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Biology Semester 2 Final Review

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What process does a multi-cellular organism use to replace its damaged body cells?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
replication
d)
transcription
2.
Which of these lists presents the stages of the cell cycle in the correct order?
a)
interphase, mitosis, cytokinesis
b)
cytokinesis, mitosis, interphase
c)
mitosis, interphase, cytokinesis
d)
interphase, cytokinesis, mitosis
3.
Which of these phases of mitosis take place first?
a)
anaphase
b)
telophase
c)
prophase
d)
metaphase
4.
During interphase, the DNA is in the form of
a)
chromatin
b)
chromosomes
c)
chromatids
d)
centromeres
5.
Identify the stage.
a)
interphase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
6.
Identify the stage of mitosis.
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
7.
Identify the stage of mitosis.
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
anaphase
d)
cytokinesis
8.
Identify the stage of mitosis. 
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
anaphase
d)
cytokinesis
9.
What causes genetic variation in meiosis?
a)
chromosomes lining up
b)
crossing over of chromosomes
c)
separation of chromosomes
d)
chromosomes pulling apart
10.
What kind of cells are made in MEIOSIS?
a)
Haploid cells
b)
Diploid Cells
c)
Skin Cells
d)
Liver Cells
11.
If the Diploid number of Carrots is 18, the haploid number is
a)
18
b)
9
c)
27
d)
36
12.
The process of crossing over occurs in what phase of meiosis?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
prophase 1
c)
prophase 2
d)
telophase 1
13.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
14.
Crossing over creates
a)
male genotype
b)
genetic variation (differences)
c)
DNA replication
d)
mitosis
15.
Which cellular process is shown?
a)
meiosis
b)
endocytosis
c)
mitosis
d)
phagocytosis
16.
What phase is represented?
a)
metaphase 1
b)
metaphase 2
c)
anaphase 1
d)
anaphase 2
17.
What phase is  shown in the picture?
a)
metaphase 2
b)
anaphase 2
c)
metaphase 1
d)
telophase 1
18.
A human zygote should have _____ chromosomes inside.
a)
46
b)
23
c)
92
d)
64
19.
How many daughter cells does Meiosis create?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
8
d)
1
20.
What is a series of events a cell goes through as they grow and divide?
a)
Cell Division
b)
Cell Cycle
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Mitosis
21.
What is the longest stage of the cell cycle called?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
M phase
c)
Interphase
d)
G1 Phase
22.
During what stage does the G1, S and G2 phases happen?
a)
Interphase
b)
M phase
c)
Mitosis
d)
Cytokinesis
23.
Which of the following explains why a cell's size is limited?
a)
a. volume increases faster than surface area
b)
b. surface area increases faster than volume
c)
c. homeostasis is disrupted by a cell that is too large
d)
d. both a and c are correct
24.
A chromatid is attached to a spindle fiber by the
a)
nucleolus
b)
deep furrow
c)
centromere
d)
centriole
25.
A chromatid is attached to a spindle fiber by the
a)
nucleolus
b)
deep furrow
c)
centromere
d)
centriole
26.
The process by which the nuclear material is divided equally between two new cells
a)
mitosis
b)
cancer
c)
spindle
d)
centromere
27.
the uncontrolled division of cells that results in malignant growth 
a)
tissues
b)
cancer
c)
mitosis
d)
anaphase
28.
Genotype refers to the ...
a)
physical expression of the genes
b)
the possible combination of alleles in a gene
c)
whether an allele is dominant or recessive
d)
how an organism will appear
29.
What is a phenotype
a)
The genetic make up (code)
b)
The physical trait
30.
the passing of genetic traits from parent to offspring.
a)
heredity
b)
trait
c)
gene
d)
allele
31.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
32.
having two different genes for a trait (sometimes called hybrid).
a)
protein
b)
homozygous
c)
heterozygous
d)
genotype
33.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
34.
An allele whose trait only shows up when no dominant allele is present.
a)
hidden allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
recessive allele
d)
present allele
35.
Snapdragon flowers come in red, pink and white.  What type of inheritance is this?
a)
Complete Dominance
b)
Incomplete Dominance
c)
Codominance
d)
Polygenic Inheritance
36.
One form of a gene is called_______________
a)
a DNA
b)
a Phenotype
c)
a trait
d)
an allele
37.
If green is dominant over purple, then what is the genotype for this individual?
a)
Purple
b)
Green
c)
GG
d)
gg
38.
Brown fur color is dominant over black fur color. Which of the following is the actual genotype of ALL of the offspring in the next generation of this cross for fur color?
AA x aa
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
brown fur
39.
Which is the correct phenotype for this organism?
a)
BB
b)
blue
c)
green
d)
bb
40.
Tt is-
a)
homozygous dominant
b)
homozygous recessive
c)
heterozygous
d)
none of these
41.

If your genotype is Bb, then you can only pass a B or b to your child but you can't pass both.

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

42.

One gene for the type of earlobes a person will have will be in each gamete.

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Independent Assortment

c)

Law of Segregation

43.

Which of Mendel's laws states that alleles are separated during meiosis?

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

44.

Which of Mendel's laws states that alleles are distributed to gametes independent of one another?

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

45.
This image shows a...
a)
Punnett Square
b)
Phenotype
c)
Genotype
d)
Dominant allele
46.

The failure of one or more pairs of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate "normally" during meiosis is called _____________________.

a)

nondisjunction

b)

anaphase I

c)

nondiploidy

d)

karyotype

47.
When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, _________________ occurs
a)
crossing over
b)
mutagenesis
c)
hybridization
d)
fertilization
48.
What is the gender of the individual whose karyotype is seen in the image?
a)
Male
b)
Female
49.
What makes this individual's karyotype not normal?
a)
An extra sex chromosome
b)
An extra autosome
c)
A missing sex chromosome
d)
A missing autosome
50.
Down's syndrome occurs because of a(n)
a)
missing sex chromosome
b)
extra sex chromosome
c)
additional 21st chromosome
d)
additional 18th chromosome
51.
What gamete possibilities could come from this parent's genotype?
a)
AB, AB, aB, aB
b)
Ab, AB, Ab, ab
c)
Ab, Ab, Ab, Ab
d)
AB, aB, ab, aB
52.

What goes in box 3

a)

Aabb

b)

AABB

c)

AAbb

d)

aaBb

53.
Based off this punnett square, what fraction of the offspring will have wrinkled, yellow seeds?
a)
9/16
b)
3/16
c)
1/16
d)
16/16
54.

In snapdragons, the allele for red flower color (CR ) is incompletely dominant to the allele for white flower color (CW ). Snapdragons that are heterozygous for flower color have a pink phenotype.

Which of the following crosses could yield all three flower color phenotypes (red, white, and pink) among the offspring?

a)

CRCR × CWCW

b)

CRCR × CRCW

c)

CRCW × CRCW

d)

CRCW × CWCW

55.

The below shows the genotypes that result in four different blood types in humans.

Based on the information in the table, which of the following describes alleles I A and I B ?

a)

The I A and I B alleles show sex linkage.

b)

The I A allele is recessive to the I B allele.

c)

The I A allele is dominant to the I B allele.

d)

The I A and I B alleles show codominance.

56.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a female who is a carrier for hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHXH
d)
XhY
57.
Which of the following genotypes belongs in the red box in the Punnett square?
a)
XBXb
b)
XbXb
c)
XbY
d)
XBY
58.
If a woman is a carrier for a sex linked recessive trait of hemophilia and her husband has hemophilia, which of the following is true? Make a punnett square!
a)
All sons will have hemophilia
b)
all daughters will have hemophilia
c)
50% of daughters and 50% of sons have hemophilia
d)
100% of sons have hemophilia and 100% of daughters are carriers
59.
If this pedigree shows an autosomal recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual II-3 be?
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
None of the above
60.
How are individuals III-2 and II-4 related?
a)
Cousins
b)
Dad and Daughter
c)
Uncle and Niece
d)
Grandpa and Granddaughter
61.
What type of heredity is shown in the pedigree?
(hint: check your notes - "modes of inheritance")
a)
Sex-Linked Dominant
b)
Sex-Linked Recessive
c)
Autosomal Dominant
d)
Autosomal Recessive 
62.

If this pedigree shows a recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual 4 be?

a)

HH

b)

Hh

c)

hh

63.
In a pedigree, what shape represents a male?
a)
circle
b)
square
c)
triangle
d)
diamond
64.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
65.
How are individuals I-2 and III-5 related?
a)
Grandpa and grandson
b)
Mom and son
c)
Uncle and nephew
d)
Grandma and grandson
66.
Darwin wrote that organisms with traits that are best suited to the environment will ________________
a)
increase in number
b)
become extinct
67.
Scientist find dinosaur fossils in the bottom of a cliff and mammals fossils in the middle layer, what can be inferred?
a)
dinosaurs ate plants
b)
dinosaurs were eaten by the mammals
c)
they lived at the same time
d)
dinosaurs lived before the mammals
68.
Which term refers to the process by which individuals that are better suited to the environment survive and reproduce therefore passing down their genes to their offspring? 
a)
Evolution 
b)
Variation 
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection 
69.
Which species’ DNA is most similar to the DNA of the toothed whale? 
a)
Hippopotamus 
b)
Baleen Whale
c)
Grazing Mammals
d)
Camels
70.
The separation of a group of individuals from the rest of the population is referred to as 
a)
genetic drift
b)
natural selection
c)
geographic isolation
d)
survival of the fittest
71.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
72.

What type of evidence is represented in the picture above:

a)

Fossils

b)

Vestigial Structures

c)

DNA

d)

Homologous Structures

73.

What type of evidence is shown in the image above?

a)

Fossils

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Homologous Structures

d)

DNA

74.

What type of evidence are shown in the picture above?

a)

Fossils

b)

Embryology

c)

Homologous Structures

d)

Vestigial Structures

75.
The similarities of the bones in the diagram provide evidence that---
a)
The organisms shown lived in the same natural envionrment
b)
The organisms shown may have developed from a common ancestor
c)
The organisms shown have the same genetic diseases
d)
All vertebrate species have identical forelimbs
76.
According to this data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to: 
a)
Species I
b)
Species II
c)
Species III
d)
Species IV
77.
The diagram shows fossils in different rock layers. Which of these statements about the age of these fossils is most likely correct?
a)
Fossil A and C are the same age
b)
Fossil B is older than fossil C
c)
Fossils A is older than fossil B
d)
Fossil D is older than fossil C
78.

Which scientist is known for his work that he did on the Galapagos Islands to develop his theory of natural selection?

a)

Gregor Mendel

b)

Charles Darwin

c)

Anton Van Leewenhoek

d)

Robert Brown

79.

The process by which two populations of the same species become so different that they can no longer interbreed.

a)

natural selection

b)

artificial selection

c)

speciation

d)

fossilization

80.

Overproduction, Genetic Variation, Struggle to Survive, and Successful Reproduction are the 4 parts of:

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Speciation

c)

Artificial Selection

d)

Fossilization

81.

A physical or behavioral trait that helps an organism survive and reproduce in its environment is called a what?

a)

An adaptation

b)

A response to a stimulus

c)

A mutation

d)

Evolution

82.

What most likely caused the finches on the Galapagos Islands to have beaks that were different from the finches on the mainland?

a)

There were different types of predators on the island.

b)

There were different types of food available on the island.

c)

The finches had no water to drink.

d)

The finches on the mainland could not fly high enough.

83.
The opossum and kangaroo both incubate their young in a pouch. This provides evidence that they---
a)
are descended from a common ancestor
b)
Have very similar skeletal structures
c)
belong to the same species
d)
must range great distances to eat
84.
The white feathers of a snowy owl allow it to blend in with its environment during the winter months (snow). This is an example of ________________
a)
Species
b)
Environmental Change
c)
Adaptation
d)
Variation
85.
Which of the following statements best explains why some mosquitoes survived after the first spraying?
a)
Some mosquitoes had a genetic mutation that made them resistant to the insecticide
b)
A.  All mosquitoes had a genetic mutation that made them resistant to the insecticide
c)
A.  None of the mosquitoes had a genetic mutation that made them resistant to the pesticide
86.
According to this data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to: 
a)
Species I
b)
Species II
c)
Species III
d)
Species IV
87.
A lion makes more cubs than the Sahara Desert can support (there's not enough prey around), so only a few of the cubs survive to become adults. They live on to reproduce.
Of the four parts of natural selection, which is this an example of?
a)
overproduction
b)
genetic variation
c)
selection
d)
adaptation
88.
Four present-day realities that some scientists use to support Darwin's theory of evolution?
a)
fossils
DNA
common bone structures
developmental similarities
b)
fossils
DNA
common bone structures
saliva
c)
fossils
common bone structures
plants
developmental similarities
d)
H2O
DNA
common bone structures
developmental similarities
89.

Genetic diversity in a species makes long term survival of some members

a)

impossible

b)

improvable

c)

more likely

d)

less likely

90.

The special niche occupied by a particular species is called a

a)

extinct

b)

punctuated equilibrium

c)

habitat

d)

all of the above

91.

All the possible gene combinations in a population.

a)

allele

b)

gene pool

c)

genome

d)

mitosis

92.

The frequency that single genes (alleles) for a trait appear in a population.

a)

Genome

b)

Gene frequency

c)

Genetic Drift

d)

Population Frequency

93.
Examples of a producer
a)
frog
b)
algae
c)
worm
d)
mouse
94.
The shrew provides energy for the _______?
a)
cricket
b)
grasshopper
c)
frog
d)
snake
95.
Where do all life forms get their energy?
a)
Earth's Core
b)
Water
c)
Plants
d)
The Sun
96.
What is this called?
a)
Food Web
b)
Food Chain
c)
Abiotic Factors
97.
What is this called?
a)
Food Web
b)
Food Chain
c)
Abiotic Factors
98.
All food chains begin with a ____________.
a)
primary consumer
b)
secondary consumer
c)
producers
d)
scavengers
99.
Which best describes what a food chain shows you?
a)
Energy flow through an ecosystem
b)
Food flowing through an ecosystem
c)
Consumers going into other consumers
d)
Who eats who
100.
The diagram below shows the cycling of nutrients in an ecosystem.
The removal of which of the following groups would cause an immediate decrease in the amount of energy flowing through the system?
a)
Producers
b)
Consumers
c)
Decomposers
d)
Inorganic nutrients
101.
which symbiosis is this 
a)
parasitism 
b)
mutualism
c)
commensalism
d)
nonalism 
102.
symbiotic relationship in which both organisms benefit
a)
competition
b)
Mutualism
c)
nitrogen fixation
d)
energy pyramid
103.
The energy at each trophic level in the pryamid of energy decreases by a factor of ____.
a)
10
b)
1
c)
100
d)
2
104.
diagram that shows the energy available to each trophic level in an ecosystem; 10% is passed on to upper levels, the rest is lost as heat
a)
succession 
b)
cellular respiration
c)
energy pyramid
d)
biochemical cycle
105.
Study of interactions between organisms and their environment 
a)
niche
b)
community 
c)
ecology
d)
ecosystem
106.
Members of a species in a defined area
a)
Ecosystem
b)
community
c)
biodiversity
d)
population
107.
Organisms that breaks down and absorbs nutrients from dead organisms 
a)
consumer
b)
trophic level
c)
decomposer
d)
species
108.
A collection of organisms that make up a community as well as all of the nonliving aspects of the environment.
a)
Population
b)
Community
c)
Habitat
d)
Ecosystem
109.
Water temperature would be an example of ...
a)
A biotic factor
b)
An abiotic factor
110.
Which is NOT a process of the water cycle?
a)
precipitation
b)
freezing
c)
transpiration
d)
evaporation
111.
The process of plants losing water through their leaves is called ____.
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
transpiration
d)
exhaling
112.
Where is carbon stored in the environment?
a)
Fossil fuels
b)
Wood of trees
c)
Calcium carbonate (shells and bones)
d)
All of the above
113.

What process do the oxygen and carbon cycle directly rely on to cycle?

a)

photosynthesis

b)

precipitation

c)

nitrogen fixation

d)

transpiration

115.
Natural disasters such as flooding and tornadoes are linked to ________________.
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
old field
d)
ecosystem
115.
Natural disasters such as flooding and tornadoes are linked to ________________.
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
old field
d)
ecosystem
116.
What type of succession is shown going from figure A to figure B?
a)
primary succession
b)
eutrophication
c)
secondary succession
d)
intermediate
117.
succession that occurs in an area with no soil
a)
ecological succession 
b)
primary succession 
c)
secondary succession
d)
pioneer speciles
118.
Which definition best matches the term population?
a)
A measurement of people for a specific area.
b)
All the inhabitants of a particular area.
c)
Human beings in general.
d)
The increase in the number of people in a particular area.
119.
Which of the following is NOT a challenge to a growing population?
a)
Overcrowding
b)
Housing shortages
c)
Overuse of resources
d)
Increased food supplies
120.
If a pyramid graph is wider at the base, the population is decreasing. True or false?
a)
True
b)
False

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