.

Due to increased vaccinations and fewer susceptible individuals, the Influenza A virus has gradually started exhibiting mutations to its receptors. This is an example of:

a)

antigenic shift

b)

antigenic drift

41.

The more motile a pathogen is, the more likely it will cause disease.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Which of the following bacteria does not have a flagella.

a)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Escherichia coli

d)

Bacillus megaterium

43.

Which of the following factors contribute to a microbes ability to invade a host:

a)

Enzymes

b)

Penetration methods

c)

Capsules

d)

All of these may contribute

44.

Exotoxins are only found in G- bacteria.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Endotoxins are only found in G- cells.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Endotoxins indicate the presence of specific diseases.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Exotoxins are more toxic than endotoxins.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Many different microbes exhibit antigenic variation.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

The presence of "mycotoxin" indicates that a patient has a _____ infection.

a)

bacterial

b)

fungal

c)

protozoal

d)

viral

50.

Transduction can increase pathogenicity.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Endotoxins are released during:

a)

binary fission and death

b)

bacterial sex

c)

lysogenic conversion

d)

schizogony

52.

Which is more soluble in body fluids:

a)

endotoxins

b)

exotoxins

53.

Which is the primary cause of fevers?

a)

endotoxin

b)

exotoxin

54.

In order for diptheria toxin to be released, what must occur?

a)

A and B toxin must be present

b)

The host must be immunocompromised

c)

There must be more than 10,000 microbes

d)

Biogenesis

55.

If a patient has toxemia, where have toxins been found?

a)

blood

b)

lymph

c)

skin

d)

brain

56.

Shigella flexneri expresses a glycoprotein that allows it to travel between host cells. It is called:

a)

Coagulase

b)

Cadherin

c)

Perforin

d)

Adhesin

57.

The method used by bacteria like Yersinia pestis to avoid phagocytosis is:

a)

capsule production

b)

toxin release

c)

host cell adhesion

d)

viral lysogeny

58.

Which of the following is a mechanical barrier to pathogens?

a)

Defecation

b)

Nutrients

c)

pH

d)

Temperature

59.

Which of the following is a chemical barrier to pathogens?

a)

defecation

b)

urination

c)

swallowing

d)

secretions

60.

The ID50 & LD50 is different for every pathogen.

a)

True

b)

False