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WorksheetsLINDEBURG ESAS Terms Compilation PART 1 TO 12
Total questions: 144
Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins
How is the capital recovery factor (A/P,i,n) related to the uniform series sinking fund factor (A/P,i,n)? i is the effective annual rate of return, and n is the number of periods.
(A/P,i,n)= (A/F,i,n)+ i
(A/P,i,n)= (A/F,i,n)- i
(A/P,i,n)= = ((A/P,i,n)/i))
(A/P,i,n)= (((A/P)(i)(n))+n))/n
What is an annuity?
the future worth of a present amount
an annual repayment of a loan
a series of uniform amounts over a period of time
a lump sum at the end of the year
Which of the following expressions is INCORRECT?
(A/F,i,n)-i=(A/P,i,n)
When using net present worth calculations to compare two projects, which of the following could invalidate the calculation?
differences in the magnitudes of the projects
evaluating over different time periods
mutually exclusive projects
non-conventional cash flows
Assuming i= annual rate of return, n= number of years, F= future worth, and P= present worth, what is the future worth of a present amount P?
P(1+i)n
P(1+i)-n
P(1+i)n-1
P(1+i)i
What must two investments with the same present worth and unequal lives have?
Identical salvage values
Different salvage values
Identical equivalent uniform annual cash flows
Different equivalent uniform annual cash flows
What is the formula for a straight-line depreciation rate?
Which of the following is true regarding the minimum attractive rate of return used in judging proposed investments?
It is the same for every organization.
It is larger than the interest rate used to discount expected cash flow from investments.
It is frequently a policy decision made by an organization’s management.
It is not relevant in engineering economy studies.
Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
A nominal rate of 12% per annum compounded quarterly is the same as 12%/4 = 3% quarter.
$1 compounded quarterly at 3% for n yr has a future value of (1.03)4n
Compounding quarterly at a nominal rate of 12%/yr is equivalent to compounding annually at a rate of 12.55%
Effective rate of return in options (A), (B) and (C) is the difference between 12.55% and 12%.
The statement given in options (A), (B) and (C) are correct. Only option (D) is false.
Which of the following situations has a conventional cash flow so that an internal rate of return can be safely calculated and used?
You purchase a house and pay the bank in monthly installments.
You lease a car and pay by the month.
Your company undertakes a mining project in which the land must be reclaimed at the end of the project.
You invest in a safe dividend stock and receive dividends each year.
The economics order quantity (EOQ) is defined as the order that minimizes the inventory cost per unit time. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the basic EOQ model with no shortages?
The demand rate is uniform and constant.
There is a positive cost on each unit inventoried.
The entire reorder quantity is delivered instantaneously.
There is an upper bound on the quantity ordered.
Which of the following events will cause the optimal lot size, given by the classic EOQ model with no shortages, to increase?
A decrease in inventory carrying cost
A decrease in demand
An increase in demand
Either option (A) or (C)
What is a borrower of a particular loan almost always required to do during repayment?
Pay exactly the same amount of interest each payment
Repay the loan over an agreed-upon amount of time
Pay exactly the same amount of principal each payment
Both options (A) and (C)
What is “work in process” classified as?
An asset
a liability
an expense
a revenue
What is the indirect product cost (IPC) spending variance?
The difference between the actual IPC and IPC absorbed
The difference between the actual IPC and IPC volume-adjusted budget
The IPC volume-adjusted budget (fixed + (volume)(variable IPC rate))
The IPC volume-adjusted budget minus the total IPC absorbed
Firm A uses full absorption costing while firm B uses variable product costing. How will the financial statements of these companies differ?
Firm A has a higher cost of goods sold and, therefore, a smaller profit.
Firm A has a higher cost of goods sold, higher inventory value, and higher retained earnings.
Firm A has a smaller cost of goods sold and a larger profit.
Firm A has a smaller cost of goods sold, no change in inventory value and no change in retained earnings.
How is the material purchase price variance defined?
quantity purchased) (actual price) - (quantity purchased) (standard price)
(quantity issued – standard price) (standard price)
(actual price - standard price) (quantity used)
(quantity purchased – quantity used) (actual price)
Which of the following does NOT affect owner’s equity?
Dividends paid
License to start operation
Invested capital
Expense to get license to start operation
Higrow Company is planning to grow 30% during the next fiscal year. What has to increase if Higrow is to achieve their goal?
The ration of sales to total assets
The ratio of total assets to equity
Equity
Any combination of (A), (B) and (C)
Z Corporation is applying for a short-term loan. In reviewing Z Corporation’s financial records, the banker finds a current ratio of 2.0, an acid test ratio of 0.5, and an accounts receivable period of 70d. what should the banker do?
Be concerned that Z Corporation will be unable to meet the payments
Suggest that Z Corporation lower its inventories
Suggest that Z Corporation be more aggressive I collecting on its invoices
Both options (B) and (C)
Companies A and B are identical except for their inventory accounting systems. Company A uses the last-in, first-out convention while company B uses the first-in, first-out convention. How will their financial statements differ in an inflationary environment?
Company A’s profits will be higher and the book value of their inventory will be higher than for company B.
Company A’s profits will be higher and the book value of their inventory will be lower than for company B.
Company B’s profits and inventory book value will be higher than for company A.
Company B’s profits will be higher than A’s, but inventory book value will be lower.
What is the acid test ratio?
The ratio of owner’s equity to total current liabilities
The ratio of all assets to total liabilities
The ratio of current assets (exclusive of inventory) to total current liabilities
The ratio of gross margin to operating, sales, and administrative expenses
Which of the following are NOT units of pressure?
kPa
N/cm3
Bars
Kg/m2
Which of the following is NOT a unit of work?
N-m
Erg
Kg-m2/s2
Dyne
Which of the following is the definition of a joule?
A unit of power
A N-m
A kg-m/s2
A rate of change of energy
Which statement is true for a fluid?
It cannot sustain a shear force.
It cannot sustain a shear force at rest.
It is a liquid only.
It has a very regular molecular structure.
Which of the following is NOT a basic component of motion of a fluid element?
translation
rotation
Angular distortion
twist
Which of the following must be satisfied by the flow of any fluid, real or ideal?
I. Newton’s second law of motion
II. The continuity equation
III. The requirement of a uniform velocity distribution
IV. Newton’s law of viscosity
V. The principle of conservation of energy
I, II, and III
I, II, and IV
I, II, and V
I, II, III, and IV
For a fluid, viscosity is defined as the constant of proportionality between shear stress and what other variable?
Time derivative of pressure
Time derivative of density
Spatial derivative of velocity
Spatial derivative of density
Surface tension has which of the following properties?
I. It has units of force per unit length
II. It exists whenever there is a density discontinuity
III. It is strongly affected by pressure
I only
II only
III only
I and II
A leak from a faucet comes out in separate drops. Which of the following is the main cause of this phenomenon?
gravity
air resistance
viscosity
surface tension
If the shear stress in a fluid varies linearly with the velocity gradient, which of the following describes the fluid?
It is inviscid
It is a perfect gas
It is a Newtonian fluid.
(A) It is at a constant temperature
In order for a shear stress to vary linearly with the velocity gradient, the fluid must be Newtonian.
How are lines of constant pressure in a fluid related to the force field?
They are parallel to the force field.
They are perpendicular to the force field.
They are at a 45ºangle to the force field.
They are perpendicular only to the force of gravity.
Which of the following statements about a streamline is most accurate?
It is a path of a fluid particle.
It is a line normal to the velocity vector everywhere.
It is fixed in space in steady flow.
It is defined for non-uniform flow only
Which of the following describes a streamline?
I. It is a mathematical concept.
II. It cannot be crossed by the flow.
III. It is a line of constant entropy.
I only
II only
I and II
I and III
Under what conditions is mass conserved in fluid flow?
The fluid is baratropic
The flow is isentropic
The flow is adiabatic
It is always conserved
What is the absolute velocity of a real fluid at a surface?
The same as the bulk fluid velocity
The velocity of the surface
zero
proportional to the smoothness of the surface
What is the origin of the energy conservation equation in flow systems?
Newton’s first law of motion
Newton’s second law of motion
the first law of thermodynamics
the second law of thermodynamics
Which of the following is the basis for Bernoulli’s law for fluid flow?
the principle of conservation of mass
the principle of conservation of energy
the continuity equation
the principle of conservation of momentum
Under which of the following conditions is Bernoulli’s equation valid?
all points evaluated must be on the same streamline
the fluid must be incompressible
the fluid must be in viscid
all of the above
Under certain flow conditions, the expression for the first law of thermodynamics for a control volume reduces to Bernoulli’s equation.
Which combination of the following condition is necessary and sufficient to reduce the first law of thermodynamics for a control volume to Bernoulli’s equation?
I. steady flow
II. incompressible fluid
III. no frictional losses of energy
IV. no heat transfer or change in internal
I only
I and II
I and IV
I, II, III and IV
Which of the following ratios represents a physical interpretation of the Reynolds number?
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
The Reynolds number is the ratio of the viscous force to the inertial force.
Steady flows do not change with time at any point.
The Navier-Stokes equation is the equation of motion for the viscous Newtonian fluid.
Bernoulli’s equation only holds on the same streamline.
Which of the following is NOT true regarding the Blasius boundary layer solution?
It is valid only for potential flow.
It is valid for laminar flow.
It is an approximate solution.
It permits one to calculate the skin friction on a flat plate.
From what were the curves of the Moody friction factor diagram for pipe flow determined?
Calculations based on potential flow.
theoretical solutions of the Navier-Stokes equations
experimental results of in viscid fluids
experimental results of in viscous fluids
What is the most nearly the friction factor for flow in a circular pipe where the Reynolds number is 1000?
0.008
0.08
0.06
0.1
For the pipe flow in the laminar region, how is the friction factor related to the Reynolds number?
Which of the following flow meters measure(s) the average fluid velocity rather than a point or local velocity in a pipe?
I only
II only
I and IV
II and V
For fully developed laminar flow of fluids through circular pipes, the average velocity is what fraction of the maximum velocity?
1/8
1/4
1/2
3/4
Which of the following are intensive properties?
I only
IV only
I and II
I, II and III
How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of a pure gaseous compound?
0
1
2
3
Which of the following thermodynamic relations is INCORRECT?
Tds = dU + pdV
Tds = dH - Vdp
U = Q - W
H = U + pV
Which of the following relationships defines enthalpy?
Which of the following is true for water at a reference temperature where enthalpy is zero?
Internal energy is negative
Entropy is nonzero
Specific volume is zero
Vapour pressure is zero
The compressibility factor, z, is used for predicting the behavior of non-ideal gases. How is compressibility factor defined relative to an ideal gas? (subscripts "C" refers to critical value.)
On what plane is Mollier diagram plotted?
p - V
p - T
h - s
s - u
How is the quality, x, of a liquid - vapor mixture defined?
The fraction of the total volume that is saturated vapour
The fraction of the total volume that is saturated liquid
The fraction of the total mass that is saturated vapour
The fraction of the total mass that is saturated liquid
What is the expression for the heat vaporization
hg = enthalpy of the saturated vapor
hf = enthalpy of the saturated liquid
hg + hf
hf - hg
hg - hf
h2g – h2f
The first law of thermodynamics is base on which of the following principles?
conservation of mass
the enthalpy-entropy Relationship
action-reaction
conservation of energy
The general energy equation for an open system involves the following five terms.
I. accumulation of energy
II. net energy transfer by work (standard sign convention)
III. net energy transfer by heat (standard sign convention)
IV. transfer of energy in by mass flow
V. transfer of energy out by mass flow
Using the standard sign conventions, what is the proper arrangement of these term s for the general energy equation satisfying the first law of thermodynamics?
I = -II + III + IV - V
I = II + III + IV + V
I = II + III + IV - V
I = II - III - IV + V
What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible, isometric system?
zero
positive
negative
positive or negative
The expansion of a gas through a plug a t a high pressure results in a temperature rise, while at lower pressures a temperature drop occurs. The Joule-Thompson coefficient, µJ T, is defined as the ratio of the change in temperature to the change in pressure. The temperature at which µJ T changes from positive to negative is called the inversion temperature. When µJ T is negative, which of the following statements is true?
Gases may be liquefied by pressurization.
No liquification is possible.
Only trace liquification is possible
Liquification can be obtained only with a catalyst
How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process?
Adiabatic: heat transfer = 0; isentropic: heat transfer ≠ 0
Adiabatic: heat transfer ≠ 0; isentropic: heat transfer = 0
Adiabatic: reversible: isentropic: not reversible
Both: heat transfer = 0; isentropic: reversible
What is true about the polytropic exponent, n, for a perfect gas undergoing an isobaric process?
n > 0
n < 0
n --> ∞
n = 0
During an adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is true about the change in entropy?
It is always zero
It is always less than zero
It is always greater than zero
It is infinite
For an irreversible process, what is true about the total change in entropy of the system and surroundings?
dS = ∞
dS = 0
dS > 0
dS < 0
For which type of process is the equation dQ= TdS valid?
Irreversible
Isothermal
Reversible
Isobaric
Which of the following is true for any process?
Which of the following thermodynamic cycles is the most efficient?
Brayton
Rankine
Carnot
Combined Brayton-Rankine
The ideal reversible Carnot cycle involves several basic processes. What type of processes are they
all adiabatic
all isentropic
two adiabatic and two isentropic
two isothermal and two isentropic
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a superheated, closed Rankine cycle over an open Rankine cycle?
increased efficiency
increased turbine work output
increased turbine life
increased boiler life
Which of the following statements regarding Rankine cycles is FALSE?
Use of a condensable vapor in the cycle increases the efficiency of the cycle.
The temperatures at which energy is transferred to and from the working liquid are less separated than in a Carnot cycle.
Superheating increases the efficiency of a Rankine cycle.
In practical terms, the susceptibility of the engine materials to corrosion is not a key limitation on the operating efficiency.
Which of the following sets of reversible processes describes an ideal Otto cycle?
Ι. adiabatic compression, constant volume heat addition, adiabatic expansion, constant volume heat rejection
II. isothermal compression, isobaric heat addition, isothermal expansion, isobaric heat rejection
I only
II only
I and II in succession
II and I in succession
The mole is a basic unit of measurement in chemistry. Which of the following is NOT equal to or the same as 1 mol of the substance indicated?
22.4 L of nitrogen (N2) gas at STP
6.02 x 1023 oxygen (O2) molecules
12 g of carbon atoms
16 g of oxygen (O2) molecules
Which one of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP)?
0K and one atmosphere pressure
0F and zero pressure
32F and zero pressure
0C and one atmosphere pressure
Which of the following statements is FALSE for an ideal gas?
The molecules behave as solid spheres of finite radius.
pV = nR*Ttf
Collisions between gas molecules are perfectly elastic and result in no decrease in kinetic energy.
No attractive forces exist between the molecules.
The following statements are made with regard to the boiling point of a liquid. Which statement is FALSE?
A nonvolatile substance having zero vapor pressure in solution (e.g., sugars or salts) has no true boiling point.
The boiling point is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the applied pressure on the liquid.
Combinations of liquids having different boiling points can be separated by slowly raising the temperature to draw off each fraction (i.e., by fractional distillation).
At high elevations, water boils at a lower temperature because of a reduction in the surface tension of the water.
The critical point for a mixture occurs for which of the following cases?
The vapor and liquid exist in a single form.
The liquid has no absorbed gas.
The vapor phase is stable.
The liquid is completely vaporized.
How is “motality” defined?
The number of moles of solute in 1000 g of solvent
The number of moles of solute in 1 L of solution
The number of gram – formula weights of solute per liter
The number of gram – equivalent weights of solute in 1 L of solution
Which of the following postulates does Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom involve?
The electron is an atom has an infinite range of motion allowed to it.
When an atom changes from a low energy state to a high energy state, it emits a quantum of radiation whose energy is equal to the difference in energy between the two states.
In any of its energy states, the electron moves in a circular orbit about the nucleus.
The states of allowed electron motion are those in which the angular momentum of the electron is an integral multiple of H/π.
Which of the following elements and compounds is reactive in its pure form?
sodium (Na)
helium (He)
carbon dioxide (CO2)
hydrochloric acid (HCl)
Two major types of chemical bonds are observed in chemical bonding: ionic and covalent. Which of the following has a bond that is the least ionic in character?
NaCl
CH4
H2
H2O
Which of the following statement is FALSE?
It is not possible for bonds between a pair of atoms to be different (e.g., different bond lengths or bond energies) in different compounds.
The bond length for a pair of atoms is the point of lowest energy.
The electrostatic repulsion between two nuclei increases as the atoms are brought together.
The repulsion between two nuclei increases as their charge increases.
Which of the following statement is FALSE?
For a diatomic molecule, the bond dissociation energy is the change in the enthalpy of the reaction when the diatomic molecule is separated into atoms.
The average bond energy is the approximate energy required to break a bond in any compound in which it occurs.
The energy released when a gaseous molecule is formed from its gaseous atoms can be estimated using average bond energies.
The change in enthalpy is negative when energy is absorbed in the formation of a compound from its elements.
A substance is oxidized when which of the following occurs?
It turns red.
It becomes more negative.
It loses electrons.
It gives off heat.
In order to assign oxidation states in polyatomic molecules, which of the following rules is followed?
The oxidation of all elements in any allotropic form is zero.
The oxidation state of oxygen is always -2
The oxidation state of hydrogen is always +1
All other oxidation states are chosen such that the algebraic sum of the oxidation states for the ion or molecule is zero.
What is the oxidation state of nitrogen in NO3?
- 1
+ 1
+ 3
+ 5
What is the oxidation number of Cr in the dichromate ion (Cr2O7)-2
- 1
0
3
6
Reactions generally proceed faster at higher temperatures because of which of the following?
The molecules collide more frequently.
The activation energy is less.
The molecules are less energetic.
Both options (A) and (B).
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
In general, as reaction products are formed, they react with each other and re-form reactants.
The net rate at which a reaction proceeds from left to right is equal to the forward rate minus the reverse rate.
At equilibrium, the net reaction rate is zero.
The differential rate law is the mathematical expression that shows how the rate of a reaction depends on volume.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
When the temperature is raised, the rate of any reaction is always increased.
In general, when any two compounds are unmixed, a large number of reactions may be possible, but those which proceed the fastest are the ones observed.
It is possible to influence the products of a chemical change by controlling the factors which affect reaction rates.
Heterogeneous reactions are the reactions that take place at the boundary surface between two faces.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
In considering chemical equilibrium, the relative stabilities of products and reactants are important.
In considering chemical equilibrium, the pathway from the initial state to the final state is important.
In treating reaction rates, the rate at which reactants are converted to products is important.
In treating reaction rates, the sequence of physical processes by which reactants are converted to products is important.
The voltage of a galvanic cell does NOT depend on which of the following parameters?
Concentration of solutions
Temperature of solutions
Pressure of solutions
Volume of solutions
Which of the following statements regarding a galvanic cell is FALSE?
A negative value of cell voltage ∆ε means that the reaction in the cell proceeds spontaneously form right to left.
If the standard potential of a cell is zero, a concentration difference alone is sufficient to generate a voltage.
When a current I flows through the voltage difference ∆ε for a time, t, the electrical work performed is (∆ε)It.
The cell voltage, ∆ε, is totally independent of the number of electrons transferred in a given reaction.
Which one of the following statements regarding organic substances is FALSE?
Organic matter is generally stable at very high temperatures.
All organic matter contains carbon.
Organic substances generally do not dissolve in water.
Organic substances generally dissolve in high-concentration acids.
Which one of the following is most likely to prove that a substance is inorganic?
The substance is heated together with copper oxide and the resulting gases are found to have no effect on limestone.
The substance evaporates in room temperature and pressure.
Analysis shows that the substance contains hydrogen.
The substance floats in water.
According to the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, which of the following statements are true?
I. As the electron orbits the proton, it constantly radiates light with a frequency equal to its frequency of revolution.
II. The electron orbits the proton in certain orbits that can be found by assuming that its angular momentum is quantized.
III. Because of the quantization of angular momentum, calculations using the Bohr model and those based in classical physics can never give the same results.
IV. When and electron orbiting a proton changes states to a lower energy level, the frequency of the radiation given off is proportional to the change in energy. This accounts for the hydrogen spectrum.
I and II
II and IV
I, II, and III
II, III, and IV
In an atom such as sodium, there is one electron in the outermost shell (in this case, n = 3). Which of the following statements is true regarding the energy required to excite an electron in the n = 1 shell compared to that required to excite an electron in the n = 2 shell?
It is greater because the electron is closer to the proton and thus the Coulomb attractive force is much stronger.
It is greater because the shell next to it is full. Thus, by the Pauli exclusion principle, it must jump to the first shell that is not full, in this case, the n = 3 shell.
It is greater because an electron must first jump to the n = 3 shell from the n = 2 shell. Then the electron from the n = 1 shell can jump to the n = 2 shell.
It is equal to the energy required to excite an electron in the n = 2 shell because in both cases the electron makes a jump to the next shell.
Which statement about area moments of inertia is FALSE?
The parallel axis theorem is used to calculate moments of inertia about the parallel displaced axis.
The moment of inertia of a large area is equal to the summation of the inertia of the smaller areas within the large area.
The areas closest to the axis of interest contribute most to the moment of inertia.
Which of the following affects most of the electrical and thermal properties of materials?
The atomic weight expressed in grams per gram – atom
The electrons, particularly the outermost ones
The magnitude of electrical charge of the protons
The weight of the atoms
What are valence electrons?
The outer – shell electrons
Electrons with positive charge
The electrons of complete quantum shells
The K – quantum shell electrons
What is the strong bond between hydrogen atoms called?
The ionic bond
The metallic bond
Ionic and metallic bonds
The covalent bond
What are van der Waals forces?
Weak secondary bonds between atoms
Primary bonds between atoms
Forces between electrons and protons
Forces not present in liquids
Compare the metallic iron ate Fe and the ferrous and ferric ions Fe^2+ and Fe^3+ at the same temperature. Which has the smallest atomic radius?
Fe
Fe^2+
Fe^3+
They have the same radii.
Cesium (Cs) and sodium (Na) both have the same valence (+1), yet with chlorine (Cl), cesium has a coordination number of 8 in CsCl, while sodium has a coordination number of only 6 in NaCl. What is main reason for this difference?
The atomic weight of Cs is larger than the weight of Na.
Cs forms covalent bonds in CsCl.
Cs contains more electrons than Na.
Cs is too large to be coordinated by only 6 chloride ions.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
Ceramics are inorganic, non-metallic solids that are processed or used at high temperatures.
Metals are chemical elements that form substances that are opaque, lustrous, and good conductors of heat and electricity.
Oxides, carbides, and nitrides are considered to be within the class of materials known as glasses.
Most metals are strong, ductile and malleable. In general, they are heavier than most other substances.
Which of the following materials is NOT a viscoelastic material?
Plastic
Metal
Rubber
Glass
In molecules of the same composition, what are variations of atomic arrangements known as?
Polymers
Non – crystalline structures
Monomers
Isomers
Which of the following accurately describes differences between crystalline polymers and simple crystals?
I. Crystalline polymers, unlike simple crystals, are made of folded chains of atoms.
II. Crystal size can be increased by raising the crystallization temperature only in polymer.
III. While a simple crystal may be totally crystallized, a polymer can reach only partial crystallization.
I only
II only
III only
I and III
Polymers that favor crystallization are least likely to have which of the following?
An atactic configuration of side groups
Small side groups
Only one repeating unit
Small chain lengths
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
Both copper and aluminum have a face – centered crystal structure.
Both magnesium and zinc have a hexagonal close – packed crystal structure.
Iron can have either a face – centered or a body – centered cubic crystal structure.
Both lead and cadmium have a hexagonal close – packed crystal structure.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
(A)The coordinates of the unique lattice points for a body – centered cubic unit cell are: (0 0 0) and ( ½ ½ ½ )
(A)The coordinates of the unique lattice points for a face – centered cubic unit cell are: ( 0 0 0 ); ( ½ ½ 0 );( ½ 0 ½ ); and ( 0 ½ ½ ).
(A)The coordinates of the unique lattice points for a simple cubic unit cell are: ( 0 0 0 ).
(A)The coordinates of the unique lattice points for a rhombohedral unit cell are: ( ½ ½ ½ ).
Which crystal structure possesses the highest number of close – packed planes and close – packed directions?
Simple cubic
Body – centered cubic
Face – centered cubic
Close – packed hexagonal
What are the most common slip planes for face – centered cubic and body – centered cubic structures, respectively?
Face – centered: ( 1 1 1 ); body – centered: ( 1 1 0 )
Face – centered: ( 1 0 0 ); body – centered: ( 1 1 0 )
Face – centered: ( 1 1 0 ); body – centered: ( 1 1 1 )
Face – centered: ( 1 1 1 ); body – centered: ( 1 0 0 )
Comparing the face – centered cubic lattice with the hexagonal close – packed structure only?
It has the closest packed lattice structure.
Its coordination number is 12.
Its deformation properties are more directional.
Its stacking order is ABCABC.
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding X-ray diffraction?
The geometrical structure factor F(hkl) is the ratio of the amplitude of the X-ray reflected from a plane in a crystal to the amplitude of the X-ray scattered from a single electron.
X-ray diffraction is only useful for studying simpler crystals such as the body – centered cubic structure, rather than more complex crystals like the hexagonal close – packed structure.
X-ray diffraction can be used to determine the grain size of a specimen.
In a crystal structure, what is an interstitial atom?
An extra atom sitting at a non –lattice point
An atom missing at a lattice point
A different element at a lattice point
A line defect
Which of the following is a line defect in a lattice crystal structure?
Tilt boundary
Screw dislocation
Vacancy
Schottky imperfection
Which of the following statements regarding diffusion in a crystal structure is true?
Solid interstitial atoms cannot diffuse through structures that lack vacancies.
It occurs only in alloys, never in pure crystals
It often uses an exchange or vacancy mechanism
It occurs primarily as a result of mechanical work.
Diffusion is the movement of a defect from one point to another.
Which of the following are true about Fick’s first law for diffusion?
I. It is only applicable to gases and liquids, not solids
II. The law states that the flux moves from high to low concentration.
III. J, the flux, may be in units of cm^3/cm^2 s.
I only
II only
III only
II and III
What is the Arrhenius equation for the rate of a thermally activated process? A is the reaction constant, T is the absolute temperature, R is the gas constant, and Q is the activation energy.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
The surface energy of a liquid tends toward a minimum
The surface energy is the work required to create a unit area of additional space
The energy of an interior atom is greater than the energy of an atom on the surface of a liquid
Total surface energy is directly proportional to the surface area
Which of the following best describes the 0.2% offset yield stress?
It is the elastic limit after which a measurable plastic strain has occurred.
It is the stress at which the material plastically strains 0.2%
It is the stress at which the material elastically strains 0.2%
It is 0.2% below the fracture point of the material
Which of the following is true regarding the ductile – to – brittle transition temperature?
I. It is important for structures used in cold environments
II. It is the point at which the size of the shear lip or tearing rim goes to zero
It is the temperature at which 20J of energy causes failure in a charpy v-notch specimen of standard dimensions
I only
I and II
I and III
II and III
Which of the following are true regarding creep?
I. It is used caused by the diffusion of vacancies to edge dislocations, permitting dislocation climb.
II. It involves the plastic deformation of materials at loads below the yield stress.
III. It may involve whole grain sliding.
I only
II only
I and III
I,II and III
Under conditions of very slow deformation and high temperature, it is possible to have plastic flow in a crystal at shear stresses lower than the critical shear stress. What is this phenomenon called?
Slip
Twinning
Creep
Bending
What does Charpy impact test measure?
I. The energy required to break a test sample
II. The strength of a test sample
The ductile to brittle transition temperature of metals
I only
II only
III only
I and III
A shaft made of good quality steel breaks in half due to fatigue. What would the surface of the fracture site look like?
Like a cup and cone
Quite smooth to the unaided eye, with ripples apparent under low – power magnification
Smooth over most of the surface, with tearing at the location fracture
Very jagged and rough
To which of the following can the large discrepancy between the actual and theoretical strengths of metals mainly be attributed?
heat
dislocations
low density
stress direction
The ease with which dislocations are able to move through a crystal under stress accounts for which of the following?
I. Ductility
II. Lower yield strength
III. Hardness
I only
II only
III only
I and II
As the amount of slip increases, additional deformation becomes more difficult and decreases until the plastic flow finally stops. Slip may begin again only if a larger stress is applied. What is the phenomenon known as?
cooling
crowding
strain hardening
twinning
Which word combination best completes the following sentence?
“ Plastic deformation of a single crystal occurs either by ______ or by _______, but _______ is the more common method.”
bending; compression; bending
shearing; compression; compression
slip; twinning; slip
twinning; slip; twinning
Which one of these statements is true for twinning?
It occurs at lower shear stresses than slip
It is the most significant form of plastic deformation
It cannot be caused by impact or thermal treatment
It frequently occurs in hexagonal close- packed structures
Which of the following does NOT produce vacancies , interstitial defects, or impurity defects in a material?
plastic deformation
slow equilibrium cooling
quenching
increasing the temperature (which increases atomic energy)
Which of the following are true statements about the modulus of elasticity, E?
It is the same as the rupture modulus
It is the slope of the stress-strain diagram in the linearly elastic region
It is the ratio of stress to volumetric strain
its values depends only on the temperature of the material
In general, what are the effects of cold working a metal?
increased strength and ductility
increased strength, decreased ductility
decreased strength and ductility
decreased strength, increased ductility
Which of the following does cold working a metal cause?
elongation of grains in the flow direction, an increase in dislocation density, and an overall increase in energy of the metal
elongation of grains in the flow direction, an decrease in dislocation density, and an overall decrease in energy of the metal
elongation of grains in the flow direction, an decrease in dislocation density, and an overall increase in energy of the metal
shortening of grains in the flow direction, an decrease in dislocation density, and an overall decrease in energy of the metal
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
The amount or percentage of cold work cannot be obtained from information about change in the area or thickness of a metal
The process of applying fore to a metal at temperatures below the temperature of crystallization in order to plastically deform the metal is called cold working.
Annealing eliminates most of the defects caused by the cold working of a metal
Annealing reduces the hardness of the metal
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
There is a considerable increase in the hardness and the strength of a cold worked metal
Cold working a metal significantly reduces its ductility
Cold working causes a slight decrease in the density and electrical conductivity of a metal
Cold work decreases the yield point of metal
Which of the following is FALSE?
Grain size is of minor importance in considering the properties of polycrystalline materials
Fine-grained materials usually exhibit greater yield stresses than coarse- grained materials at low temperatures.
At high temperatures, grain boundaries become weak, and sliding occurs.
Grain boundary sliding is the relative movement of two grains by a shear movement of parallel to the grain boundary between them.
Which of the following correctly describes atoms located at grain boundaries?
They are subjected to the same type of interatomic forces that are present in the interior atoms of the crystal.
They are located primarily in highly strained and distorted positions
They have a higher free energy than atoms in the undisturbed part of the crystal lattice
All of the above are correct
What causes the vinyl interiors of automobiles to crack when subjected to prolonged direct sunlight?
the volatilization (evaporation) of plasticizers
repetitive expansion and contraction of the plastic
oxidation of the plastic by sunlight and oxygen
all of the above
Low – density polyethylene undergoes extensive (over 100%) elongation prior to rupture, while polystyrene undergoes only 1-2& elongation. What is the main reason for this difference?
The polyethylene is less done
The large styrene groups in the polystyrene prevent slippage
More cross-linking occurs in the polystyrene
Polyethylene is less crystalline
Which of the following describe(s) the modulus of elasticity of an elastomer?
I. It is directly proportional to the number of cross links in the elastomer
II. Its value increases with temperature
III. It is directly proportional to the number of double bonds in the chemical structure
I only
II only
III only
I and II
