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Test Question Bank

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 49-year-old man presents to your office with weak urinary stream and incomplete emptying. What is the most appropriate initial test?

a)

Retrograde urethrogram

b)

Cystoscopy

c)

Uroflowmetry

d)

Urodynamics testing

2.

Which of the following injectable agents is recommended by the AUA Guidelines in the management of priapism?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Dopamine

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

Phenylephrine

3.

How soon after diagnosis should confirmatory biopsy be performed while on AS?

a)

Before 6 months

b)

Before 1 year

c)

12-24 months

d)

After 2 years

4.

Which of the following renal masses is most amenable to treatment with percutaneous cryoablation?

a)

4.2-cm posterior, lower pole, solid left renal mass, >50% exophytic

b)

2.7-cm anterior interpolar right renal mass, approximately 0.8 cm from the right renal vein

c)

2.8-cm lower pole left renal mass, ~70% exophytic, closely abutting descending colon

d)

2.8-cm upper pole renal mass, posterior, >50% exophytic

5.

In which of the following situations should renal mass biopsy NOT be strongly considered prior to intervention?

a)

77-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer who presents with a new 2.6-cm left renal lesion

b)

51-year-old healthy man with a 3.7-cm left renal mass with negative staging

c)

64-year-old hypertensive man with a 13-cm left renal mass, periaortic lymphadenopathy, and numerous pulmonary nodules measuring up to 1.1 cm

6.

A 65-year-old patient with a 4.5-cm right renal mass undergoes a robotic-assisted laparoscopic partial nephrectomy. Pathology reveals pT1b clear cell renal cell carcinoma, grade 2, with a focally positive microscopic margin at the renal parenchyma. In which risk category should this patient be classified for follow-up?

a)

Low risk

b)

Intermediate risk

c)

High risk

d)

Very high risk

7.

A 58-year-old man with advanced colorectal cancer undergoing chemotherapy is found to have new left hydronephrosis on abdominal ultrasound. He reports vague left flank discomfort for several weeks. The serum creatinine is 1.2 mg/dL. The next step is

a)

Renal ultrasound with Doppler

b)

Abdominal-pelvic CT scan without and with IV contrast

c)

Diuretic renal scintigraphy

d)

Abdominal-pelvic MRI

8.

A 45-year-old patient without comorbidities is set to undergo PCNL for a 2-cm lower pole stone. During the preoperative evaluation, she is found to have a positive urine culture. Current evidence from RCTs suggests she should undergo which of the following regimens prior to PCNL to reduce risk of sepsis?

a)

Single preoperative dose

b)

3-Day preoperative regimen + 7-day postoperative regimen

c)

3-Day preoperative regimen

d)

7-Day preoperative regimen

9.

Based on current evidence, which of the following conditions is not a direct risk factor for infectious complications after URS?

a)

Old age

b)

Ischemic heart disease

c)

Diabetes

d)

Smoking

10.

The perioperative intravesical therapy best suited for the management of low grade Ta NMIBC is

a)

Mitomycin C

b)

Gemcitabine

c)

BCG

d)

Valrubicin

11.

The goal of active surveillance in NMIBC is to

a)

Decrease cancer specific mortality

b)

Avoid or delay the morbidity of treatment while still providing the opportunity for cure

c)

Decrease the incidence of cancer progression

d)

Aid in risk stratification of patients with IR disease

12.

Low testosterone is defined by the AUA guidelines as two early morning serum total T levels below

a)

400 ng/dL

b)

350 ng/dL

c)

300 ng/dL

d)

250 ng/dL

13.

Why should PSA levels be interpreted in the context of simultaneous testosterone (T) levels?

a)

PSA can be falsely elevated in the setting of supratherapeutic serum T levels

b)

PSA production can be reduced in the setting of low serum T levels

c)

PSA can be falsely low in the setting of supratherapeutic serum T levels

d)

PSA production can be falsely elevated in the setting of low serum T levels

14.

According to the product labeling, testosterone therapy is contraindicated in men with:

a)

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

b)

Breast cancer

c)

Sleep apnea

d)

Age older than 70 years

15.

The most common significant complication from bladder outlet surgery after radiation for prostate cancer is:

a)

Urinary incontinence

b)

Bladder stone formation

c)

Urinary Infections

d)

Hematuria

16.

Which of the following is a Food and Drug Administration-approved indication for urethral bulking agent injection?

a)

Postprostatectomy incontinence

b)

SUI after continent, orthotopic diversion

c)

Intrinsic sphincter deficiency in a woman with SUI symptoms

d)

Urge-predominant mixed urinary incontinence

17.

The 15-year prostate cancer mortality after biochemical recurrence following radical prostatectomy is approximately

a)

20%

b)

40%

c)

60%

d)

80%

18.

Eight years after radical prostatectomy for Gleason 3+4 pT2N0R0 prostate cancer, a 78-year-old man with coronary artery disease and insulin dependent diabetes mellitus has a PSA increase to 0.30 ng/mL with a PSA doubling time of 36 months. The next step is

a)

Repeat PSA in 3 months

b)

PSMA-PET/CT

c)

Salvage radiation therapy with androgen deprivation

d)

Salvage androgen deprivation therapy alone

19.

A 63-year-old man undergoes low-dose brachytherapy for Gleason 3+4 cT1c prostate cancer with a pre-treatment PSA of 4 ng/mL. PSA nadir 9 months after completing treatment is 0.4 ng/mL. His PSA increases to 1.6 ng/mL over the subsequent 24 months, and then declines to 1.0 ng/mL in the following 6 months. The next step is

a)

Repeat PSA in 3 months

b)

Prostate MRI

c)

PSMA-PET/CT scan

d)

DRE in 3 months

20.

A urologist is discussing brachytherapy treatment for a 55-year-old patient with localized intermediate-risk prostate cancer. He is an active marathoner and eats a healthy plant-based diet. He is able to have penetrative intercourse 3 times a week without medication and gets nighttime erections. Which of the following factors is associated with preservation of erectile function after brachytherapy?

a)

Healthy plant-based diet

b)

Nocturnal erections

c)

Vigorous daily exercise

d)

Absence of lower urinary tract symptom

21.

A 73-year-old African American man with hypertension, diabetes, congestive heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents to the urologist’s office for routine follow up. He has had annual PSA screening for 10 years and his last PSA was stable at 3.2 ng/mL 1 year ago. He inquires about PSA testing for this visit. Using the Lee Index calculator, his overall 10-year mortality risk is 70%-82%. Which of the following is the appropriate recommendation for this patient?

a)

Discontinue PSA screening

b)

Continue PSA screening annually until age 75

c)

Obtain a prostate MRI and calculate PSA density

d)

Transrectal ultrasound-guided prostate biopsy

22.

Risk factors that increase risk for prostate cancer and therefore may be used to modify a patient’s approach to prostate cancer screening include significant family history of prostate cancer, Black race, and

a)

Personal history of testicular cancer

b)

History of exposure to aniline dyes

c)

Enlarged prostate on digital rectal exam

d)

Known BRCA2 germline mutation

23.

A 59-year-old patient is referred to the urologist’s office for evaluation of a prostate nodule on DRE. His PSA is 2.1 ng/mL and on DRE the urologist notes a concerning, firm, nontender, 1 cm nodule on the right side of the prostate. The patient has past medical history of hypertension, and his father was diagnosed with prostate cancer at age 82. Which of the following is the appropriate next step in management?

a)

Referral to genetic counselor for germline genetic testing

b)

Repeat PSA in 2-4 years

c)

Proceed with prostate biopsy

d)

Reassure the patient that nodules on the prostate are common and most often benign

24.

A 32-year-old man and his wife have been trying to conceive for 2 years and have not achieved a pregnancy. Her workup is normal. His physical exam is notable for 18 cc testes bilaterally, normal epididymides, palpable vas deferens, and no varicocele. His semen analysis (SA) shows volume 2 mL, concentration of 10 million/mL, and motility 80%. Scrotal US reveals a varicocele. You recommend

a)

Timed intercourse

b)

Serum testosterone level

c)

Varicocele ligation

d)

Intrauterine insemination

25.

In a patient presenting with azoospermia, which of the following findings is most suggestive of nonobstructive azoospermia?

a)

Total testosterone 580 ng/dL, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 3.4 mIU/mL, and longitudinal testicular axis 5.2 cm

b)

Total testosterone 125 ng/dL, FSH 15.8 mIU/mL, and longitudinal testicular axis 2.5 cm

c)

Total testosterone 350 ng/dL, FSH 6.8 mIU/mL, and longitudinal testicular axis 4.9 cm

d)

Total testosterone 250 ng/dL, FSH 0.5 mIU/mL, and longitudinal testicular axis 3.8 cm

26.

A 45-year-old patient 11 years post T10 spinal injury is on a CIC protocol. After an episode of gross hematuria, CT urogram and cystoscopy are normal. He inquires about the need for surveillance cystoscopy on CIC. How do you counsel him regarding the use of surveillance cystoscopy according to the 2021 AUA/SUFU NLUTD guidelines?

a)

Yearly

b)

Every 3 months

c)

Every 6 months

d)

only if symptoms change or recurrent episodes of gross hematuria

27.

A 64-year-old female with MS presents with urinary frequency and a history of 4 culture-confirmed UTIs in the past year. She has normal renal function, and a PVR of 90 mL. A renal ultrasound is normal and UDS shows detrusor overactivity, normal compliance, and no VUR or detrusor external sphincter dyssynergia. Based on the 2021 AUA/ SUFU NLUTD guidelines, what is the recommended timing of repeat of upper tract imaging and urodynamics?

a)

Repeat upper tract imaging every 1-2 years, repeat urodynamics only if changes in symptoms or decline in renal function

b)

Repeat upper tract imaging annually, repeat urodynamics is recommended at a clinician-determined interval

c)

Repeat upper tract imaging is not recommended, repeat urodynamics is not recommended

d)

Repeat upper tact imaging is not recommend, repeat urodynamics only if changes in symptoms or decline in renal function

28.

A 48-year-old female with MS presents with urinary frequency and urgency. Her labs and renal US are normal with 150 mL PVR. Video urodynamics reveals DO, normal compliance, no VUR, and normal storage pressures. After treatment with anticholinergics, she improves. Six years later, she returns with worsening urge incontinence and 3 culture-proven UTIs and PVR of 250 cc. Labs and upper tract imaging are normal. What is the next best step?

a)

Continue routine surveillance

b)

Add beta 3 agonist

c)

Cystoscopy

d)

Urodynamics

29.

A 37-year-old patient develops NLUTD with detrusor hypocontractility after low anterior resection for rectal cancer. Based on the 2021 AUA/SUFU NLUTD guidelines, antibiotic prophylaxis could be considered if he

a)

Has an indwelling catheter with recurrent UTIs

b)

Performs CIC and with recurrent UTIs

c)

Performs CIC with renal calculi

d)

Has an indwelling catheter with chronic asymptomatic bacteriuria

30.

A 67-year-old male with hypertension and alcoholic cirrhosis presents with a 3-day history of worsening scrotal pain with associated swelling and subjective fevers. He is febrile, blood pressure 105/70, tachycardic, and the glucose is 405. The scrotum is extremely tender, erythematous, and edematous. Bilateral testes are palpable, with fluctuation on the right scrotal wall. There are no skin lesions or crepitus. After administering IV fluids, what is the best next step?

a)

Doppler US

b)

Urgent CT scan

c)

Broad-spectrum antibiotics and urgent CT scan

d)

Broad-spectrum antibiotics and urgent surgical exploration

31.

A 15-year-old boy presents with left testicular pain, which started yesterday morning and is worsening. It is as a dull ache at the top of his left testicle that is worse with movement. He was recently hit in the scrotum with a baseball 6 days ago. He had pain right after the impact, but it resolved spontaneously. He is sexually active and sometimes uses condoms. He denies a history of hematuria, dysuria, or urethral discharge. The scrotum is mildly edematous, and the left testis is mildly tender to palpation with a nontender right testis. Urinalysis is normal. On US, there is bilateral flow and left testicular edema without masses.

a)

Traumatic epididymitis. Rest, ibuprofen orally 200 mg as needed, and scrotal support.

b)

Testicular torsion. Referral to an emergency department for an urgent scrotal US

c)

Orchitis

d)

Scrotal Hematoma

32.

A 34-year-old female presents with an incidentally found 5-cm AML in the lower pole of her right kidney discovered on a CT scan for severe abdominal pain that has since resolved. She is seeking to become pregnant, and she and her partner have been working with an infertility specialist who has suggested they should proceed with testicular sperm extraction and in vitro fertilization due to male infertility factors. What is the best recommendation for her?

a)

Encourage patient to proceed with infertility treatments, and no further follow-up is needed

b)

Serial US surveillance every 3 months during pregnancy

c)

Delay first round of in vitro fertilization and undergo interventional radiology selective arterial embolization

d)

Robotic partial nephrectomy in second trimester of pregnancy if there is greater than 2 cm of growth of the AML on monthly US

33.

Ultrasound performs suboptimally on all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Diagnosis of pyelonephritis

b)

Establishment of initial stone burden

c)

Degree of dilatation of the collecting system

d)

Characterization of renal masses

e)

Evaluation of renal trauma

34.

Which of the following statements about staging of urothelial carcinoma in cystectomy specimens is TRUE?

a)

For urothelial carcinoma that involves prostatic stroma, the stage depends on the mechanism of invasion.

b)

All non-muscle invasive urothelial carcinomas are stage pTis.

c)

The presence of lymphnode invasion impacts stage.

d)

The depth of invasion into muscularis propria does not impact stage.

e)

For staging tumor that invades perivesical adipose tissue, the stage is based on histologic assessment of invasion only

35.

Penile squamous cell carcinomas most commonly involve which of the following?

a)

Foreskin

b)

Glans

c)

Shaft

d)

Scrotum

e)

Coronal sulcus

36.

Which of the following antibiotics is NOT a first-line agent recommended by the Infectious Diseases Society of America (IDSA) for the management of acute uncomplicated cystitis?

a)

Nitrofurantoin

b)

Ciprofloxacin

c)

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

d)

Fosfomycin

37.

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism to improve endogenous testosterone levels?

a)

hCG

b)

Anastrozole (Arimidex)

c)

Weight loss

d)

Oral testosterone undecanoate

e)

Clomiphene citrate

38.

In a 60-year-old man with a 2.5-cm solid, enhancing renal mass and normal laboratory studies, the acceptable next step in management is which of the following?

a)

Renal mass biopsy

b)

Active surveillance

c)

Open partial nephrectomy

d)

Robotic partial nephrectomy

39.

Based on the literature, the risk of metastatic progression for small renal masses managed with active surveillance is approximately which of the following?

a)

0%

b)

1 - 2%

c)

5 - 10%

d)

10 - 15%

e)

15%

40.

The Pelvic Organ Prolapse Quantification (POP-Q) System is which of the following?

a)

A measure of a patient’s bother from her pelvic organ prolapse

b)

A quality-of-life measure that grades the impact prolapse has on overall health

c)

A measurement system that grades prolapse in 4 categories: grades 1 - 4

d)

A site-specific system for measuring, quantifying, and staging pelvic support in women

41.

Bladder outlet obstruction (BOO) on urodynamic test is confirmed by which of the following?

a)

Low voiding pressure and low flow

b)

High voiding pressure and low flow

c)

High voiding pressure and high flow

d)

Low voiding pressure and high flow

e)

High voiding pressure and normal flow

42.

PDE-5Is show the best improvement of symptoms when combined with what other medication class?

a)

DDAVP

b)

Alpha blocker

c)

5-Alpha-reductase inhibitor

d)

β3 agonist

43.

What type of lower urinary tract symptom is most improved with desmopressin?

a)

Obstructive

b)

Storage

c)

Irritative

d)

Nocturia

44.

The APP is ordering a plain abdominal radiography of the kidneys, ureter, bladder (KUB) for a patient being seen in the ER. The patient is complaining of left lower abdominal pain, hematuria and some nausea. Which statement is correct?

a)

The patient will have the scout film taken in a standing position

b)

The radiograph captures images from the level of L-1 to the symphysis pubis

c)

A suspected calcification may be obscured by gas and fecal materia

d)

This study will identify a cystine stone

45.

The APP is placing a catheter in a male with an enlarged prostate. Which statement is correct?

a)

When passing a coude catheter, the curved tip should be angled down and after passing through the prostatic urethra it whould be rotated so that the angle is up.

b)

When using a coude catheter the curved tip should be angled up.

c)

Prior to the catheterization, the penis should be stretched into a horizontal position to eliminate the pnedulous curvature of the penis.

d)

In an uncircumcised male, the foreskin should not be retracted during the catheterization because it could cause paraphimosis.

46.

49. Mark Spindle has been scheduled for an inpatient cystoscopy and bladder biopsy. A new surgical technician is being orientated to the procedure. She overhears the MD talking to the patient about “trabeculations” in the bladder. The MD performed a TURBT (transurethral resection of the bladder tumor). The pathology confirms papillary urothelial. What does the term “trabeculations” in the bladder most likely refer to?

a)

Thickening of the bladder wall due to muscle hypertrophy

b)

Presence of bladder stones

c)

Formation of bladder diverticula

d)

Infection of the bladder lining

47.

A patient with bladder cancer, Stage 2, is scheduled for a follow up visit with the APP in 1 week. The APP would recommend:

a)

Radical cystectomy and urinary diversion

b)

External beam radiation for 36 treatments

c)

1 dose of intravesical Mitomycin and repeat TURBT in 3 weeks

d)

A 6 week course of intravesical BCG, followed by a repeat TURBT

48.

A 60 year old male with a 30 pack year history of tobacco usage is seen by the APP in clinic with hematuria and right flank pain. A CT Urogram identified a Bosniak IIF renal cyst in the right kidney. Based on your understanding of the Bosniak Classification, your plan is:

a)

Observe with a 3 month follow-up imaging study

b)

High suspicion for cancer. Refer to the urologist in your practice for surgical options

c)

Observe only. This is a benign condition. No follow up is needed unless symptoms develop.

d)

Probable metastatic disease. Not amenable to a nephrectomy

49.

The APP is doing preoperative teaching for the patient undergoing a continent cutaneous diversion. Contraindications to this procedure include a patient with:

a)

Urinary incontinence

b)

A solitary kidney

c)

A history of UTIs

d)

Crohn’s disease

50.

The APP is called into the ER to see a patient for paraphimosis. The patient needs immediate treatment. Options for reducing the paraphimosis include:

a)

Manual reduction of the foreskin

b)

Application of ice to reduce swelling

c)

Dorsal slit procedure

d)

All of the above

51.

A 60 year old diabetic female underwent a 12 week session of biofeedback and electrical stimulation. She had successful results for 7 months but recently is noting an increase in urgency and urge incontinence episodes. She has returned to your clinic and is seeking an alternate therapy. You consider the option of PTNS therapy. You first review the contraindications for this therapy. Contraindications include:

a)

A patient with a pacemaker or other implantable defibrillator.

b)

Diabetic patients because of their risk for perhiprehal neuropathy which would make this therapy ineffective.

c)

Patients older than 75 due to decreased circulation in the lower extremities.

d)

A patient with unilateral below the knee amputee because the therapy requires rotation of the needle placement sites in both legs to optimize the sacral plexus nerves.

52.

During the evaluation of a patient with voiding dysfunction, there is a log rhythm that often begins with simple lab tests including urinalysis, urine cultures, complete blood cell count and a metabolic panel. Procedures such as measuring the postvoid residuals (PVR), an uroflow and an urodynamics are also included. Which of the following is NOT a simple lab test?

a)

Urinalysis

b)

Urine cultures

c)

Complete blood cell count

d)

Urodynamics

53.

Mr. Parker a 78-year-old male was seen today for a urodynamic study. After the AP reviewed this study, the AP noted uninhibited detrusor contractions with leaking of urine. Which is true about the best next course of action?

a)

Plan should be develop that involves bladder management strategies including changes in voiding patterns, fluid and dietary changes and pharmacotherapy.

b)

The AP should simply schedule a repeat urodynamics study in 1 month.

c)

Pharmacotherapy, including anticholinergics is not recommended in this age group because of the possibility for increasing confusion and dementia.

d)

Surgical options including TURP (Transurethral resection of the prostate), are the single best option.

54.

A 60-year-old male was started on finasteride (Proscar for BPH). You are asked to review the medication with the patient. Which of these answers is correct?

a)

This medication improves libido

b)

This medication can lower the total PSA by 50%

c)

This medication can improve male erections

d)

This medication is given IM every 2 weeks

55.

A 26-year-old female presents to your office with acute arthralgias, myalgia, nausea, vomiting and a fever of 102.2 F. Her vital signs are as follows: HR 120, BP 100/60, RR 14, Temp 102.2° F, oral. She has tenderness when the ABP taps over her left flank. Her urinalysis shows numerous WBC casts and is leukocyte esterase positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment plan for this patient?

a)

Outpatient treatment: Urine culture, prescribed nitrofurantoin 1 tablet p.o. b.i.d. for 14 days and encourage oral hydration, follow-up in 1 week.

b)

Outpatient treatment: Bactrim p.o. b.i.d. for 3 days, follow-up in 3 days. No cultures are necessary at this point.

c)

Inpatient treatment: Urine culture and blood cultures, Keflex 250 mg p.o. b.i.d., IV hydration.

d)

Inpatient treatment: Urine and blood cultures, ciprofloxacin IV 500 mg b.i.d., IV hydration.

56.

Because this urologic condition (prostatitis) affects such a significant portion of males, it is important for the APP to be familiar with this topic. This urologic condition would be tested under the category of “infections”. How is prostatitis tested and treated?

a)

Do a prostatic massage to obtain cultures of prostatic fluid

b)

Send the patient home with a 7 day prescription of nitrofurantoin

c)

Place a urethral catheter to obtain a sterile urine culture

d)

Order a CBC, blood cultures and plan for hospital admission

57.

Mr. Woodright was seen by the APP in clinic and was diagnosed with epididymitis. During the physical exam, the NP palpated the unaffected side 1st. Expected findings of epididymitis could include which of the following?

a)

Twisting of the spermatic cord

b)

Small tender lumps, separate from the testes

c)

A large cystic mass that does not transilluminate

d)

A large cystic mass that transilluminates

58.

The emergency room APP is seeing the patient diagnosed with testicular torsion. As the APP is developing their plan of care they are aware that:

a)

Testicular tissue ischemia and possible necrosis occurs about 10 hours after the initial onset of the torsion

b)

Manual detorsion should always be attempted before scheduling a surgical procedure

c)

Manual detorsion should only be attempted if it does not delay the timing of the surgical scrotal exploration

d)

The gold standard surgical procedure for testicular torsion is an orchiectomy

59.

Benign prostatic hyperplasia effects about 50% of men between the ages of 51 and 60 and up to 90% of men older than 80. It is considered to be a disease of aging because symptoms typically began around age 50-60. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a benign enlargement of the prostate gland that can result in bladder outlet obstruction and voiding difficulty. As the prostate and largest, the gland presses against and pinches the urethra and may grow up into the bladder. This can result in the bladder's inability to completely empty. Which of the following is considered to be the “gold standard” treatment for BPH?

a)

Watchful waiting is most recommended until urinary retention is noted

b)

5 alpha reductase inhibitors have shown benefit in the treatment of BPH

c)

Alpha adrenergic blocking agents should be initiated for primary therapy

d)

Surgeries considered to result in the best improvement in symptoms, with TURP being the most preferred

60.

Sepsis after PCNL best correlates with:

a)

Preoperative urine culture

b)

Stone culture

c)

Leukocytosis

61.

Which of the following pulse sequences is the MOST important for detecting and characterizing prostate cancers in the peripheral zone?

a)

A. T1-weighted sequence

b)

B. T2-weighted sequence

c)

C. Diffusion-weighted sequence

d)

D. Contrast-enhanced dynamic sequence

62.

Which of the following newly accepted renal cell carcinomas (RCC) is clinically aggressive?

a)

A. Clear cell papillary renal cell carcinoma

b)

Tubulocystic renal cell carcinoma

c)

Mucinous tubular and spindle cell carcinoma

d)

Hereditary leiomyomatosis and renal cell carcinoma (HLRCC)-associated renal cell carcinoma

63.

Which of the following antibiotics is NOT a first-line agent recommended by the Infectious Diseases Society of America (IDSA) for the management of acute uncomplicated cystitis?

a)

Nitrofurantoin

b)

Ciprofloxacin

c)

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

d)

Fosfomycin

64.

Which of the following is an appropriate indication for a catheter?

a)

Morbid obesity

b)

Dementia

c)

Urinary retention

d)

Family request

65.

Hunner lesion disease (HLD) is best treated with which of the following?

a)

Pentosan polysulfate

b)

Intravesical lidocaine or dimethyl sulfoxide therapy

c)

Partial cystectomy

d)

Fulguration or local steroid injection

66.

Which of the following symptoms common to patients diagnosed with interstitial cystitis is also present in many men with chronic pelvic pain?

a)

Hematuria

b)

Pain with urination

c)

Pain with bladder filling

d)

PTSD

67.

Shared decision making is justified in the modern management of erectile dysfunction (ED) because of which of the following?

a)

Availability of etiology-specific diagnostic testing

b)

Availability of increasingly invasive therapies

c)

Central role of the clinician in directing proper treatment

d)

Acceptance of treatment preferences by patient and partner

68.

A 54-year-old male with a known history of a bulbar urethral stricture (never treated) presents to the office with bothersome, worsening slowing urinary flow, straining to void, and feeling of incomplete emptying. Urinalysis is normal. Peak flow is 3 m/sec. Voided volume is 200 ml. Post void residual is 175 ml. The next step should be which of the following?

a)

Urethroplasty

b)

Cystoscopy and dilation in the office

c)

Retrograde urethrogram

d)

Follow-up in 3 months with a repeat uroflow and post void residual

69.

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a)

A fresh post-vasectomy semen sample that shows rare, non-motile sperm is considered sterile.

b)

The method with the lowest recurrence rate for hydrocele repair is the plication procedure.

c)

Chronic orchalgia is easily remediable by a simple surgery.

d)

. The female homologue to the seminal vesicles is the Bartholin’s glands.

70.

A 26-year-old woman has a pelvic fracture, collapsed lung, and a severe closed head injury following an automobile accident. A retrograde cystogram reveals an extraperitoneal bladder rupture. The next step in management is which of the following?

a)

Catheter drainage

b)

Immediate surgical repair

c)

Diagnostic peritoneal lavage

d)

bdominal and pelvic CT scan

71.

In a 60-year-old man with a 2.5-cm solid, enhancing renal mass and normal laboratory studies, the acceptable next step in management is which of the following?

a)

Active surveillance

b)

Open partial nephrectomy

c)

Robotic partial nephrectomy

d)

All of the above

72.

A 65-year-old woman presents with bothersome stress urinary incontinence (SUI) that negatively impacts her life (cannot exercise due to SUI) even after pelvic floor physical therapy. She has mild overactive bladder (OAB) symptoms, which are not bothersome. She is otherwise healthy without other medical problems and no prior surgeries. The pelvic exam showed no prolapse and a positive cough stress test. The step for this patient is which of the following?

a)

Midurethral sling

b)

Urodynamics

c)

Voiding diary

d)

Anticholinergics

e)

Beta3-agonists

73.

A man with high volume stress urinary incontinence following salvage radical prostatectomy, the preferred surgical approach is which of the following?

a)

Artificial urinary sphincter

b)

Retroluminal male sling

c)

Quadratic male sling

d)

Periurethral injection of bulking agent

74.

When compared to intravesical mitomycin C, gemcitabine is which of the following?

a)

Associated with less bladder toxicity

b)

Less costly

c)

More readily available

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

75.

Compared to open surgery, robot-assisted radical cystectomy (RARC) and urinary diversion is associated with which of the following?

a)

Fewer postoperative complications

b)

Lower costs

c)

Improved functional outcomes

d)

Lower intraoperative blood loss

e)

Less operating time

76.

A 65-year-old female with cT2 muscle-invasive urothelial carcinoma with focal squamous differentiation and diffuse carcinoma in situ (CIS), no hydronephrosis, and post status transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT). Which of the following tumor-related factor makes this patient NOT ideal for trimodality bladder-sparing therapy?

a)

cT2

b)

Focal squamous differentiation

c)

Diffuse CIS

d)

Lack of hydronephrosis

77.

The best medical therapy to improve lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) secondary for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is which of the following?

a)

Alpha blocker

b)

5-alpha reductase inhibitor

c)

Beta 3 agonist

d)

Alpha blocker + 5-alpha reductase inhibitor

78.

Many technologies for surgical management of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) included size parameters and morphology criteria in their pivotal studies. As understanding prostate anatomy and morphology can impact treatment options, Guideline Statement 5 encourages clinicians to use any one of the following in their work-up EXCEPT:

a)

Existing cross-sectional imaging

b)

Transrectal ultrasound

c)

Digital rectal exam

d)

Cystoscopy

e)

Transabdominal ultrasound

79.

Prostate cancer screening received a “D” recommendation from United States Preventive Services Taskforce (USPSTF) in 2012, discouraging prostate cancer screening because the potential harms

outweighed the benefits. However, in 2018, USPSTF changed its recommendation from grade “D” to grade “C,” suggesting that prostate cancer screening is appropriate for men between the ages of 55 and 69 as a shared decision between the patient and health care provider. The change in recommendation from grade “D” to grade “C” was driven by which of the following?

a)

Common utilization of robotic assisted laparoscopic radical prostatectomy over the last decade, which has resulted in reduced rates of urinary incontinence and erectile dysfunction as compared to open radical prostatectomy.

b)

Utilization of active surveillance for appropriately selected patients, thus minimizing the treatment related side effects.

c)

Utilization of genetic biomarkers that identify clinically significant prostate cancer.

d)

Demand by prostate cancer health care providers who disagree with USPSTF’s recommendation.

80.

The family of inherited genes that increases the risk of developing prostate cancer includes variants in which of the following?

a)

PTEN

b)

p53

c)

RB1

d)

BRCA2

81.

Which of the following was the conclusion of the PROTECT trial “Fifteen-year Outcomes after Monitoring, Surgery, or Radiotherapy for Prostate Cancer”?

a)

A. After 15 years of follow-up, prostate cancer—specific mortality was low in the surgery arm and higher in the radiation and active monitoring arm.

b)

After 15 years of follow-up, prostate cancer—specific mortality was low in the radiation arm and higher in the surgery and active monitoring arm.

c)

After 15 years of follow-up, prostate cancer—specific mortality was low in the surgery and radiation arm but higher in the active monitoring arm.

d)

After 15 years of follow-up, prostate cancer—specific mortality was high regardless of the treatment assigned.

e)

After 15 years of follow-up, prostate cancer—specific mortality was low regardless of the treatment assigned.

82.

The recently published ARTISTIC meta-analysis evaluated contemporary randomized trials of immediate adjuvant post-operative radiation versus observation and early salvage only if the PSA rises to 0.1 or 0.2 and found which of the following?

a)

Adjuvant radiation has better progression-free survival

b)

Salvage radiation has better progression-free survival

c)

Adjuvant radiation has better overall survival

d)

There was no difference observed in progression-free survival between adjuvant and salvage radiation

83.

The management of de novo high-volume metastatic prostate cancer may include any of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Androgen deprivation therapy with LHRH agonist or antagonist

b)

Potent AR pathway inhibitor

c)

Docetaxel chemotherapy

d)

Olaparib

84.

A 4-year-old boy is in a motor vehicle accident. On CT scan his bladder is full and he has not made urine since presentation to the ED. There is blood in the urethral meatus and the chil d is hypotensive. A retrograde urethrogram (RUG) shows complete dissociation between bladder and urethra with large extravasation. The next step is which of the following?

a)

Place Foley catheter

b)

Cystoscopy, with attempt of primary realignment

c)

Placement of suprapubic catheter to drain the bladder

d)

Observation