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AP Bio Final Review

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 2hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is one function of the other pigments  besides chlorophyll, in the chloroplast?
a)
to block damaging wavelengths of light
b)
to absorb different wavelengths than the chloroplasts
c)
to provide different colors to the leaves
d)
to transfer energy to a separate photosystem beside the one using chlorophyll a and b.
2.
What is the primary function of the light reactions of photosynthesis?
a)
To produce glucose
b)
To produce NADPH and ATP
c)
To use ATP
d)
To produce RuBP
3.
What supplies the electrons that are lost in PS I?
a)
the electrons from PS II
b)
water
c)
glucose
d)
oxygen
4.
What is the function of NADP+?
a)
It absorbs light
b)
It is an electron carrier
c)
It is a light-reflecting pigment
d)
It acts as long-term energy storage
5.
Green plants reflect ________ light.
a)
Red
b)
Green
c)
All
d)
Red and Violet
6.
The light reactions occur in the ________ and the dark reactions take place in the ________.
a)
Chloroplast / thylakoid membrane
b)
stroma / thylakoid
c)
mesophyl / stomata
d)
thylakoid membrane / stroma
7.
Where is glucose synthesized
a)
Photosystem II
b)
Photosystem I
c)
Calvin Cycle
d)
Glycolysis
8.
The H+ concentration gradient is used to 
a)
make NADPH
b)
split a water molecule
c)
generate ATP
d)
form water
9.
DNA is replicated during ______ of the cell cycle.
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
G0
10.
Which of the following is not a part of interphase?
a)
G2
b)
M
c)
G1
d)
S
11.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?
a)
Mitosis-> G1->S->G2->cytokinesis
b)
S->G1-> G2-> mitosis-> cytokinesis
c)
cytokinesis->mitosis->G1->S->G2
d)
 G1->S->G2->mitosis->cytokinesis
12.
sequence
a)
C,D, B, A, F, E
b)
D,A,F,C,E,B
c)
B,E,C,F,A,D
d)
C,B,D,A E,F
13.
The phase of mitosis in which the sister chromatids separate from each other
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
14.
Which of these phases does not have a checkpoint?
a)
G1/S
b)
S/G2
c)
G2/M
d)
Mitosis right before sister chromatids separate
15.
Structure (b) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
16.
Chromosome movement in mitosis and meiosis is regulated by
a)
microtubules
b)
microfilaments
c)
intermediate filaments
d)
All of thiese
17.
The cleavage furrow in cytokinesis is mediated by
a)
microtubules
b)
microfilaments
c)
intermediate filaments
d)
All of thiese
18.
Which of the following molecules is NOT a byproduct of cellular respiration? 
a)
CO2
b)
Heat
c)
H2O
d)
ATP
19.
Which process does not occur in aerobic conditions? 
a)
Fermentation
b)
Pyruvate Oxidation
c)
Citric Acid Cycle or Krebs cycle 
d)
Oxidative Phosphorylation 
20.
What is the main job of the electron carriers in cellular respiration? 
a)
Transport electrons and hydrogen atoms to the electron transport chain 
b)
Capture energy throughout the process of cellular respiration
c)
Provide the reactants for the process of cellular respiration
d)
Pump positive hydrogen ions and shuttle electrons across the electron transport chain and contribute to chemiosmosis
21.
In his work with pneumonia-causing bacteria & mice, Griffith found that 
a)
the protein coat from pathogenic cells was able to transform nonpathogenic cells.
b)
heat-killed pathogenic cells caused pneumonia.
c)
some substance from pathogenic cells was transferred to nonpathogenic cells, making them pathogenic.
d)
the polysaccharide coat of bacteria caused pneumonia.
22.
What is the basis for the difference in how the leading and lagging strands of DNA molecules are synthesized?
a)
DNA polymerase can join new nucleotides to the 3' end of the preexisting strand.
b)
Helicases and single-strand binding proteins work at the 5' end.
c)
The origins of replication occur only at the 5' end.
d)
DNA ligase works only in the 3' to 5' direction
23.
In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around
a)
polymerase molecules.
b)
ribosomes.
c)
histones.
d)
a thymine dimer.
24.
E. coli cells grown on N-15 medium are transferred to N-14 medium and allowed to grow for 2 more generations.  DNA extracted from these cells is centrifuged.  What density distribution of DNA would you expect in this experiment?
a)
one high-density and one low-density band
b)
One intermediate-density band
c)
one high-density and one intermediate-density band
d)
one low-density and one intermediate-density band
25.
A student isolates, purifies, and combines in a test tube a variety of molecules needed for DNA replication.  After adding some DNA to the mixture, replication occurs, but each DNA molecule consists of a normal strand paired with numerous segments of DNA a few hundred nucleotides long.  What has the student probably left out of the mixture?
a)
DNA polymerase
b)
DNA ligase
c)
Okazaki fragments
d)
primase
26.
In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until 
a)
the two DNA strands have completely separated and exposed the promoter.
b)
several transcription factors have bound to the promoter.
c)
the 5' caps are removed from the mRNA.
d)
the DNA introns are removed from the template.
27.
Which of the following is NOT true of a codon?
a)
It may code for the same amino acid as another codon.
b)
It never codes for more than one amino acid.
c)
It extends from one end of a tRNA molecule.
d)
It is the basic unit of the genetic code.
28.
The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is 
a)
complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon.
b)
complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA.
c)
the part of tRNA that bonds with a specific amino acid.
d)
catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme.
29.
Which of the following mutations would be MOST likely to have a harmful effect on an organism?
a)
a deletion of three nucleotides near the middle of a gene.
b)
a single nucleotide deletion in the middle of an intron.
c)
a single nucleotide deletion near the end of a coding sequence.
d)
a single nucleotide insertion downstream of, and close to, the start of the coding sequence.
30.
What type of macromolecule are enzymes?
a)
Protein
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Lipid
d)
Nucleic Acid
31.
Which of the following correctly describes how enzymes work?  
a)
they lower the energy of the reactants to increase the rxn rate
b)
they supply energy to the reaction to increase the rxn rate
c)
they lower the energy of the products to increase the rxn rate
d)
they lower the activation energy of the reaction to increase the rxn rate
32.
Which of these is NOT true?
a)
Enzymes can denature (change shape) when the temperature gets too high.
b)
Enzymes can only be used once in a chemical reaction. 
c)
Extreme pH can denature enzymes.
d)
Enzymes speed up chemical reactions. 
33.

Which of the following is directly responsible for the shape of an enzyme/protein?

a)

The amino acid sequence of the protein and the properties of the amino acids that make up the protein.

b)

The temperature of the surrounding environment.

c)

The pH of the surrounding environment.

d)

The amount of substrate present.

34.
Blocking Active site of an enzyme
a)
competitive inhibition
b)
allosteric inhibition
35.
Which of these is most likely an enzyme?  
a)
Sucrose
b)
Galactose
c)
Fructose
d)
Amylase
36.
Vitamin C
a)
Cofactor
b)
Coenzyme
c)
Competitive inhibitor
37.

Type of symbiosis: Hummingbirds feed on nectar from flowers. The flowers are pollinated by hummingbirds as they move from flower to flower.

a)

commensalism

b)

mutualism

c)

parasitism

d)

predation

38.
A tapeworm and a cat have this type of relationship.
a)
mutualism
b)
parasitism
c)
commensalism
d)
competition
39.
Tree kangaroos live in the upper branches of trees in the rainforests of Queensland, as well as on the island of New Guinea. This is an example of the tree kangaroos ___.
a)
niche
b)
habitat
c)
community
d)
population
40.
Starfish are probably the most important predator in the shallow ecosystem because they eat basically anything that they can come across. Their feeding activities control the whole ecosystem. This is an example of the starfish ___.
a)
habitat
b)
biotic factors
c)
tolerance level
d)
niche
41.

What level of ecological organization would include all squirrels that live in the same area?

a)

biome

b)

community

c)

ecosystem

d)

population

42.
All of the following statements concerning characteristics of predator-prey relationship are correct EXCEPT:
a)
Camouflage is an adaptation that protects prey.
b)
A rise in the population of predators is followed by a decreased in the population of prey.
c)
A rise in the population of prey is often followed by a rise in the population of predators.
d)
The population of predators most often eliminates the population of prey
43.
Which of the following represents several species of brightly colored, harmless snakes looking like poisonous coral snakes?
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
batesian mimicry
d)
mullerian mimicry
44.
Which of the following represents several species of poisonous snakes bearing bright colors of red, black, and yellow?
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
batesian mimicry
d)
mullerian mimicry
45.

What is the single most important event establishing a primary immune response?

a)

The presentation of viral protein complex to class I MHC

b)

The lyses of virally infected cells by cytotoxic T cells

c)

The phagocytosis of microbes by antigen-presenting cells

d)

The recognition of self versus foreign

46.

What adaptations should one expect of the seed coats of angiosperm species whose seeds are dispersed by frugivorous (fruit-eating) animals, as opposed to angiosperm species whose seeds are dispersed by other means?

a)

The seed coat, upon its complete digestion, should provide vitamins or nutrients to animals.

b)

The seed coat should contain secondary compounds that irritate the lining of the animal’s mouth

c)

The seed coat should be resistant to the animals’ digestive enzymes.

d)

The exterior of the seed coat should have barbs or hooks.

47.

What macromolecule class is represented by the picture above?

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

protein

d)

nucleic acid

48.

Identify the general relative sizes of the listed structures from the smallest to the largest.

I = bacterium

II = enzyme

III = nucleus

IV = chromosome

V = molecule of water

a)

V—II—I—IV—III

b)

II—V—IV—I—III

c)

V—I—II—III—IV

d)

II—V—I—III—IV

49.

When carbohydrate monomers are joined together, the process is identified as ___________ ______________, and when they are broken apart again it is called ___________.

a)

hydrolytic bonding; degradation

b)

dehydration synthesis; hydrolysis

c)

dehydration synthesis; anabolism

d)

hydrogen bonding; depletion

50.

Which of the following statements most directly

supports the claim that different species of

organisms use different metabolic strategies to

meet their energy requirements for growth,

reproduction, and homeostasis?

a)

During cold periods pond-dwelling animals can increase the number of unsaturated fatty acids in their cell membranes while some plants make antifreeze proteins to prevent ice crystal formation in tissues.

b)

Bacteria lack introns while many eukaryotic genes contain many of these intervening sequences.

c)

Carnivores have more teeth that are specialized for ripping food while herbivores have more teeth that are specialized for grinding food.

d)

Plants generally use starch molecules for storage while animals use glycogen and fats for storage.

51.

Both myoglobin and hemoglobin are proteins that bind reversibly with molecular oxygen. The graph below shows the oxygen-binding saturation of each protein at different concentrations of oxygen. Which of the following best describes the physiological significance of the different oxygen-binding capabilities of hemoglobin and myoglobin?

a)

They prevent muscles from depleting oxygen levels in the blood.

b)

They cause muscles to become anaerobic.

c)

They prevent glycogen depletion in muscles.

d)

They enhance movement of oxygen from the blood into the muscles.

52.

Sickle-cell anemia results from a point mutation in the HBB gene. The mutation results in the replacement of an amino acid that has a hydrophilic R-group with an amino acid that has a hydrophobic R-group on the exterior of the hemoglobin protein. Such a mutation would most likely result in altered

a)

properties of the molecule as a result of abnormal interactions between adjacent hemoglobin molecules

b)

DNA structure as a result of abnormal hydrogen bonding between nitrogenous bases

c)

fatty acid structure as a result of changes in ionic interactions between adjacent fatty acid chains

d)

protein secondary structure as a result of abnormal hydrophobic interactions between R-groups in the backbone of the protein

53.

What composes a semi-permeable membrane?

a)

Proteins

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Phospholipids

d)

Fatty acids

54.

What Organic molecule is a biologically functional molecule that consists of one or more polypeptides folded and coiled into a specific 3-D structure?

a)

Lipid

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Nucleic Acid

d)

Protein

55.

A fat that is solid at room temperature. (ex. Animal fat)

a)

Saturated Fat

b)

Supersaturated Fat

c)

Unsaturated Fat

d)

I haven't answered a question since the first one

56.
What is this a picture of?
a)
Nitrogen cycle
b)
carbon cycle
c)
water cycle
d)
plant cycle
57.

How does N2 get into soil?

a)

N2 diffuses into the pore spaces between the soil particles

b)

Legumes pull it in.

c)

gravity. It's not just a good idea, it's the Law.

d)

1st Law of Thermodynamics

58.
How does carbon dioxide leave the atmosphere?
a)
Through transpiration
b)
Through photosynthesis
c)
Through factory emission
d)
Sunlight
59.

The nitrogen cycle is a biogeochemical cycle because it moves ?

a)

only between living things (biosphere)

b)

only in the soil (geosphere)

c)

between living things, the soil, and air

d)

only in the air (atmosphere)

60.
The process of plants losing water through their leaves is called ____.
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
transpiration
d)
exhaling
61.

Denitrifying bacteria convert

a)

NH4+ to N2

b)

NH4+ to NO3

c)

N2 to NH4+

d)

nitrogen to energy

62.

The endocrine system incorporates feedback mechanisms that maintain homeostasis. Which of the following demonstrates negative feedback by the endocrine system?

a)

During labor, the fetus exerts pressure on the uterine wall, including the production of oxytocin, which stimulates uterine contraction. The contractions cause the fetus to push on the uterine wall , increasing production of oxytocin.

b)

After a meal, blood glucose levels become elevated, stimulating beta cells of the pancreas to release insulin into the blood. Excess glucose is then converted into glycogen in the liver, reducing blood glucose levels.

c)

At high elevations, atmospheric oxygen is more scarce. In response to signals that oxygen is low, the brain decreases an individual’s rate of respiration.

d)

A transcription factor binds to the regulatory region of a gene, blocking the binding of another transcription factor required for expression.

63.

A human kidney filters about 200 liters of blood each day. Approximately two liters of liquid and nutrient waste are excreted as urine. The remaining fluid and dissolved substances are reabsorbed and continue to circulate throughout the body. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is secreted in response to reduce plasma volume. ADH targets the collecting ducts in the kidney , stimulating the insertion of aquaporins into their plasma membranes and an increased reabsorption of water.

If ADH secretion is inhibited, which of the following would initially result?

a)

The number of aquaporins would increase in response to the inhibition of ADH

b)

The person would decrease oral water intake to compensate for the inhibition of ADH

c)

Blood filtration would increase to compensate for the lack of aquaporins

d)

The person would produce greater amounts of dilute urine

64.

The graph above shows changes in glucagon and insulin secretions at different concentrations of blood glucose. Which of the following feedback mechanisms is best supported by the data?

a)

A falling glucagon level causes a rise in insulin level, which maintains equal amounts of both hormones in the blood.

b)

A high glucagon level causes a rise in the insulin level, which maintains high levels of both hormones in the blood.

c)

A low glucose level causes the release of glucagon, which stimulates the release of more glucose from the tissues, which lowers the amount of glucagon released.

d)

A low glucose level cause the release of insulin, which stimulates the release of more glucose from tissues, which increase the amount of insulin released.

65.

A pathogenic bacterium has been engulfed by a phagocytic cell as part of the nonspecific (innate) immune

response. Which of the following illustrations best represents the response?

a)
b)
c)
d)
66.

A sample of human blood was placed in a test tube containing a physiological saline solution (0.9% sodium

chloride). This type of solution is often used intravenously to quickly rehydrate patients. A drop of the blood

from the test tube was placed on a slide and red blood cells (RBCs) were observed under a microscope. Three

possible outcomes are diagrammed above. Which of the following best predicts which diagrammed microscope view the laboratory worker would see and best explains why?

a)

View 1 because RBC membranes are freely permeable to water

b)

View 2 because the RBCs use energy to allow sodium entry and to pump water out

c)

View 2 because the rate of water movement into the RBCs equals the rate of water movement out of the cells

d)

View 3 because the sodium-potassium pumps in the RBC membranes use energy to keep the sodium out but allow water to freely flow into the cells

67.

Which of the following depicts the most probable pathway of processing and packaging a secretory protein within a eukaryotic cell?

a)

Secretory vesicles → rough endoplasmic

reticulum → Golgi body → cell membrane

b)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum → Golgi body

→ secretory vesicles → cell membrane

c)

Golgi body → secretory vesicles → rough

endoplasmic reticulum → cell membrane

d)

Secretory vesicles → Golgi body → rough

endoplasmic reticulum → cell membrane

68.
Using the cladogram:  a common ancestor of amphibians and ray-finned fish would have
a)
a bony skeleton
b)
four limbs
c)
scaly skin
d)
eggs with shells
69.
Which of the following is a true statement about natural selection?
a)
it is goal directed
b)
individuals evolve
c)
variation exists in a population
d)
acquired characteristics
70.
The population of peppered moths in England changed from white to black in 50 years
a)
stabilizing selection
b)
sexual selection
c)
directional selection
d)
disruptive selection
71.
The differences in sparrow songs among sympatric species of sparrows are examples of
a)
geographic isolation
b)
convergent evolution
c)
behavioral isolation
d)
mechanical isolation
72.
The establishment of a genetically unique population through genetic drift
a)
adaptive radiation
b)
divergent evolution
c)
founder effect
d)
convergent evolution
73.
The Tasmanian devil is a marsupial that resembles the North America wolf, which is a placental mammal.
a)
adaptive radiation
b)
divergent evolution
c)
founder effect
d)
convergent evolution
74.
What is speciation?
a)
combining of tow species to form one with different traits
b)
isolation that affects mating behaviors
c)
timing of mating that prevents normal sexual selection
d)
divergence of two or more species from an existing one
75.
a bird that can easily outcompete other birds for food and that can produce many eggs has a high
a)
sexuality
b)
mutation rate
c)
fitness
d)
adaptability
76.
Which of the following statements is correct based on the information shown in this cladogram?
a)
the turtle and the frog are more similar to each other than the turtle and the bass
b)
frogs have existed for a longer time that bass
c)
the frog is more closely related to the bass than to the leopard
d)
the bass is exinct
77.
Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separate a pair of species that could interbreed except that one mates at dusk and the other at dawn?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
mechanical isolation
c)
habitat isolation
d)
temporal isolation
78.
Which statement correctly explains how resistance to penicillin appeared after a few years of its widespread use to fight bacterial infection? 
a)
in order to survive exposure to penicillin, bacteria developed a resistance to the drug 
b)
a few bacteria became resistant to penicillin, and through sexual reproduction , most bacteria acquired the resistance
c)
penicillin never really successfully wiped out populations of bacteria, scientist did not use proper controls in their studies
d)
some bacteria were resistant to penicillin and their population spread rapidly, without competition from bacteria that were killed by penicillin
79.

Saliva, tears, and sweat contain which enzyme?

a)

lysozyme

b)

protein kinase

c)

hydrochloric acid

d)

lactase

80.

Histamines directly cause:

a)

Helper T cells to mark pathogens for destruction

b)

Cytotoxic T cells to become activated

c)

B and T cells to create memory cells

d)

Blood vessels to dilate and leak fluid and WBC's

81.

Means: "programmed cell death"

a)

Natural Killer Cell

b)

Mitosis

c)

Apoptosis

d)

CD4 and CD8

82.

Natural Killer (NK) Cells target:

a)

Cancerous cells

b)

Virus invaded cells

c)

A specific antigen marker on some type of pathogen

83.

A B cell that is actively making antibodies is called a(n)

a)

memory B cell

b)

plasma cell

c)

Helper T cell

d)

Naive B cell

84.

Which of the following is NOT part of the 3rd line of defense?

a)

B cells

b)

T Cells

c)

Antibodies

d)

Macrophages

85.
Plant cells placed in a hypotonic environment
a)
will remain turgid, due to the elastic cell wall.
b)
will lyse without special adaptations to combat water-concentration fluctuations.
c)
will shrivel, due to the loss of water from the large central vacuole.
d)
will remain flaccid, due to an ineffective central vacuole.
86.
Which is the BEST definition of active transport?
a)
movement of a substance against its concentration gradient through the release of energy from ATP
b)
movement of molecules from an area of their lower concentration to an area of their higher concentration
c)
movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of high water concentration to an area of lower water concentration
d)
movement of molecules from an area of their higher concentration to an area of their lower concentration
87.
The main problem encountered by C3 plants in hot conditions is:
a)
Transpiration
b)
PhotoRespiration
c)
Dehydration
d)
Starvation
88.
What type of transport is shown in the picture?
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Exocytosis
89.
Entropy is
a)
Randomness
b)
Energy
c)
Work
90.
If black and white true-breeding mice are mated and the result is all gray offspring, what inheritance pattern would this be indicative of?
a)
dominance
b)
codominance
c)
multiple alleles
d)
incomplete dominance
91.
Imagine you are performing a cross involving seed color in garden pea plants. What F1 offspring would you expect if you cross true-breeding parents with green seeds and yellow seeds? Yellow seed color is dominant over green.
a)
100 percent yellow-green seeds
b)
100 percent yellow seeds
c)
50 percent yellow, 50 percent green seeds
d)
25 percent green, 75 percent yellow seeds
92.
One of the main reasons genes assort independent of one another  is that 
a)
they produce unrelated traits
b)
they produce related traits
c)
they are on the same chromosome
d)
they are on different chromosomes.
93.
In humans, if a non-disjunction event leads to an individual that is XXY, they would
a)
be female because they have 2 X chromosomes
b)
be male because they have a Y chromosome
c)
not survive
d)
have both male and female characteristics
94.
Chromosomes that do NOT play a role in determining the sex of an individual are called
a)
sex chromosoems
b)
X and Y
c)
autosomes
d)
A and B are correct
95.
What chromosomal abnormality causes Down's Syndrome?
a)
Trisomy 47
b)
Trisomy 46
c)
Trisomy 21
d)
Trisomy 23
96.
Which genetic abnormality does this baby have?
a)
Partial Deletion
b)
Partial Addition
c)
Trisomy
d)
Monosomy
97.
Give the genotype for person III-3
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
Cannot determine
98.
The range of human skin colors is caused by a variety of genes, each of which has at least 2 alleles.  This is an example of:
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
codominance
c)
multiple alleles
d)
polygenic inheritance
99.
If this image were real, it would represent what type of inheritance?
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
codominance
c)
polygenic inheritance
d)
compete dominance
100.
Gametes are _________.
a)
Diploid
b)
Haploid
c)
Aneuploid
d)
variably ploidy
101.
Tendency for alleles of genes on the same chromosome to be inherited together
a)
genetic linkage
b)
genetics
c)
Punnett square
d)
gene locus
102.
Which of the following best explains why the chromosome number is an even number in organisms?
a)
It is only by coincidence, many organisms have an odd number
b)
The diploid number is always even so that when mitosis occurs each cell gets the same number of chromosmes
c)
The diploid chromosome number represents pairs of chromosomes, one from ech parent, so that it is always an even number
d)
Chromosomes double very time the cell divides, so after the first division, the number is always even
103.
How would the DNA in a horse muscle cell compare with the DNA in a horse sperm cell?
a)
The sperm cell would have twice the DNA as the muscle cell.
b)
The sperm cell would have half as much DNA as the muscle cell.
c)
The sperm cell and muscle cell would contain the same amount of DNA.
d)
The muscle cell would have four times the DNA as the sperm cell.. 
104.
Which of the following identifies the type of chromosomal mutation that has occurred on chromosome 18?
a)
inversion
b)
duplication
c)
translocation
d)
deletion
105.
Which genes would show the highest frequency of crossing over?
a)
A-B
b)
A-D
c)
D-C
d)
B-C
106.
The parts of a gene that do NOT code for amino acids in a protein are called
a)
introns
b)
exons
c)
codons
d)
anticodons
107.

When baby starts pushing against the cervix, hypothalamus releases oxytocin to further contract the uterine walls. This is an example of

a)

positive feedback

b)

negative feedback

108.

Which part of neuron receives an incoming signal?

a)

dendrite

b)

cell body

c)

axon

d)

myeline sheath

109.

The diagram shows the propagation of an action potential in neurons. What occurs in phase 3 in the diagram?

a)

the cell is at resting potential

b)

voltage-gated K+ channels open, repolarizing the membrane.

c)

Na+-K+ pump restores the original ion and charge distribution across the membrane.

d)

voltage-gated Na+ channels open, depolarizing the membrane.

110.

A pufferfish's liver produces TTX which is a neurotoxin that inactivates the voltage-gated Na+ channels in the neurons. Which of the following will be the most immediate effect of TTX poisoning?

a)

membrane cannot be depolarized and cannot initiate an action potential

b)

membrane is depolarized but it cannot be repolarized to return to the resting potential

c)

vesicles cannot fuse with the membrane and no neurotransmitter is released to the synapse

d)

no signal is transmitted to motor neurons, paralyzing the muscles

111.

Bacteria uses quorum sensing to determine the population density of their species in their surrounding. Each bacterium produces a ligand. Once the concentration of that ligand reaches a critical level, all bacteria respond simultaneously. This is an example of

a)

autocrine signaling

b)

juxtacrine signaling

c)

paracrine signaling

d)

endocrine signaling

112.

Which of the following is correct regarding digestion in cow's rumen?

a)

bacteria break down cellulose in plant materials

b)

protozoa keeps bacteria population in check

c)

fungi break down lignin in cellulose for full digestion

d)

archaea breaks down the toxic methane gas

e)

all of the above are correct

113.

Compared to the primary immune response, the secondary immune response is

a)

stronger

b)

faster

c)

more efficient

d)

all of the above

114.

A group of RNA virus which uses a reverse transcriptase enzyme to insert viral gene into host genome is called

a)

adenovirus

b)

bacteriophage

c)

retrovirus

d)

rhinovirus

115.

In response to human's use of antibiotics, more and more bacteria are becoming resistant to many types of antibiotics. This is an example of

a)

genetic drift

b)

convergent evolution

c)

adaptive radiation

d)

coevolution

116.
Which is NOT a way that components of the cell membrane maintain homeostasis?
a)
Embedded cholesterols prevent excessive fluidity or excessive rigidity during extreme temperature conditions.
b)
Glycoproteins and glycolipids act as receptors for extracellular signals that can activate various signal transduction pathways.
c)
Cytoskeletal filaments provide structural integrity and pathways for intracellular molecular movement.
d)
The amphipathic nature of phospholipids, coupled with integral transport proteins, act as a barrier to enhance selective permeability.
117.
Which of the following is a primary consumer in this food web?
a)
Foxes
b)
Carrots
c)
Mice
d)
Owls
118.
What type of transport is this?
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Diffusion
c)
Exocytosis
d)
Osmosis
119.
In a solution, salt is considered the _______.
a)
solvent
b)
solute
c)
solution
d)
problem
120.
What is the approximate sucrose concentration in the potato core?
a)
.43 M
b)
.30 M
c)
0.0 M
d)
1.0 M
121.
The cell below is in a _________ solution.
a)
Hypotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Isotonic
d)
Supertonic

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