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Semester 2 Earth Science Final Review

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the total force acting on crustal rocks per unit of area?

a)

Stress

b)

Strain

c)

Elastic Deformation

d)

Plastic Deformation

e)

Fault

2.

What is a weak region in the crustal rock where movement of the Earth occurs?

a)

Stress

b)

Strain

c)

Elastic Deformation

d)

Plastic Deformation

e)

Fault

3.

What is the vibrations of the ground produced during an earthquake?

a)

Seismic Wave

b)

Primary Wave

c)

Secondary Wave

d)

Surface Wave

4.

What is a seismic wave that causes rock particles to move perpendicular to the direction of the waves?

a)

Seismic Wave

b)

Primary Wave

c)

Secondary Wave

d)

Surface Wave

5.

What is a seismic wave that squeezes and pushes rocks in the same direction that the wave travels?

a)

Seismic Wave

b)

Primary Wave

c)

Secondary Wave

d)

Surface Wave

6.

What is the slowest traveling seismic wave that moves along Earth’s surface and cause the ground to move sideways and up and down?

a)

Seismic Wave

b)

Primary Wave

c)

Secondary Wave

d)

Surface Wave

7.

What is the point of initial fault rupture of an earthquake ; usually several kilometers below Earth's surface?

a)

Focus

b)

Epicenter

8.

What is the point on Earth's surface directly above the focus initial fault rupture of an earthquake?

a)

Focus

b)

Epicenter

9.

What is the instrument used to measure horizontal or vertical motion during an earthquake?

a)

Seismometer

b)

Seismogram

10.

Which type of fault is shown?

a)

Reverse Fault

b)

Normal Fault

c)

Strike-Slip Fault

11.

Which type of fault is shown?

a)

Reverse Fault

b)

Normal Fault

c)

Strike-Slip Fault

12.

Which type of fault is shown?

a)

Reverse Fault

b)

Normal Fault

c)

Strike-Slip Fault

13.

What can be determined by the distance between seismic waves on a seismogram?

a)

How far away the epicenter is

b)

The type of fault

c)

The depth of the earthquake

d)

Whether the core is liquid

14.

What are the three types of stress?

a)

Compression

b)

Tension

c)

Shear

d)

Primary Waves

e)

Secondary Waves

15.

What are the three types of seismic waves?

a)

Compression

b)

Tension

c)

Surface

d)

Primary

e)

Secondary

16.

What are the three types of faults?

a)

Reverse

b)

Normal

c)

Surface

d)

Tension

e)

Strike-Slip

17.

What is a large ocean wave generated by vertical motions of the seafloor during an earthquake?

a)

Soil Liquefaction

b)

Tsunami

c)

Seismic Gap

18.

What are sections located along faults that are known to be active, but which have not experienced significant earthquakes for a long period of time?

a)

Soil Liquefaction

b)

Tsunami

c)

Seismic Gap

19.

Earthquake intensity depends primarily on the height of

a)

Primary Waves

b)

Secondary Waves

c)

Surface Waves

d)

the fault

20.

As the distance from a quake's epicenter increases,

a)

intensity increases

b)

intensity decreases

c)

magnitude increases

d)

the focus decreases

21.

Maximum earthquake intensity is usually found at the earthquake's

a)

epicenter

b)

shadow zone

c)

seismic gap

d)

focus

22.

In soft earth material seismic waves cause ground motion to be _____.

a)

Amplified

b)

Muted

23.

Upon what two factors is the probability of earthquake occurrence based?

a)

The history of earthquakes in an area

b)

The rate at which strain builds up in the rocks

c)

The design of buildings

d)

The amplitude of the surface waves generated

e)

The size of the fault rupture

24.

The amount of water vapor in the atmosphere at a given location on Earth's surface

a)

Temperature Inversion

b)

Humidity

c)

Saturation

d)

Relative Humidity

25.

Process that occurs when the amount of water vapor in a volume of air has reached the maximum amount possible for that temperature

a)

Temperature Inversion

b)

Humidity

c)

Saturation

d)

Relative Humidity

26.

The amount of water vapor in a volume of air relative to the amount of water vapor needed for that volume of air to reach saturation

a)

Temperature Inversion

b)

Humidity

c)

Saturation

d)

Relative Humidity

27.

Small particle in the atmosphere around which water droplets can form

a)

Condensation Nucleus

b)

Orographic Lifting

c)

Precipitation

d)

Coalescence

28.

Process that occurs when an air mass is forced to rise over a topographic barrier

a)

Condensation Nucleus

b)

Orographic Lifting

c)

Precipitation

d)

Coalescence

29.

Low level clouds that are puffy and lumpy-looking (occur below 2000 meters)

a)

Cumulus

b)

Stratus

c)

Cirrus

30.

Low level cloud that are layered and sheetlike that covers much or all of the sky in a given area (occur below 2000 meters)

a)

Cumulus

b)

Stratus

c)

Cirrus

31.

High level clouds made up of ice crystals and have a wispy, indistinct appearance (occur above 6000 meters)

a)

Cumulus

b)

Stratus

c)

Cirrus

32.

Ozone in Earth's atmosphere is important because it

a)

causes rain to fall

b)

absorbs harmful radiation

c)

absorbs harmful pollution

d)

helps clouds form

33.

Process that occurs when cloud droplets collide and join together to form a larger droplet

a)

Condensation Nucleus

b)

Orographic Lifting

c)

Precipitation

d)

Coalescence

34.

Which layer of the atmosphere contains concentrated ozone

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

35.

Which layer of the atmosphere is just above the stratosphere

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

36.

Which layer of the atmosphere is where weather occurs?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

37.

Which layer of the atmosphere is the outermost layer?

a)

Exosphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

38.

What two factors are clouds classified by?

a)

Altitude at which they form

b)

Shape

c)

Density

d)

Size

e)

Amount of moisture

39.

Dust and sea salt are examples of _____ that aid in the formation of cloud droplets

a)

orographic lifters

b)

pollution

c)

liquid molecules

d)

condensation nuclei

40.

In orographic lifting, clouds form when moist winds

a)

flow over the sea

b)

become drier

c)

encounter mountains

d)

warm up the ground

41.

Temperature in the troposphere ______ as altitude increases

a)

increases

b)

decreases

42.

Temperature in the stratosphere ______ as altitude increases

a)

increases

b)

decreases

43.

Temperature in the mesosphere ______ as altitude increases

a)

increases

b)

decreases

44.

Temperature in the thermosphere ______ as altitude increases

a)

increases

b)

decreases

45.

As temperature decreases, pressure ______.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

46.

As temperature decreases, density ______.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

47.

As temperature increases, density ______.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

48.

How are clouds formed?

a)

convection currents

b)

orographic lifting

c)

convergence

49.

What are short-term variations in atmospheric phenomena that interact and affect the environment and life on Earth?

a)

Weather

b)

Climate

c)

Air Mass

d)

Source Region

50.

What are the long-term average of variations in weather for a particular area?

a)

Weather

b)

Climate

c)

Air Mass

d)

Source Region

51.

What is the large volume of air that has the same characteristics, such as humidity and temperature, as its source region?

a)

Weather

b)

Climate

c)

Air Mass

d)

Source Region

52.

What is the the area over which an air mass forms?

a)

Weather

b)

Climate

c)

Air Mass

d)

Source Region

53.

What is the weather instrument that measures temperature using either the Fahrenheit or Celsius scale?

a)

Thermometer

b)

Barometer

c)

Anemometer

d)

Hygrometer

e)

Radiosonde

54.

What is the weather instrument that measures air pressure?

a)

Thermometer

b)

Barometer

c)

Anemometer

d)

Hygrometer

e)

Radiosonde

55.

What is the weather instrument that measures wind speed?

a)

Thermometer

b)

Barometer

c)

Anemometer

d)

Hygrometer

e)

Radiosonde

56.

What is the weather instrument that measures relative humidity?

a)

Thermometer

b)

Barometer

c)

Anemometer

d)

Hygrometer

e)

Radiosonde

57.

What is the instrument used for gathering data on temperature, pressure, and humidity in the upper-atmosphere?

a)

Thermometer

b)

Barometer

c)

Anemometer

d)

Hygrometer

e)

Radiosonde

58.

High-pressure systems usually are associated with _____.

a)

Fair weather

b)

Clouds

c)

Precipitation

59.

Low-pressure systems usually are associated with _____.

a)

Fair weather

b)

Clouds

c)

Precipitation

60.

A __________ is a narrow region that separates two air masses of different densities.

a)

disturbance

b)

jet stream

c)

trade wind

d)

front

61.

__________ is used to measure the speed of raindrops toward or away from a specific point.

a)

A radiosonde

b)

A celiometer

c)

Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS)

d)

Doppler radar

62.

Where do Maritime air masses form?

a)

Over a body of water

b)

Over land

c)

Warm areas

d)

Cold areas

63.

Where do Continental air masses form?

a)

Over a body of water

b)

Over land

c)

Warm areas

d)

Cold areas

64.

Where do Tropical air masses form?

a)

Over a body of water

b)

Over land

c)

Warm areas

d)

Cold areas

65.

Where do Polar air masses form?

a)

Over a body of water

b)

Over land

c)

Warm areas

d)

Cold areas

66.

Sinking air, caused by the trade winds, creates weak surface winds and is responsible for which landmark on Earth?

a)

Deserts

b)

Rainforests

c)

Mountains

d)

Valleys

67.

Trade winds cause air to be forced upward at the equator and deliver moisture. This combination is responsible for which landmark on Earth?

a)

Deserts

b)

Rainforests

c)

Mountains

d)

Valleys

68.

Which front is created when cold, dense air displaces warm air and forces the warm air up along a steep slope?

a)

Cold Front

b)

Warm Front

c)

Stationary Front

d)

Occluded Front

69.

Which front is created when advancing warm air displaces cold air and develops a gradual boundary slope?

a)

Cold Front

b)

Warm Front

c)

Stationary Front

d)

Occluded Front

70.

Which front is created when two air masses meet, but neither advances and the boundary between them stalls?

a)

Cold Front

b)

Warm Front

c)

Stationary Front

d)

Occluded Front

71.

Which front is created when a cold air mass moves so rapidly that it overtakes a warm front and forces the warm air upward and causes the advancing cold air mass to collide with another cold air mass that was in front of the warm air?

a)

Cold Front

b)

Warm Front

c)

Stationary Front

d)

Occluded Front

72.

What two factors are most important in weather forecasting?

a)

Accuracy of the data

b)

Amount of available data

c)

Source of data

d)

Truthfulness of the weatherman

e)

Farmer's Almanac variables

73.

Which type of forecast is most reliable?

a)

Short-term forecast

b)

Long-term forecast

c)

Digital forecast

d)

Analog forecast

74.

What is the type of thunderstorm in which air rises because of unequal heating of Earth's surface within a single air mass?

a)

Air-Mass Thunderstorm

b)

Mountain Thunderstorm

c)

Sea-Breeze Thunderstorm

d)

Frontal Thunderstorm

75.

What is the type of thunderstorm that occurs when an air mass rises from orographic lifting?

a)

Air-Mass Thunderstorm

b)

Mountain Thunderstorm

c)

Sea-Breeze Thunderstorm

d)

Frontal Thunderstorm

76.

What is the type of thunderstorm that commonly occurs along a coastal area because land and water store and release thermal energy differently?

a)

Air-Mass Thunderstorm

b)

Mountain Thunderstorm

c)

Sea-Breeze Thunderstorm

d)

Frontal Thunderstorm

77.

What is the type of thunderstorm produced by an advancing cold or warm front?

a)

Air-Mass Thunderstorm

b)

Mountain Thunderstorm

c)

Sea-Breeze Thunderstorm

d)

Frontal Thunderstorm

78.

What is the channel of partially changed air called?

a)

Stepped Leader

b)

Return Stroke

79.

What is the branched channel of positively charged particles that surges from the ground to the cloud called?

a)

Stepped Leader

b)

Return Stroke

80.

What is an extremely powerful, self-sustaining thunderstorm characterized by intense rotating updrafts?

a)

Supercell

b)

Downburst

c)

Tornado

d)

Tropical Cyclone

e)

Storm Surge

81.

What are violent downdrafts that are concentrated in a local area?

a)

Supercell

b)

Downburst

c)

Tornado

d)

Tropical Cyclone

e)

Storm Surge

82.

What is a violent, whirling column of air in contact with the ground that forms when wind direction and speed suddenly change with height (often associated with a supercell)?

a)

Supercell

b)

Downburst

c)

Tornado

d)

Tropical Cyclone

e)

Storm Surge

83.

What is a large, low-pressure, rotating tropical storm that gets its energy from the evaporation of warm ocean water and the release of heat?

a)

Supercell

b)

Downburst

c)

Tornado

d)

Tropical Cyclone

e)

Storm Surge

84.

What occurs when powerful, hurricane-force winds drive a mound of ocean water toward shore, where it washes over the land, often causing enormous damage?

a)

Supercell

b)

Downburst

c)

Tornado

d)

Tropical Cyclone

e)

Storm Surge

85.

What is an extended period of well-below average rainfall?

a)

Drought

b)

Heat Wave

c)

Cold Wave

d)

Windchill Index

86.

What is an extended period of above-average temperatures?

a)

Drought

b)

Heat Wave

c)

Cold Wave

d)

Windchill Index

87.

What is an extended period of below-average temperatures?

a)

Drought

b)

Heat Wave

c)

Cold Wave

d)

Windchill Index

88.

What measures the windchill factor, by estimating the heat loss from human skin caused by a combination of wind and cold air?

a)

Drought

b)

Heat Wave

c)

Cold Wave

d)

Windchill Index

89.

What is the calm center of a tropical cyclone?

a)

Eye Wall

b)

Eye

90.

What is the band where the strongest winds in a hurricane are usually concentrated, surrounding the eye?

a)

Eye Wall

b)

Eye

91.

How are thunderstorms classified?

a)

by the diameter of the storm

b)

by the height that the cumulonimbus clouds reach

c)

by the mechanism that caused the air to rise

d)

by the duration of the storm

92.

What causes thunder?

a)

falling precipitation

b)

the expansion and contraction of the air heated by lightning

c)

friction between updrafts and downdrafts in a cumulonimbus cloud

d)

condensation of updrafts

93.

What causes the air of a tropical storm to rotate?

a)

the Coriolis effect

b)

supercells

c)

funnel clouds

d)

strong downbursts

94.

A _____ is a common side effect of a drought.

a)

tornado

b)

cold wave

c)

big chill

d)

heat wave

95.

What type of clouds produce thunderstorms?

a)

cirrus

b)

cumulus

c)

cumulonimbus

d)

stratus

96.

What sparks the development of a tornado?

a)

strong downbursts

b)

large contrast in the temperature of polar and tropical air

c)

condensation of updrafts

d)

weak upper-atmospheric currents

97.

What causes lightning?

a)

the expansion and contraction of the air heated by lightning

b)

condensation of updrafts

c)

falling precipitation

d)

friction between updrafts and downdrafts in a cumulonimbus cloud

98.

Which of the following would work against the development of a thunderstorm?

a)

rising air

b)

stable air

c)

moisture

d)

unstable air

99.

Whether or not thunderstorms develop on a particular day depends on

a)

air pressure

b)

relative humidity

c)

air temperature

d)

both air temperature and relative humidity

100.

Which statement below might explain how lightning occurs?

a)

Oppositely charged air molecules attract and make light from electricity

b)

High winds make air move so fast that it turns into light

c)

Light from the Sun reflects from the rain in quick bursts down to Earth's surface

d)

Lightning comes from any type of storm

101.

Which of the following weather systems always forms over the ocean?

a)

blizzard

b)

hurricane

c)

thunderstorm

d)

tornado

102.

The intense updrafts and downdrafts that characterize severe thunderstorms are the result of

a)

unstable air caused by temperature differences between the upper and lower parts of a storm

b)

the contact between rising air and a layer of stable air

c)

the slowing of the rate of condensation within a cloud

d)

the cooling of the air inside a cumulonimbus cloud to a temperature lower than the surrounding air

103.

Pollution from an industrial site is an example of a _____.

a)

Point Source

b)

Nonpoint Source

104.

Pollution from runoff from roads is an example of a _____.

a)

Point Source

b)

Nonpoint Source

105.

Disease, predators, and competition for food are all examples of _____.

a)

Density-Independent Factors

b)

Density-Dependent Factors

106.

Storms, floods, and fires are all examples of _____.

a)

Density-Independent Factors

b)

Density-Dependent Factors

107.

What is an example of natural air pollution?

a)

acid precipitation

b)

smoke from forest fires

c)

carbon monoxide from engine exhaust

d)

dust from desertification

108.

Aggregates, bedrock, and metallic minerals are all _____.

a)

hydrothermal ores

b)

renewable resources

c)

land resources

d)

depleted resources

109.

Where does most energy on Earth come from?

a)

the Sun

b)

the Moon

c)

the decay of radioactive elements

d)

coal

110.

Many different types of fossil fuels exist, but they are all originated from _____.

a)

metamorphism and partial decomposition of plants

b)

anthracite coal

c)

ocean sediments

d)

organic matter trapped in sedimentary rocks

111.

Which is an example of an alternative source of energy?

a)

peat

b)

coal

c)

wood

d)

solar

112.

Which force is most directly responsible for the creation of fossil fuels?

a)

displacement

b)

erosion

c)

pressure

d)

tectonic activity

113.

What activity or segement of the population puts the greatest demand on water supplies in the United States?

a)

agriculture

b)

industry

c)

public use for drinking, washing, and cooking

d)

power plant cooling

114.

As any population increases, its demand for natural resources _____.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays constant

115.

Which greenhouse gas has increased as a direct result of burning fossil fuels and deforestation?

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Water Vapor

c)

Methane

d)

Nitrous Oxide

116.

Check all that apply : Which of the following are renewable resources?

a)

Air

b)

Carbon

c)

Coal

d)

Freshwater

e)

Gold

117.

Check all that apply : Which of the following are nonrenewable resources?

a)

Air

b)

Carbon

c)

Coal

d)

Freshwater

e)

Gold

118.

Which method of water control affects the most freshwater resources?

a)

Dams and reservoirs

b)

Aqueducts

c)

Wells

d)

Desalinization plants

119.

Check all that apply : Which of the following are biomass fuels?

a)

Coal

b)

Natural Gas

c)

Peat

d)

Petroleum

e)

Wood

120.

Check all that apply : Which of the following are fossil fuels?

a)

Coal

b)

Natural Gas

c)

Peat

d)

Petroleum

e)

Wood

121.

Check all that apply : What resources are necessary to meet the basic needs of an organism?

a)

Air

b)

Food

c)

Water

d)

Shelter

e)