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Civics End of Course (EOC) Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 8hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why did the Founding Fathers separate the power to make, enforce, and interpret laws between different branches of government?

a)

to increase the power of the presidency

b)

to make the national government more efficient

c)

to prevent one branch of government from becoming too powerful

d)

to ensure that Congress would act according to the will of the people

2.

Which ideas expressed in the Declaration of Independence best supports the actions of when people rebel against an unjust government?

a)

All citizens are created equal and have unalienable rights.

b)

Citizens must consent to follow the rules of a social contract

c)

The government grants rights to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness.

d)

Citizens have a right to overthrow a government that violates their natural rights.

3.

What is the most likely reason it was difficult to pass laws under the Articles of Confederation?

a)

The government did not have a legislature.

b)

Americans were content to follow British laws.

c)

Passage required the votes of 9 of the 13 states.

d)

Passage required a unanimous vote of the 13 states.

4.

Which choice does the picture represent?

a)

The Federal System

b)

Popular Sovereignty

c)

Separation of Powers

d)

Checks and Balances

5.

Which group was afraid of creating a strong national government?

a)

Federalists

b)

Anti-Federalists

c)

Loyalists

d)

Patriots

6.

What is meant by "the rule of law"?

a)

the idea that people are the source of government power

b)

the power of the courts to interpret the Constitution and other laws

c)

the idea that all people, including rulers and leaders, must obey the law

d)

the theory that power should be divided among three branches of government

7.

What does a person born in any U.S. territory automatically become?

a)

a refugee

b)

a native-born citizen

c)

a naturalized citizen

d)

a permanent resident alien

8.

Why is it important for citizens to pay taxes?

a)

to allow the country to start a draft

b)

to make sure that laws are up to date

c)

to help citizens become informed voters

d)

to provide money to pay for government services

9.

How does registering to vote fulfill a responsibility of citizenship?

a)

Registering to vote makes you eligible to be called for jury duty.

b)

Without registering, you cannot give money to a political campaign.

c)

Registering to vote communicates your opinions to your representatives.

d)

Without registering, you cannot express your political views through voting.

10.

What rights does the 9th Amendment grant?

a)

People have only the rights granted in the Constitution.

b)

People have only the rights granted in the Ninth Amendment.

c)

Despite only granting certain rights, the Constitution does not deny other rights.

d)

Congress must approve any rights not listed in the Constitution before they are granted to the people.

11.

How does the 22ND Amendment protect individual rights?

a)

By defining citizenship, it declares that all citizens have the same rights.

b)

By granting women the right to vote, it ensures that women have a say in government.

c)

By requiring the direct election of senators, it protects the principle of direct representation.

d)

By imposing presidential term limits, it prevents one president from gaining too much power.

12.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Bill of Rights?

a)

to limit the rights of individual citizens

b)

to inspire the governments of other nations

c)

to guarantee freedoms that belong to every citizen

d)

to explain the procedure for amending the Constitution

13.

How does the 5TH Amendment protect an individual's right to own property?

a)

by prohibiting the quartering of soldiers without permission

b)

by guaranteeing every citizen the right to apply for a home loan

c)

by preventing a police search of private property without a warrant

d)

by preventing the government from taking private property without fair payment

14.

To what age did the 26TH Amendment lower the voting age?

a)

16

b)

18

c)

21

d)

25

15.

How did the 24TH Amendment allow more Americans to vote?

a)

It changed voting laws, which meant that non-U.S. citizens were able to vote.

b)

It outlawed poll taxes, which many states used to prevent poor Americans from voting.

c)

It prevented grandfather clauses, which many states used to prevent women from voting.

d)

It required literacy tests, which meant that Americans became better educated about voting.

16.

According to the Supreme Court, which branch of government has the power and responsibility to interpret the law?

a)

Legislative

b)

Executive

c)

Judicial

d)

State Legislature

17.

Which is the correct description of a party platform?

a)

It is held after the nominating convention.

b)

It is a statement that outlines views on issues.

c)

It is determined by means of a primary election.

d)

It is a place where political candidates make speeches.

18.

Which of the following issues would most likely be a foreign policy matter?

a)

balancing the federal budget

b)

negotiating a treaty with Mexico

c)

revising neighborhood zoning restrictions

d)

raising the retirement age for Social Security

19.

The expectations of the Legislative Branch are listed in which Article in the Constitution?

a)

Article I

b)

Article II

c)

Article III

d)

Article IV

20.

The expectations of the Judicial Branch are listed in which Article in the Constitution?

a)

Article I

b)

Article II

c)

Article III

d)

Article IV

21.

The expectations of the Executive Branch are listed in which Article in the Constitution?

a)

Article I

b)

Article II

c)

Article III

d)

Article IV

22.

Which level of government could pass a law changing the age at which people can marry?

a)

city

b)

county

c)

state

d)

federal

23.

What term refers to redrawing congressional district boundaries to favor a particular political party?

a)

apportionment

b)

censure

c)

gerrymandering

d)

impeachment

24.

After the House and the Senate pass a version of a bill, what happens next?

a)

Amendments are added to make the two bills identical.

b)

The House and Senate vote on the revised bill.

c)

The President signs, vetoes, or ignores the bill.

25.

Of the following, what may happen following a guilty verdict in a criminal case?

a)

The criminal case becomes a civil case.

b)

The defendant appeals the case to a higher court.

c)

A U.S. Court of Appeals asks to review the case.

d)

The U.S. Supreme Court automatically reviews the case.

26.

Like the U.S. Constitution, the Florida Constitution establishes which of the following?

a)

delegated powers

b)

small claims courts

c)

three branches of government

d)

the right to form treaties with foreign governments

27.

What might have happened if the Founding Fathers had given all powers concerning the law to the Executive Branch?

a)

The President could have grown too powerful, leading to tyranny.

b)

Congress would have had more occasions to override presidential vetoes.

c)

Supreme Court justices would have had to strike down more laws as unconstitutional.

d)

The balance of power among the different branches would make government more efficient.

28.

What was Thomas Paine trying to win support for when he wrote Common Sense?

a)

the separation of natural rights from legal rights

b)

the separation of the colonies from Great Britain

c)

the separation of powers between state and federal governments

d)

the separation of powers between the three branches of government

29.

Why were colonists outraged by taxes imposed by the British government?

a)

because they had to house British soldiers

b)

because they had no representation in Parliament

c)

because they were denied trials by a jury of their peers

d)

because they made British paper products less expensive

30.

Which of the following correctly completes the diagram?

a)

freedom of speech

b)

freedom of religion

c)

pursuit of happiness

d)

freedom to own property

31.

How does the system of checks and balances reinforce the separation of powers?

a)

by dividing the government duties among three branches

b)

by dividing power between the national and state levels of government

c)

by giving each branch of government powers to limit the other branches

d)

by defining the roles of each branch of government in three separate articles

32.

Why did Antifederalists want a bill of rights in the Constitution?

a)

to list their rights

b)

to protect their rights

c)

to argue with Federalists

d)

to prevent ratification of the Constitution

33.

All people, including those who lead in government, are expected to obey the law. What is this known as?

a)

rule of law

b)

majority rule

c)

individual rights

d)

minority rights

34.

What type of law has been violated when someone robs a store?

a)

civil law

b)

criminal law

c)

common law

d)

military law

35.

Why should citizens know and understand the law?

a)

so that they can obey it

b)

so that they can ignore it

c)

so that they can break it

d)

so that they can change it

36.

Why is attending school considered a civic duty?

a)

Today's high-tech society needs educated employees.

b)

Educated citizens are vital to the success of our democracy.

c)

School districts depend on having a certain number of students.

d)

The more education a person has, the more money he or she is likely to earn.

37.

What is the minimal age that someone has to be so that they can vote?

a)

16

b)

18

c)

21

d)

There is no minimal age.

38.

Which amendment protects Americans from unreasonable searches and seizures?

a)

1st Amendment

b)

2nd Amendment

c)

4th Amendment

d)

6th Amendment

39.

Why are some forms of speech not protected in the 1st Amendment?

a)

. Because they are expressed in writing

b)

Because they support different religious views

c)

Because they criticize the government

d)

Because they could cause physical harm to others

40.

How does the 17th Amendment protect individual rights?

a)

By defining citizenship, it declares that all citizens have the same rights.

b)

By granting women the right to vote, it ensures that women have a say in government

c)

By requiring the direct election of senators, it protects the principle of direct representation.

d)

By imposing presidential term limits, it prevents one president from gaining too much power.

41.

Which amendment to the Constitution might the U.S. Supreme Court have relied on when it struck down the death penalty for minors?

a)

1ST Amendment

b)

2ND Amendment

c)

8TH Amendment

d)

9TH Amendment

42.

The 19th Amendment gave they right to vote regardless of one's sex. Who was given the right to vote?

a)

women

b)

land-owning men

c)

Native Americans

d)

African-Americans

43.

How did the Supreme Court expect Bush v. Gore to affect voting practices in the United States?

a)

Fewer people would turn out to vote.

b)

States would improve voting methods.

c)

More states would use punch card balloting.

d)

More people would sign up for absentee ballots.

44.

Which of the following statements about the Republican Party is most accurate?

a)

Its members are said to be more liberal.

b)

Its members are said to be more conservative.

c)

It is more likely to support increasing the power of the federal government.

d)

Its members generally believe social programs should be run by the federal government.

45.

What is the best reason that press releases from a politician or a government agency are not always the best source of public information about an issue?

a)

They are not covered by news outlets.

b)

They give too much detail to be useful.

c)

They may be released too late to be useful.

d)

They may present only one point of view about an issue.

46.

What level of government would you most likely contact to address a community issue?

a)

local government

b)

state government

c)

federal government

d)

international government

47.

Who is the head of the Executive Branch?

a)

Speaker of the House

b)

President of the Senate

c)

President pro tempore

d)

President

48.

Which of the following systems proposes that society should organize and control the means of production for the welfare of all?

a)

direct democracy

b)

communism

c)

monarchy

d)

socialism

49.

What sort of government was established by the Articles of Confederation?

a)

a firm union of states

b)

a loose association of states

c)

a federal arrangement with a strong central government

d)

a union in which some states had more power than others

50.

Which of the following would have caused people to oppose the Articles of Confederation?

a)

Congress had the power to collect taxes.

b)

Congress controlled trade between the states.

c)

Congress granted too much power to the Executive Branch.

d)

Congress could not pay the soldiers who fought in the Revolutionary War.

51.

This diagram shows two methods for proposing an amendment to the U.S. Constitution. What method correctly fills in the top box?

a)

by a request from at least 26 state conventions

b)

by a request from a majority of the states' governors

c)

by a two-thirds vote in both houses of the U.S. Congress

d)

by a petition from five of the U.S. Supreme Court justices

52.

What are the three main levels of federal courts?

a)

mayor's court, city court, and federal court

b)

city courts, state courts, and the U.S. Supreme Court

c)

district courts, courts of appeals, and the U.S. Supreme Court

d)

district courts, magistrate courts, and the U.S. Supreme Court

53.

Which Enlightenment thinker argued that all people were born equal and had natural rights to life, liberty, and property?

a)

Thomas Hobbes

b)

John Locke

c)

Baron de Montesquieu

d)

Jean-Jacques Rousseau

54.

What does it mean to have a judgment of your peers?

a)

to have three branches of government

b)

to protect free speech

c)

to have a trial by jury

d)

to petition the government

55.

According to the Declaration of Independence, what is the main purpose of government?

a)

to protect the interests of the states

b)

to create a strong national government

c)

to provide for common defense and promote the general welfare

d)

to protect citizens' rights to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness

56.

Which of the following terms is defined as the legal process of becoming a U.S. citizen?

a)

adoption

b)

assimilation

c)

immigration

d)

naturalization

57.

What is the name of the United States' first constitution?

a)

Bill of Rights

b)

Magna Carta

c)

Mayflower Compact

d)

Articles of Confederation

58.

Which of the following completes the diagram?

a)

The Supreme Court can appoint federal judges.

b)

The Supreme Court can declare Executive acts unconstitutional.

c)

The Supreme Court can declare acts of Congress unconstitutional.

d)

The Supreme Court can grant reprieves and pardons for federal crimes.

59.

Why is rule of law important?

a)

The rule of law leads to tyranny.

b)

People in positions of power must enact fair laws.

c)

Freedom and the rule of law cannot exist together.

d)

The rule of law is necessary for limited government.

60.

Which Amendment gives us a right to a trial by jury?

a)

1st

b)

4th

c)

6th

d)

13th

61.

How does the 14th Amendment protect individual rights?

a)

By defining citizenship, it declares that all citizens have the same rights.

b)

By granting women the right to vote, it ensures that women have a say in government.

c)

By requiring the direct election of senators, it protects the principle of direct representation.

d)

By imposing presidential term limits, it prevents one president from gaining too much power.

62.

Which phrase has come to mean that each person's rights are as important as every other person's rights?

a)

"We the People"

b)

"all men are created equal"

c)

"Life, Liberty, and the pursuit of Happiness"

d)

"all power is vested in, and derived from, the people"

63.

What 1ST Amendment right are the people in this photograph expressing?

a)

Right to privacy

b)

Freedom of religion

c)

Freedom of the press

d)

Freedom of assembly

64.

Which Supreme Court decision most helped overturn the "separate but equal" doctrine?

a)

Miranda v. Arizona

b)

Plessy v. Ferguson

c)

Hazelwood v. Kuhlmeier

d)

Brown v. Board of Education

65.

Which of the following statements about the Republican Party is most accurate?

a)

Its members are said to be more liberal.

b)

It is more likely to support reducing the power of the federal government.

c)

It is more likely to support increasing the power of the federal government.

d)

Its members generally believe the federal government should run social programs.

66.

Which of the following would be the best source for accurate information about a candidate's experience

and qualifications?

a)

a speech made by an opposing candidate

b)

an interest group's concealed propaganda

c)

a letter to the editor published in the local newspaper

d)

an unbiased voter guide written by an independent group

67.

A politician has a picture taken of him mowing the yard. Which propaganda technique is being used?

a)

glittering generalities

b)

name calling

c)

plain-folks appeal

d)

testimonial

68.

Opponents of the USA PATRIOT Act would most likely argue that it violates which part of the U.S. Constitution?

a)

freedom of speech

b)

right to bear arms

c)

guarantee of a republican form of government

d)

protection against unreasonable searches

69.

From which of the following courts is there no appeal?

a)

U.S. Court of Appeals

b)

U.S. District Court

c)

U.S. High Court

d)

U.S. Supreme Court

70.

Powers that are held by the states that are not given specifically to the states are_______.

a)

delegated powers

b)

concurrent powers

c)

reserved powers

d)

judicial powers

71.

What is the term for powers shared by both state and federal governments?

a)

concurrent powers

b)

declared powers

c)

reserved powers

d)

judicial powers

72.

What does it mean to ratify an amendment to the Constitution?

a)

approve it

b)

reject it

c)

revise it

d)

send it to a committee

73.

The idea of consent of the governed came from whom?

a)

John Locke's idea of the social contract

b)

James Madison's view of individual liberty

c)

Jean-Jacques Rousseau's theory of divine right

d)

Baron de Montesquieu's theory of separation of power

74.

What historical U.S. document was ratified in 1776?

a)

Bill of Rights

b)

Constitution

c)

Articles of Confederation

d)

Declaration of Independence

75.

What does "consent of the governed" mean?

a)

Government power comes from God.

b)

Government power comes from the people.

c)

Natural rights come from God.

d)

Natural rights come from the people.

76.

What did the Mayflower Compact establish?

a)

common law

b)

checks and balances

c)

self-government

d)

statute

77.

What impact did the weaknesses in the Article of Confederation have on the writers of the Constitution?

a)

The Founding Fathers gave Congress the power to legislate.

b)

The Founding Fathers created a government with three branches.

c)

The Founding Fathers created the office of president to settle disputes.

d)

The Founding Fathers gave the states the power to interpret national laws?

78.

According to the Preamble of the Constitution, which of the following are basic purposes of government?

a)

provide services, provide laws, and guarantee freedoms

b)

ensure life, liberty, property, and the pursuit of happiness

c)

collect taxes, print money, establish a military, and regulate commerce

d)

establish justice, ensure tranquility, provide for common defense, and promote welfare

79.

Which of the following most clearly reveals the Founders ideas about the source of government power?

a)

"We the people"

b)

"a more perfect union"

c)

"this Constitution"

d)

"our posterity"

80.

Which of the following is true of the Federalists?

a)

They opposed a strong central government.

b)

They opposed ratification of the Constitution.

c)

They supported the division of the United States into 13 separate countries.

d)

They feared the Articles of Confederation could not keep the country united.

81.

What type of law is used to protect against assault, murder,

rape, and theft?

a)

Criminal Law

b)

Common Law

c)

Military Law

d)

Constitutional Law

82.

Which of the following lists steps of the naturalization process in the correct order, from first to last?

a)

apply for a permanent resident visa, interview and pass citizenship tests, take oath of allegiance, apply for citizenship

b)

apply for citizenship, take oath of allegiance, interview and pass citizenship tests, apply for a permanent resident visa

c)

apply for a permanent resident visa, apply for citizenship, interview and pass citizenship tests, take oath of allegiance

d)

interview and pass citizenship tests, apply for a permanent resident visa, apply for citizenship, take oath of allegiance

83.

Which duty of citizenship is critical to support government services?

a)

paying taxes

b)

obeying the law

c)

serving on a jury

d)

serving in the military

84.

Which Amendment gives you freedom of religion, speech, the press, to assemble, and to petition the government?

a)

1st

b)

2nd

c)

4th

d)

9th

85.

How do the 9th and 10th Amendments limit the power of the federal government?

a)

by listing specific rights that belong to the states

b)

by listing specific rights that belong to the people

c)

by preventing the federal government from changing the Constitution

d)

by reserving rights not granted to the federal government for the states and people

86.

Which of the following is a limitation of the 1st Amendment's guarantee of the right to freedom of speech?

a)

People may not deliver a speech in public

b)

People may not criticize the government.

c)

People may not criticize the actions of their neighbors.

d)

People may not tell lies that might harm another person.

87.

What happened as a result of the 13thAmendment?

a)

African Americans got the right to vote.

b)

The right to own slaves was extended for 20 years.

c)

Slavery was outlawed in all states and U.S. territories.

d)

All citizens were guaranteed equal protection under the law.

88.

Which of the following statements about the Democratic Party is most accurate?

a)

Its members are said to be more conservative.

b)

It is more likely to support reducing the power of the federal government.

c)

Its members generally believe the federal government should run social programs.

d)

Its members generally believe state and local government should run social programs.

89.

Why is it important to analyze political ads carefully before choosing a candidate?

a)

Political ads contain only propaganda and lies and should not be a factor when selecting a candidate.

b)

Political ads are designed to convince you to vote for a candidate and may not present all sides of an issue.

c)

Political ads are usually an afterthought for a campaign and probably do not contain up-to-date information.

d)

Political ads often present a balanced viewpoint of all issues and therefore can be a good source of information.

90.

A local agency would most likely be involved with a decision about which of the following?

a)

enforcing U.S. immigration laws

b)

restricting the types of businesses in a particular neighborhood

c)

investigating how to pay for a new campus for the state university

d)

determining when to interview candidates running for public office

91.

Which international organization sets up rules for international trade?

a)

NATO

b)

United Nations

c)

World Trade Organization

d)

International Court of Justice

92.

Which of the following describes a unitary system of government?

a)

independent legislatures in several provinces

b)

the United States under the Articles of Confederation

c)

a federal arrangement of central government and states

d)

a country in which the central government holds all the power

93.

What is the job for the Vice-President that is listed in the Constitution?

a)

negotiating treaties

b)

presiding over the Senate

c)

attending funerals in foreign countries

d)

representing Washington, D.C., in the Senate

94.

Which of the following is true of the constitutional amendment process?

a)

State conventions must vote to ratify amendments.

b)

Over half of the original amendments have been repealed.

c)

Three-fourths of the states must ratify proposed amendments.

d)

The easy process has allowed hundreds of amendments to be approved.

95.

If a state's citizens start a petition drive to remove the governor from office, what process are the citizens pursuing?

a)

to separate from Britain

b)

to form a more perfect union

c)

to decide who can be a Supreme Court justice

d)

to decrease the power of the federal government

96.

The Preamble of the Constitution lists six goals, including which of the following?

a)

to separate from Britain

b)

to form a more perfect union

c)

to decide who can be a Supreme Court justice

d)

to decrease the power of the federal government

97.

How did the English Bill of Rights influence delegates to the Constitutional Convention?

a)

It was submitted as a model for the new constitution.

b)

It was the first document to limit the power of the monarch.

c)

It spelled out the proper role for the Legislative Branch as the representative of the people.

d)

It had established a number of rights that the delegates wished to guarantee in the new constitution.

98.

What did Federalists and Antifederalists disagree most strongly about?

a)

a strong national government

b)

creating a system of checks and balances

c)

protecting individual liberties

d)

increasing the power of the confederation

99.

How did the 14th Amendment's due process clause extend the Bill of Rights?

a)

by extending the right to vote to all U.S. citizens

b)

by granting full citizenship to African Americans

c)

by claiming additional rights not mentioned in the Bill of Rights

d)

by preventing states from denying rights granted in the Bill of Rights

100.

Which of the following statements about the Democratic Party is most accurate?

a)

Its members are said to be more liberal.

b)

Its members are said to be more conservative.

c)

It is more likely to support reducing the power of the federal government.

d)

Its members generally believe state and local government should run social programs.