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WorksheetsAQA Psychology Research Methods Summary
Total questions: 72
Worksheet time: 36mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which statement is the non-directional hypothesis?
a)
To investigate whether there is a gender difference in judging the speed of a car.
b)
Males are more accurate in judging the speed of a car than females.
c)
There is a difference in the accuracy of judging the speed of a car between males and females
d)
Females are more accurate in judging the speed of a car than males.
2.
An experiment investigated whether close proximity to strangers increased heart rate. The DV would be:
a)
Proximity of strangers
b)
The strangers
c)
Heart rate
d)
The participants
3.
Which would not be an effective way of operationalising aggression?
a)
Number of punches thrown
b)
Number of expletives used
c)
Distance someone stood from someone else
d)
Facial expressions
4.
An effective hypothesis should include:
a)
A clearly operationalised co-variable
b)
A clearly operationalised DV
c)
A clearly operationalised EV
d)
A clear aim
5.
Which best describes a confounding variable?
a)
Any variable, other than the IV, that may have systematically affected the DV
b)
Any variable that may potentially affect the IV or the DV
c)
Any cue from the researcher or research situation that may reveal the aims of the study
d)
Any effect of the investigator's behaviour that may affect the outcome of research
6.
'Individual differences between participants that affect the DV', best describes which of the following?
a)
Extraneous variables
b)
Confounding variables
c)
Situational variables
d)
Participant variables
7.
The use of chance in order to control for the effects of bias best describes which of the following?
a)
Situational variables
b)
Demand characteristics
c)
Standardised instructions
d)
Randomisation
8.
Standardisation is useful when it comes to investigations being...
a)
Reinterpreted
b)
Replicated
c)
Complicated
d)
Estimated
9.
An experiment that measured the effects of an earhtquake on stress levels (measured before and after) would be a:
a)
Quasi-experiment
b)
Lab experiment
c)
Natural experiment
d)
Field experiment
10.
Which would not be classed as a 'true' experiment?
a)
Field experiment
b)
Lab experiment
c)
Quasi-experiment
d)
Controlled experiment
11.
Which one is not usually a strength of a lab experiment?
a)
High external validity
b)
Establishes cause and effect
c)
Precise control of variables
d)
Replication is possible
12.
Which is not possible in quasi-experiment?
a)
Operationalisation
b)
Random allocation
c)
Standardisation
d)
Replication
13.
Which is not a type of experimental design?
a)
Repeated measures
b)
Independent groups
c)
Matched pairs
d)
Participant design
14.
Which is not a type of order effect?
a)
Fatigue
b)
Concentration
c)
Practice
d)
Boredom
15.
Which of these is an attempt to control for order effects in a repeated measures design?
a)
Random allocation
b)
Control condition
c)
Demand characteristics
d)
Counterbalancing
16.
Which of these is an attempt to control for order effects in a independent groups design?
a)
Random allocation
b)
Control condition
c)
Demand characteristics
d)
Counterbalancing
17.
Which is not a feature of random sampling?
a)
Obtain a complete list of the target population
b)
Identify sub-groups/strata within the population
c)
Assign all the names on the list a number
d)
Generate a sample using a lottery method
18.
Choosing every 4th house on a street is an example of:
a)
Opportunity sampling
b)
Volunteer sampling
c)
Systematic sampling
d)
Stratified sampling
19.
Which is most likely to produce a representative sample?
a)
Opportunity sampling
b)
Volunteer sampling
c)
Systematic sampling
d)
Stratified sampling
20.
Standing by a busy shopping centre and picking people 'at random' to be part of the sample is:
a)
Opportunity sampling
b)
Volunteer sampling
c)
Systematic sampling
d)
Stratified sampling
21.
Which is not an alternative way of gaining consent?
a)
Affirmative consent
b)
Presumptive consent
c)
Prior general consent
d)
Retrospective consent
22.
Under what age can participants not give consent to participate in a study?
a)
14
b)
16
c)
18
d)
21
23.
Which is not a major principle of the BPS code of conduct?
a)
Respect
b)
Incompetence
c)
Responsibility
d)
Integrity
24.
Which would not typically be part of a debriefing?
a)
Informing participants of the aim of the investigation
b)
Informing participants of the right to withdraw data
c)
Thanking participants for their involvement
d)
Allocating participants to different conditions
25.
Which is not a reason to conduct a pilot study?
a)
To save time and money
b)
To road test the procedure
c)
To make modifications if necessary
d)
To deal with order effects
26.
Which describes a double-blind procedure.
a)
When participants do not know the aim of the study
b)
When participants do know the aim of the study
c)
When neither the participants nor the investigator know the aim of the study
d)
When both the participants and the investigator know the aim of the study
27.
In a drug trial, the group that received a placebo would be the:
a)
Experimental condition
b)
Blind condition
c)
Control condition
d)
Mint condition
28.
Which would not be tested in a pilot study?
a)
The hypothesis
b)
The procedures
c)
The standardised instructions
d)
The materials to be used
29.
Which of these does not relate to observational techniques?
a)
Disclosed vs. undisclosed
b)
Complete vs. partial
c)
Participant vs. non-participant
d)
Controlled vs. naturalistic
30.
Which is an undisclosed participant observation?
a)
Rosenhan's pseudopatient study
b)
Milgram's obedience study
c)
Asch's conformity study
d)
Bandura's Bobo doll study
31.
Which is least likely to apply to participant observations?
a)
The risk of 'going native'
b)
Giving a first-hand account
c)
Insight into group mentality
d)
Low external validity
32.
'An observation that takes place in the setting where the target behaviour would usually occur', best describes:
a)
Disclosed observations
b)
Non-participant observations
c)
Naturalistic observations
d)
All obesrvations
33.
Which is not a way of sampling behaviour in an observation?
a)
Continuous recording
b)
Time sampling
c)
Event sampling
d)
Stratified sampling
34.
To improve observations, pairs of researchers must establish:
a)
Inter-researcher validity
b)
Extra-sensory perception
c)
Inter-observer reliability
d)
Observer bias
35.
Which would not be associated with an effective behavioural category?
a)
Ambiguity
b)
Measurability
c)
Observable
d)
Self-evident
36.
Which is a term which describes an ineffective behavioural category?
a)
Dustbin
b)
Binbag
c)
Dustcart
d)
Binliner
37.
Which is an open question?
a)
Do you smoke? (Y/N)
b)
Why do you smoke?
c)
Smoking is bad for you', strongly agree 5 4 3 2 1 strongly disagree
d)
How many cigarettes do you smoke a day?
38.
A questionnaire can be used as part of an experiment to measure:
a)
The dependent variable
b)
An extraneous variable
c)
A confounding variable
d)
Any variable
39.
Which one is not a type of interview?
a)
Multi-structured
b)
Structured
c)
Unstructured
d)
Semi-structured
40.
When a respondent answers in a way that makes them look 'good', this is know as:
a)
Acquiescence bias
b)
Observer bias
c)
Social desirability bias
d)
Response bias
41.
Which one is not a style of closed question?
a)
Likert scale
b)
Fixed choice option
c)
Free response option
d)
Rating scale
42.
To reduce interviewer bias, interview schedules should be:
a)
Individualised
b)
Itemised
c)
Standardised
d)
Operationalised
43.
Which one is not a feature of a well-written question?
a)
Lack of jargon
b)
Emotionally neutral
c)
Ambiguous
d)
No double-negatives
44.
Before questions are distributed, questions should be tested with a small group of respondents. This is a:
a)
Matched pairs design
b)
Double-blind study
c)
Control condition
d)
Pilot study
45.
When an untested variable may be causing the relationship between co-variables, this is:
a)
The first variable problem
b)
The second variable problem
c)
The third variable problem
d)
The fourth variable problem
46.
Which is not a difference between correlation and an experiment?
a)
Experiments take place in a lab, correlations do not
b)
Unlike in experiments, there is no IV or DV in a correlation
c)
You can't really identify causal relationships in a correlation
d)
There is no control of extraneous variables in a correlation
47.
Which best describes a negative correlation?
a)
As one variable falls, so does the other
b)
As one variable rises, the other falls
c)
There is no relationship between the two variables
d)
Both variables rise and then fall
48.
Which is not an advantage of correlational research?
a)
They may reveal interesting patterns that can be followed up using other methods
b)
They tend to be quick and economical to carry out
c)
They provide information on the strength and direction of relationships
d)
They can demonstrate causal relationships
49.
Which could be classed a quantitative data?
a)
An extract from a diary
b)
A transcript from an interview
c)
Notes from a counselling session
d)
Scores on an IQ test
50.
Which is not a strength of primary data?
a)
It requires less time and effort than secondary data
b)
It can be designed to target the information that the researcher needs
c)
It tends to have higher validity than secondary data
d)
It is acquired first hand from the participants themselves
51.
Which is most likely to produce qualitative data?
a)
An experiment
b)
A structured observation
c)
A questionnaire of closed questions
d)
An interview
52.
Which is another way of saying publication bias in a meta-analysis?
a)
The sock drawer problem
b)
The file drawer problem
c)
The filing cabinet problem
d)
The missing file problem
53.
Which is not a measure of central tendency?
a)
Range
b)
Mean
c)
Median
d)
Mode
54.
Which would be the most appropriate measure of central tendency for the following data set: 34, 36, 36, 37, 38, 39, 39, 673?
a)
The mean
b)
The median
c)
The mode
d)
None of them
55.
A high standard deviation might indicate:
a)
A high mean
b)
A low dispersion
c)
A widely spread set of data
d)
A repeated measures design
56.
Adding 1 as part of the calculation of the range is a:
a)
Standard error
b)
Normal distribution
c)
Way of balancing extreme scores
d)
Mathematical correction
57.
Which would be most suitable for displaying a correlation?
a)
Line graph
b)
Bar chart
c)
Histogram
d)
Scattergram
58.
What percentage of the population fall within one standard deviation above and below the mean on normal distribution?
a)
6.826%
b)
68.26%
c)
3.413%
d)
34.13%
59.
A very easy test would be likely to produce a:
a)
Normal distribution
b)
Positive skew
c)
Negative skew
d)
Curvilinear relationship
60.
Which is not a feature of a normal distribution?
a)
The mean, median and mode are all at the same point
b)
Most scores are located in the middle of the curve
c)
The extreme ends of the curve never touch the x-axis
d)
The graph demonstrates a positive correlation
61.
Order of magnitude calculations is another way of saying:
a)
Convert to a decimal
b)
Produce a ratio
c)
Simplify
d)
Make an estimate
62.
If there were 6 male students in a psychology class of 20, the ratio 6:14 would be:
a)
A part to whole ratio
b)
A whole to part ratio
c)
A part to part ratio
d)
A cheek to cheel ratio
63.
The symbol α means?
a)
Much greater than
b)
Inequality
c)
Proportionate to
d)
Weak approximation
64.
John scored 6 out of 25 in a test. What percentage is this?
a)
34%
b)
16%
c)
36%
d)
24%
65.
Which is not a condition for using the sign test?
a)
Nominal data
b)
Repeated measures design
c)
Correlation
d)
Testing for a difference
66.
What is the accepted level of significance in psychology?
a)
0.05
b)
0.01
c)
0.1
d)
0.5
67.
On which occasion would a researcher use a more stringent level of significance?
a)
When conducting a study involving animals
b)
When conducting a study that cannot be repeated
c)
When the IV changes naturally
d)
A matched pairs design
68.
Which piece of information is not required to read a critical value table?
a)
The N value
b)
Knowing if the hypothesis is directinoal or non-directional
c)
The significance level
d)
The degrees of freedom
69.
Which of the following is not one of the aims of peer review?
a)
To validate the quality and relevance of research
b)
To suggest improvements or amendments
c)
To slow down the rate of progress in a scientific field
d)
To allocate research funding
70.
Publication in peer review is similar to:
a)
The bottom of the ladder problem
b)
The filing cabinet problem
c)
The lost luggage problem
d)
The file drawer problem
71.
During peer review, it is usually the case that the peer doing the reviewing remains:
a)
Anomalous
b)
Anonymous
c)
Analogous
d)
Ubiquitous
72.
According to research, what fraction of absences from work are caused by 'mild to moderate' mental disorders?
a)
A half
b)
A third
c)
A quarter
d)
A fifth
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