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Chapter 13 Trivia

Total questions: 62

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a current common use for phenolic compounds?

a)

Disinfecting surfaces at home

b)

Bathing infants

c)

Antiseptic used before surgery

d)

Preserving food

2.

What chemical functional group defines phenolic compounds?

a)

A chlorine, fluorine, or iodine atom

b)

A positively charged nitrogen group

c)

A carboxylic acid

d)

A benzene ring with a hydroxyl group

3.

How do heavy metals kill microbes?

a)

Destabilizes the cell membrane

b)

Binds to and inhibits enzymes

c)

Denatures proteins and nucleic acids

d)

Decreases the pH in the cytoplasm

4.

What are the five common heavy metals used in microbial control?

a)

Mercury (Hg), Silver (Ag), Zinc (Zn), Copper (Cu), and Nickel (Ni)

b)

Cobalt (Co), Magnesium (Mg), Sodium (Na), Zinc (Zn), and Mercury (Hg)

c)

Sodium (Na), Calcium (Ca), Copper (Cu), Nickel (Ni), and Silver (Ag)

d)

Magnesium (Mg), Zinc (Zn), Sodium (Na), Calcium (Ca), and Lithium (Li)

5.

Why are many heavy metals both antimicrobial and toxic to humans?

a)

The disrupt cell membranes of any cell type.

b)

They are able to diffuse across the membrane of any cell type.

c)

They are not selective against enzymes from any particular species.

d)

They damage DNA, which is present in all organisms.

6.

What are the three halogens used in microbial control?

a)

silver, copper, and nickel

b)

chlorine, fluorine, and iodine

c)

ethanol, isopropanol, and butanol

d)

oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen

7.

How do halogens kill microbes?

a)

Inhibit protein synthesis

b)

Add hydrocarbon groups to proteins and nucleic acids

c)

Oxidize and destabilize macromolecules

d)

Disrupt the cell membrane

8.

What product is commonly used in clinical settings and contains a halogen?

a)

povidone-iodine

b)

isopropanol

c)

carbolic acid

d)

chloramine

9.

What are the two most common alcohols used for disinfection and antisepsis?

a)

ethanol and propanol

b)

butanol and propanol

c)

butanol and isopropanol

d)

ethanol and isopropanol

10.

What concentration of alcohol works best for disinfection and antisepsis?

a)

100%

b)

70%

c)

37%

d)

3%

11.

What are the key chemical characteristics of a surfactant?

a)

A positive charge and a negative charge

b)

A hydrophilic portion and hydrophobic portion

c)

A benzene ring and a hydroxyl group

d)

An alkyl group and a carboxylic acid

12.

How do soaps work to control the spread of microbes?

a)

mechanically removes them from surfaces

b)

completely kills all microbes on a surface

c)

temporarily stops their growth

d)

prevents microbes from forming aerosols

13.

How do quaternary ammonium salts (quats) affect microbes?

a)

causes the cytoplasm to congeal

b)

mechanically removes them from surfaces

c)

disrupts cell membranes

d)

damages their DNA and proteins

14.

Chlorhexidine and alexidine are examples of what class of microbial control agent?

a)

alkylating agents

b)

bisbiguanides

c)

quaternary ammonium salts

d)

heavy metals

15.

What effect does chlorhexidine have on bacterial cells when given in high concentrations?

a)

congeals the cytoplasm

b)

damages DNA

c)

disrupts cell membranes

d)

inhibits enzymes

16.

What effect does chlorhexidine have on bacterial cells when given in low concentrations?

a)

congeals the cytoplasm

b)

damages DNA

c)

disrupts cell membranes

d)

inhibits enzymes

17.

How do alkylating agents kill microbes?

a)

causes breaks in DNA

b)

lowers the pH of the cytoplasm

c)

adds hydrocarbon groups to proteins and nucleic acids

d)

absorbs nearly all water from the cytoplasm

18.

Why are alkylating agents only used as disinfectants or sterilants and not used as antiseptics?

a)

They can burn the skin.

b)

They can cause discoloration of the skin.

c)

They can cause neurological problems.

d)

They are carcinogenic.

19.

How do peroxygens kill microbes?

a)

disrupts cell membranes

b)

oxidizes and destabilizes macromolecules

c)

congeals the cytoplasm

d)

binds to and inhibits enzymes

20.

Which types of microbial control agent is NOT effective against enveloped viruses?

a)

quats

b)

alkylating agents

c)

heavy metals

d)

alcohols

21.

What microbial control agent is effective against both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, viruses, and endospores?

a)

peroxygens

b)

phenolics

c)

quats

d)

bisbiguanides

22.

What is a drawback of using sulfites as food preservatives?

a)

They can cause cancer.

b)

They can be harmful to the environment.

c)

They do not kill all types of foodborne pathogens.

d)

Some individuals are allergic to them.

23.

What are two examples of natural chemical food preservatives?

a)

nicin and natamycin

b)

boric acid and penicillin

c)

sorbic acid and nitrites

d)

propionic acid and sodium benzoate

24.

What would a phenol coefficient of 0.5 indicate?

a)

The agent is more effective than phenol.

b)

The agent is less effective than phenol.

c)

The agent is similarly as effective as phenol

d)

The agent does not work as a disinfectant.

25.

In the disk-diffusion assay, which would indicate the more effective disinfecting agent?

a)

a larger zone of inhibition

b)

a smaller zone of inhibition

c)

a thicker lawn

d)

a thinner lawn

26.

What method determines a chemical’s disinfection effectiveness on an inanimate surface?

a)

disk-diffusion method

b)

in-use test

c)

phenol coefficient

d)

use-dilution test

27.

How much growth on either plate in the in-use test would indicate that a disinfectant solution is contaminated?

a)

No growth

b)

5 or more colonies

c)

10 colonies or less

d)

No more than 1 colony

28.

Inanimate items that may harbor microbes and aid in disease transmission are called _____.

a)

sterilants

b)

fomites

c)

contaminants

d)

specimens

29.

What factor most heavily influences the level of cleanliness required for a particular fomite?

a)

what possible sources of contamination it has come into contact with

b)

whether it could be harmful to the environment

c)

what material it is made of, such as wood, plastic, or metal

d)

whether it requires insertion into the human body​

30.

What is the system that rates microbes based on infectivity, ease of transmission, and disease severity?

a)

Biosafety Levels

b)

Biohazard Risk Assessments

c)

Safety Data Sheets

d)

Microbial Control Protocols

31.

Which Biosafety Level describes organisms that pose very little risk to human beings?

a)

BSL-1

b)

BSL-2

c)

BSL-3

d)

BSL-4

32.

Which Biosafety Level requires a respirator or working in a biosafety cabinet?

a)

BSL-1

b)

BSL-2

c)

BSL-3

d)

BSL-4

33.

What is an example of a BSL-2 microbe?

a)

Ebola virus

b)

Most strains of Escherichia coli

c)

Influenza virus

d)

Some strains of Staphylococcus aureus

34.

What is an example of an exotic pathogen that can be inhaled and causes deadly illness?

a)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

b)

Marburg virus

c)

Clostridium botulinum

d)

Rhinovirus

35.

What type of microbial control protocol completely kills all organisms on an item?

a)

disinfection

b)

pasteurization

c)

sterilization

d)

degerming

36.

What type of microbial control protocol uses chlorine bleach, phenol, or glutaraldehyde?

a)

disinfection

b)

asepsis

c)

sanitization

d)

degerming

37.

What type of microbial control protocol is used for commercial dishwashing and cleaning public bathrooms?

a)

disinfection

b)

commercial sterilization

c)

sanitization

d)

degerming

38.

What is a chemical agent used to clean skin before surgery?

a)

iodine

b)

chlorine bleach

c)

glutaraldehyde

d)

detergents

39.

What is the purpose of degerming?

a)

to completely kill all microorganisms on a fomite

b)

to physically remove microorganisms from skin or tissue

c)

to prevent the transfer of microorganisms to an organic material

d)

to slow the growth of microorganisms in food items

40.

What process aims to reduce a population of 1012 endospores down to 1?

a)

pasteurization

b)

commercial sterilization

c)

aseptic technique

d)

sanitization

41.

What type of microbial control agent kills bacteria?

a)

bactericidal

b)

virocidal

c)

bacteriostatic

d)

virostatic

42.

What type of microbial control agent would inhibit the growth of mold, but not kill it?

a)

bactericidal

b)

virocidal

c)

protostatic

d)

fungistatic

43.

What describes the trend of a typical microbial death curve?

a)

parabolic

b)

sigmoidal

c)

logarithmic

d)

linear

44.

What is a D-value for a particular population of microbes?

a)

the time it takes for 10% of organisms to die

b)

the time it takes for 90% of organisms to die

c)

the temperature it takes to remove 50% of organisms

d)

the temperature it takes to remove 100% of organisms

45.

What is a factor that would typically improve the effectiveness of a microbial control protocol?

a)

lower temperature

b)

higher concentration of disinfecting agent

c)

presence of a biofilm

d)

shorter exposure time

46.

What is a factor that would typically hinder the effectiveness of a microbial control protocol?

a)

higher temperature

b)

higher concentration of disinfecting agent

c)

presence of a biofilm

d)

longer exposure time

47.

What is the thermal death point of an organism?

a)

the time needed to kill all microbes at a given temperature

b)

the lowest temperature at which all microbes are killed in a 10-minute exposure

c)

the highest temperature at which all microbes are killed in a 1-minute exposure

d)

the time needed to kill 90% of microbes at a given temperature

48.

What is the thermal death time of an organism?

a)

the time needed to kill all microbes at a given temperature

b)

the lowest temperature at which all microbes are killed in a 10-minute exposure

c)

the highest temperature at which all microbes are killed in a 1-minute exposure

d)

the time needed to kill 90% of microbes at a given temperature

49.

What is the purpose of the high pressures used in autoclaving?

a)

to enhance incineration of materials

b)

to force hot steam to penetrate materials

c)

to raise the achievable boiling temperature of liquids

d)

to kill cells by crushing them

50.

What is a typical temperature, pressure, and run time for an autoclave?

a)

20 psi, 121 °C, 20 minutes

b)

40 psi, 100 °C, 2 hours

c)

2 psi, 171 °C, 40 minutes

d)

800 psi, 210 °C, 4 minutes

51.

Which is NOT a method used to ensure that optimum temperature was reached during an autoclave run?

a)

heat shock

b)

Diack tube

c)

autoclave tape

d)

biological spore test indicator

52.

What is the main benefit of pasteurization?

a)

maintains food quality while minimizing spoilage

b)

allows storage of culture media at room temperature

c)

kills all organisms in a food item

d)

does not introduce harmful chemicals

53.

Which type of pasteurization allows milk to be stored at room temperature for months or years without spoiling?

a)

UHT

b)

HTST

c)

TSHU

d)

HST

54.

Which of the following is often preserved by snap freezing and storing at -70°C?

a)

viruses

b)

proteins

c)

biological tissue samples

d)

microbial growth media

55.

What can be used to store specimens at -196°C?

a)

dry ice

b)

wet ice

c)

freezer

d)

liquid nitrogen

56.

Which is NOT a way prevent microbial growth by lowering its water activity?

a)

salting

b)

desiccation

c)

lyophilization

d)

sonication

57.

What method of microbial control involves freezing cells under a vacuum?

a)

HEPA filtration

b)

desiccation

c)

lyophilization

d)

sonication

58.

What is a common application of ionizing radiation in controlling microbial growth?

a)

to sterilize biological tissue samples

b)

to clean skin before surgery

c)

to sterilize many packaged materials

d)

to treat a systemic infection

59.

Which type of radiation works by creating many thymine dimers in DNA?

a)

visible light

b)

gamma rays

c)

X-rays

d)

UV light

60.

What method of microbial control involves exposing cells to ultrasonic waves?

a)

pasteurization

b)

desiccation

c)

lyophilization

d)

sonication

61.

What method of microbial control is used to remove microbes from air?

a)

HEPA filtration

b)

membrane filtration

c)

sonication

d)

lyophilization

62.

What is a typical pore size of a membrane filter?

a)

30 μm

b)

100 μm

c)

0.2 μm

d)

0.04 μm