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Histophysiology Exam 4

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 2hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

True or false: In order to be absorbed, electrolytes and minerals must be in solution and in free ionized form.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

What cells do the bulk of absorption?

a)

Villus cells

b)

Crypt Cells

c)

Paneth Cells

d)

G cells

3.

Chloride tends to be co-transported with _____ across villus cells.

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Sugars and Amino Acids

4.

Where does most chloride get paracellularly absorbed at?

a)

Upper duodenum

b)

Lower duodenum

c)

Upper jejunum

d)

Lower Jejunum

5.

The bulk of potassium absorption is accomplished using the ______.

a)

NKCC2 Co-transporter

b)

Cl- Co-transport

c)

Active K Channel Pump

d)

Paracellular Pathway

6.

True or false: most of the sodium being absorbed in the duodenum is from the diet.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

_____ secrete chloride, sodium, and water.

a)

Villus cells

b)

Crypt cells

c)

M cells

d)

Goblet cells

8.

True or false: When crypt cells secrete Cl, Na is drawn by negative charge and water follows.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

True or false: Larger solutes are less likely to participate in solvent drag than small solutes.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

The bulk of what the large intestine does is produce ______.

a)

Mucous

b)

Chloride

c)

Sodium

d)

Water

11.

True or false: If you have colitis in a dog, severely watery diarrhea will always occur.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

What of the following are types of diarrhea?

a)

Secretory

b)

Malabsorption

c)

Osmotic

d)

Septic

13.

What type of diarrhea is characterized by excessive chloride secretion by crypt cells, reduced activity of villus cells, damage to tissue resulting in Prostaglandin E2 and I2 production, and mucous production as a result of microbial toxins?

a)

Secretory

b)

Malabsorption

c)

Osmotic

d)

Septic

14.

Bacterial toxins from ______ cause a release of serotonin from enteroendrocrine cells, resulting in an opening of calcium channels from adjacent cell basolateral membranes and an increased secretion of chloride.

a)

Cholera

b)

E. Coli

c)

Salmonella

d)

Rotavirus

15.

True or false: TNF-alpha and other cytokines made by macrophages and lymphocytes can bind to receptors on crypt cells and activate adenyl cyclase, eventually causing hypersecretion.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

___________ secretes enterotoxin which binds to receptors linked to guanylate cyclase activity, resulting in increased levels of Cyclic GMP activity that causes an increase in mostly intracellular calcium and eventually hypersecretion.

a)

Salmonella

b)

Vibrio cholera

c)

Cytokines

d)

Rotavirus

17.

True or false: Enterotoxigenic E. Coli LT toxin activates adenylate cyclase by irreversibly binding to its own G-protein coupled receptors on enterocytes, causing secretory diarrhea.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

True or false: Toxins and inflammation have no effect on Villus cell Na-Cl coupled absorption abilities.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

What type of diarrhea specifically refers to the loss of villus cells, enzymes, or tight junctions?

a)

Secretory

b)

Malabsorptive

c)

Osmotic

d)

Septic

20.

Which of the following are examples of protein losing enteropathy, in which protein leaks through damaged mucosa to enter the lumen of the gut instead of lacteals?

a)

Porcine Epidemic Diarrheal Virus

b)

Coccidiosis

c)

Cryptosporidiosis

d)

Johne's Disease

21.

What type of blood in feces is likely to be red in color?

a)

Melena

b)

Frank

c)

Carl

22.

Which of the following results in just the tip of villus cells being destroyed in calves and piglets?

a)

Transmissable Gastroenteritis (TGE)

b)

Rotavirus

c)

Porcine Epidemic Diarrheal Virus (PEDV)

d)

Cryptosporidiosis

23.

What malabsorptive diarrheal virus has a 100% piglet death loss associated with it? Hint: It destroys small intestine villus cells.

a)

Porcine Epidemic Diarrheal Virus

b)

Coccidiosis

c)

Cryptosporidiosis

d)

Rotavirus

24.

What usually gives veterinary students malabsorptive diarrhea and attacks both ileal cells and proximal colon cells?

a)

Coccidiosis

b)

Rotavirus

c)

Cryptosporidiosis

d)

Parvovirus

25.

Can you save a 3 day old piglet with TGE by using colon compensation? Hint: the animal's bacteria must be able to convert CHO to VFA to provide energy in addition to the Na/Water absorption.

a)

Yes

b)

No

26.

What type of diarrhea is typically characterized by feeding of non-absorbable or poorly absorbable food? Example: Feeding calves milk replacer, which does not form curds in the abomasum and speeds rate at which it enters the intestines.

a)

Secretory

b)

Malabsorptive

c)

Osmotic

d)

Septic

27.

Sodium is transported ______ its chemical and electrical gradient at the apical membrane and _______ its chemical and electrical gradient at the basolateral membrane.

a)

Up, down

b)

Up, up

c)

Down, Down

d)

Down, Up

28.

Intracellular Chloride concentrations are ______ than extracellular concentrations.

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

29.

T/F: After water has been absorbed, the luminal K concentration is high enough to promote the bulk of the K to move transcellularly into the blood.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

What cell type is the primary target for Canine Parvo virus?

a)

Paneth cells

b)

Villus absorptive cells

c)

Regenerative stem cells

d)

Secretory crypt cells

31.

The Colon is able to absorb which of the following?

a)

Water

b)

Potassium

c)

Sugars

d)

Amino Acids

e)

Volatile fatty acids

32.

Why would you want to administer opiates to reduce gut motility?

a)

to allow other drugs to reach the pathogen

b)

so the gut won't damage itself from hypermotility

c)

to allow a chance for increased absorption by not flushing lumen contents

33.

What is the purpose of administering hypertonic saline to a dehydrated animal rather than isotonic saline?

a)

The animal truly isn't dehydrated, it just has an ion deficiency

b)

Hypertonic blood steals intracellular water stores to return the blood to a normal volume

c)

It is easier to give a little hypertonic saline rather than a large amount of isotonic saline

d)

The increased ion concentration promoted hydrolysis of compounds to create more water

34.

Why does the presence of oligosaccharides in feed reduce feed intake in neonates?

a)

It sends satiety signals to the satiety center and the animal does not want to eat

b)

oligosaccharides can damage the villus cells and leads to general malabsorption of nutrients

c)

Neonates do not have the microbes in their colon required to break down oligosaccharides

35.

What is the main problem with the avian digestive tract?

a)

They can't grind feed to obtain all the nutrients out of it

b)

Their gut microbes absorb too many nutrients, leaving few for the bird

c)

The rate of passage of feed is too fast, so digestion is poor

d)

The production of uric acid instead of urea is very energy inefficient

36.

Which birds would do not have a Crop?

a)

Pigeons

b)

Owls

c)

Raptors

d)

Chickens

e)

Insectivorous birds

37.

Which of the following is true about the avian proventriculus?

a)

Secretes HCl and digestive enzymes

b)

Epithelium is continually replaces due to the absence of mucus

c)

adenomeres take the place of gastric glands found in mammals

d)

It can act as a storage pouch for species without a Crop

38.

T/F: The ventriculus lumen is lined with a thick layer of keratinized epithelial tissue known as the "pellicle" or "cuticle".

a)

True

b)

False

39.

What is different about Glucose absorption in poultry compared to mammals?

a)

Glucose is transported by facilitated diffusion

b)

Chloride is used as a co-transporter instead of Sodium

c)

Glucose cannot be absorbed at all across the intestines

d)

Paracellular transport is the main method of Glucose absorption

40.

Identify the correct order of structures from orad to aborad.

a)

Proctodaeum, Coprodaeum, Rectum, Urodaeum, Cloaca

b)

Rectum, Proctodaeum, Urodaeum, Coprodaeum, Cloaca

c)

Rectum, Cloaca, Coprodaeum, Urodaeum, Proctodaeum

d)

Rectum, Coprodaeum, Urodaeum, Proctodaeum, Cloaca

41.

T/F: The Bursa of Fabricius is the site of B cell maturation

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Which of the following is a theory about how satiety and feed intake are controlled?

a)

Glucostatic theory

b)

CCK/Ghrelin/Peptide YY theory

c)

Lipostatic theory

d)

Thermostatic theory

e)

Hepatic Oxidation theory

43.

What is the main advantage of gut microbes for ruminants and hindgut fermenters?

a)

Utilization of plant tissue structural carbohydrates

b)

Competitive inhibition of pathogenic microbes

c)

Faster growth rate

44.

T/F: Probiotics is a mixture of normal gut bacteria to promote colonization within the animal

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Can you give Penicillin to rabbits? Why?

a)

Yes, because rabbits have gram positive bacteria and Penicillin targets gram negative bacteria

b)

Yes, because rabbits have gram negative bacteria and Penicillin targets gram positive bacteria

c)

No, because rabbits have gram positive bacteria and Penicillin targets gram positive bacteria

d)

No, because rabbits have gram negative bacteria and Penicillin targets gram negative bacteria

46.

When do you begin to see anaerobic gut microbes?

a)

Mouth/pharynx/esophagus

b)

Stomach

c)

Upper small intestine

d)

lower intestine/colon

47.

T/F: Prebiotics are substances that aim to selectively stimulate the growth and/or activity of lactobacilli or bifidobacteria in the colon.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Changes in gut microbiomes can have varying effects on what?

a)

Obesity

b)

Depression

c)

Stress

d)

Grades on Dr. Goff's exams

e)

Leaky gut

49.

Which is not a Browser

a)

Camelids

b)

Deer

c)

Giraffe

d)

Hippopotamus

50.

What function(s) do the saccules in the Camelid rumen provide?

a)

increased surface area for faster fermentation

b)

enhances mixing during contractions

c)

increase the volume of food that can be ingested

d)

sampling for pathogens by M cells

51.

Which of the following is NOT a ruminant

a)

Kangaroo

b)

Hippopotamus

c)

Koala

d)

Alpaca

52.

Which of the following is NOT a hindgut fermenter

a)

Chinchilla

b)

Elephant

c)

Black Rhinoceros

d)

Dolphin

53.

What is the purpose of accumulation of triglycerides and fat soluble vitamins in shark livers?

a)

Fast energy stores when needed

b)

Buoyancy

c)

High levels of fat metabolism

54.

Salt water fish want to _______ salt across gills, fresh water fish want to _______ salt across its gills.

a)

Absorb, Excrete

b)

Absorb, Absorb

c)

Excrete, Absorb

d)

Excrete, Excrete

55.

Mammary gland are adapted ________ glands and release ________ type secretions.

a)

Sweat, Merocrine

b)

Salivary, Apocrine

c)

Sweat, Apocrine

d)

Salivary, Merocrine

56.

T/F: Oxytocin released due to the suckling reflex causes alveolar cells to secrete proteins and other stuff into the alveolar lumen.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Which association is incorrect?

a)

Mare: 2 teat ducts/teat

b)

Cow: 4 inguinal teats

c)

Sow: 10-14 teats

d)

Queen: 5 pairs of teats

58.

Which association is incorrect?

a)

Thoracic mammary gland: internal thoracic artery

b)

Abdominal mammary glands: phrenicoabdominal artery

c)

Inguinal mammary glands: external pudendal artery

d)

All are correct

59.

T/F: Most nutrients and compounds are transported into the alveolar lumen paracellularly

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Which of the following is true regarding lactogenesis?

a)

Growth of the mammary tissue does not begin until post parturition

b)

Placental lactogen causes mammary gland development in the sow

c)

Milk production is directly linked to number of functional alveoli

d)

Progesterone increases the number of prolactin receptors on alveolar cells

61.

How does bacteria get to a cow's udder to cause mastitis?

a)

bacteria travels through the external pudendal artery to the mammary gland

b)

bacteria travels through the wall of the udder to the mammary gland

c)

bacteria ascends the teat canal into the mammary gland

d)

magic

62.

Why should you give fresh feed to a cow immediately after milking?

a)

positive reinforcement

b)

To keep the cow standing to allow closure of the teat sphincter before laying down

c)

to replenish the cow from all the nutrients lost to the milk

63.

T/F: photoperiod is the #1 driver for most birds to begin reproductive period.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Storage tubules at the uterovaginal junction can store sperm to fertilize eggs for a period of time after insemination. How many days after insemination can the chicken and turkey fertilize eggs, respectively?

a)

7-14, 40

b)

21, 28

c)

21, 21

d)

40, 7-14

65.

In hens, which ovary typically goes on to develop fully?

a)

Right

b)

Left

66.

When is the shell is added to an egg?

a)

Infundibulum

b)

Magnum

c)

Isthmus

d)

nidamental gland

e)

vagina

67.

What stimuli can cause a hen to exhibit brooding behaviors?

a)

prolactin release

b)

decreased feed intake

c)

decreased length of photoperiod

68.

Which association is incorrect?

a)

Oocyte: follicular phase

b)

Corpus luteum: luteal phase

c)

Theca cells: within the follicle

d)

Granulosa cells: acted upon by FSH

69.

T/F: Estrus is a series of temporal transitions that define the female reproductive cycle.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Anestrous is seen in what patterns of the estrous cycle

a)

monoestrous

b)

diestrous

c)

polyestrous

d)

seasonal polyestrous

71.

Which hormone peaks at opposite times than the others during the estrous cycle?

a)

Estrogen

b)

FSH

c)

LH

d)

Progesterone

72.

Which hormones initiate change in gene expression via transmembrane receptors?

a)

Estrogen

b)

FSH

c)

Inhibin

d)

GnRH

e)

PGE-2a

73.

When are the main 4 hormones involved in the estrous cycle (E2, P4, LH, FSH) are at their lowest?

a)

At ovulation and several days after

b)

Mid-proestrus

c)

late metestrus

d)

early estrus

74.

Which of the following needs to happen for ovulation to occur?

a)

antrum completely encapsulates the ovum

b)

one follicle within the cohort exerts a dominant effect on the others

c)

Increased LH release from anterior pituitary

d)

Increased E2 production from the follicle

75.

Which hormone is inhibited the strongest by Inhibin?

a)

Estrogen

b)

FSH

c)

LH

d)

GnRH

76.

Identify the incorrect feedback mechanism of the follicular phase.

a)

GnRH promotes LH and FSH from the anterior pituitary

b)

E2 promotes GnRH release from the hypothalamus

c)

E2 promotes its own sythesis at the follicle (theca cell)

d)

Inhibin prevents FSH release from anterior pituitary

77.

What are the two subphases of the luteal phase?

a)

Diestrus

b)

Proestrus

c)

Estrus

d)

Metestrus

78.

What is the order of progression for the luteal phase?

a)

Corpus Hemorhagicum, Corpus Luteum, Corpus Albicans

b)

Corpus Albicans, Corpus Hemorhagicum, Corpus Luteum

c)

Corpus Luteum, Corpus Hemorhagicum, Corpus Albicans

79.

How does oxytocin and PGF-2a transport back and forth from the ovary to the uterus?

a)

Paracrine action

b)

Nervous action

c)

Counter current exchange

80.

Which of the following is not a feedback mechanism of the luteal phase?

a)

P4 prevents GnRH release at the hypothalamus

b)

P4 prevents GnRH activity at the anterior pituitary

c)

P4 prevents oxytocin synthesis in the endometrium

d)

Oxytocin stimulates PGF-2a synthesis in the endometrium

e)

PGF-2a stimulates oxytocin release from the CL

81.

T/F: animals are sensitive to PGF-2a day 0 to day 5 post-estrus.

a)

True

b)

False