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Science Final

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is...

a)

ozone

b)

water vapor

c)

oxygen

d)

nitrogen

2.

Air pressure is typically measured with a...

a)

thermometer

b)

satellite

c)

barometer

d)

hot air balloon

3.

The layers of the atmosphere are classified according to changes in ...

a)

altitude

b)

temperature

c)

air pressure

d)

pollutants

4.

The layer of the atmosphere that reflects radio waves is called ...

a)

mespsphere

b)

troposphere

c)

ionosphere

d)

stratosphere

5.

Most air pollution is caused by...

a)

ozone

b)

acid rain

c)

photochemical smog

d)

the burning of fossil fuels

6.

Most air pollution is caused by...

a)

ozone

b)

acid rain

c)

photochemical smog

d)

the burning of fossil fuels

7.

Weather is the condition of Earth's atmosphere at a particular time and place.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Weather is the condition of Earth's atmosphere at a particular time and place.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

The force pushing on an area or surface is known as density.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Earth's weather occurs in the thermosphere.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

The ozone layer is found in the exosphere.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

When sulfur and nitrogen oxides mix with water in the air, they form photochemical smog.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

What two gases make up approximately 99% of Earth's atmosphere?

a)

N & CO2

b)

O & CO2

c)

N & H

d)

N & O

14.

In the troposphere, as altitude increases...

a)

air pressure decreases

b)

temperature decreases

c)

air density decreases

d)

all answers are correct

15.

The envelope of gases that surrounds the planet is...

a)

weather

b)

atmosphere

c)

water vapor

d)

nitrogen

16.

____ is a form of oxygen that has three oxygen atoms in each molecule.

a)

Water

b)

Oxygen

c)

Ozone

d)

Nitric Acid

17.

Water in the form of a gas is...

a)

water vapor

b)

smog

c)

acid rain

d)

haze

18.

Because air has mass, it also has other properties, these are pressure and...

a)

density

b)

solid material

c)

mass

d)

gravity

19.

Where does pure air exist?

a)

at high altitudes

b)

at low altitudes

c)

in laboratories

d)

it does not exist

20.

The distance above sea level is...

a)

density

b)

altitude

c)

air pressure

d)

sea level

21.

Two common kinds of barometers are mercury and ...

a)

aneroid

b)

android

c)

anemic

d)

anomoly

22.

This consists of a glass tube opened at the bottom and partially filled with mercury...

a)

mercury barometer

b)

aneroid barometer

c)

digital thermometer

d)

wizometer

23.

What changes in air pressure would occur if you carried a barometer down a mine shaft?

a)

pressure would stay the same

b)

pressure would decrease

c)

pressure would increase

24.

In which atmospheric layer does the ozone layer occur?

a)

troposphere

b)

stratosphere

c)

mesosphere

d)

thermosphere

25.

Which layer of the atmosphere is the hottest?

a)

troposphere

b)

thermosphere

c)

mesosphere

d)

stratosphere

26.

Which layer of the atmosphere does weather occur?

a)

troposphere

b)

stratosphere

c)

mesosphere

d)

thermosphere

27.

Which layer of the atmosphere protects the Earth from most meteoroids?

a)

troposphere

b)

stratosphere

c)

mesosphere

d)

thermosphere

28.

The ionosphere and the exosphere can be found in which layer of the atmosphere?

a)

troposphere

b)

stratosphere

c)

mesosphere

d)

thermosphere

29.

Harmful substances in the air, water, or soil are...

a)

pollutants

b)

trace gases

c)

ozone

30.

An example of a natural source of air pollution would be...

a)

forest fires

b)

exhaust from cars

c)

burning fossil fuels

d)

power plants

31.

An example of air pollution from a human source is...

a)

forest fires

b)

dust storms

c)

soil erosion

d)

exhaust from cars

32.

Burning fossil fuels produces a variety of pollutants, including...

a)

carbon monoxide

b)

nitrogen oxides

c)

sulfur oxides

d)

all answers are correct

33.

photo in photochemical means...

a)

picture

b)

haze

c)

light

d)

rays

34.

The EPA is the regulatory agency that monitors air quality, EPA stands for...

a)

Environmental Production Association

b)

Environmental Protection Agency

c)

Environmental Propaganda Agency

35.

What is the main pollutant in photochemical smog?

a)

nitrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

ozone

d)

hydrogen

36.

When are photochemical smog levels higher?

a)

winter

b)

spring

c)

summer

d)

fall

37.

What is a fossil?

a)

any dead organism

b)

the preserved remains or traces of an organism

c)

a perfect copy of a rock

d)

an unusual type of rock

38.

How do most fossils form?

a)

living things die and their remains are buried by sediments

b)

the hard parts of an organism dry out in the air

c)

the soft parts of an organism change to stone

d)

freezing preserves the remains of an organism

39.

The fossil record shows that life on Earth has changed over time. For example, paleontologists have found that older rocks contain fossils of

a)

organisms that are more complex than those alove today

b)

both simple and complex organisms

c)

only organisms that are alive today

d)

organisms that are simpler than those alive today

40.

The process by which all the different kinds of living things have changed over long periods of time is called...

a)

sedimentation

b)

replacement

c)

deposition

d)

evolution

41.

a fossil formed when minerals replace all or part of an organism is called a

a)

mold

b)

petrified fossil

c)

cast

d)

trace fossil

42.

Which type of fossil can provide clues about the activities of ancient organisms?

a)

trace fossils

b)

remains preserved in amber

c)

carbon films

d)

molds and casts

43.

The relative age of a rock is

a)

its age compared to the ages of other rocks

b)

less than the age of the fossils the rock contains

c)

the number of years since the rock formed

d)

its age based on how much carbon-14 the rock contains

44.

The law of superposition states that, in horizontal layers of sedimentary rock, each layer is...

a)

younger than the layer above it and older than the layer below it

b)

neither older nor younger than the other layers

c)

older than the layer above it and younger than the layers below it

d)

always older than any vertical layers

45.

The fossils of organisms that were widely distributed but only lived during a short period of time are called...

a)

trace fossils

b)

petrified fossils

c)

index fossils

d)

carbon film fossils

46.

Why are index fossils useful to geologists?

a)

they tell the absolute age of the rock in which they occur

b)

they tell the ages of many different rock layers

c)

they tell the age of the rock at one location only

d)

they tell the relative age of the rock in which they occur

47.

Radioactive decay occurs when atoms of an unstable element

a)

become part of a fossil

b)

join with atoms of another element

c)

break down to form atoms of another element

d)

are exposed to chemical weathering

48.

The time it takes for half of the radioactive atoms in a sample of a radioactive element to decay is the elements...

a)

relative age

b)

potassium-argon date

c)

absolute age

d)

half-life

49.

Radioactive dating enables geologists to determine

a)

the age of the atoms in a rock

b)

the half-life of a fossil organism

c)

the relative ages of rocks

d)

the absolute ages of rocks

50.

Radioactive dating works best with what type of rocks?

a)

igneous rocks

b)

sedimentary rocks

c)

metamorphic rocks

d)

fossilized rocks

51.

Originally, the geologic time scale placed Earth's rocks in order by...

a)

radioactive dates

b)

relative age

c)

composition

d)

decades and centuries

52.

The geologic time scale is a record of

a)

the thickness of sedimentary rock layers

b)

the rate of fossil formation

c)

the life forms and geologic events in Earth's history

d)

the time since the evolution of dinosaurs

53.

The Paleozoic, Mesozoic, and Cenozoic are divisions in the geologic time scale called...

a)

centuries

b)

periods

c)

layers

d)

eras

54.

The Mesozoic Era is divided into the Triassic, the Jurassic, and the Cretaceous. These divisions of the geologic time scale are called

a)

periods

b)

eras

c)

unconformities

d)

decades

55.

Precambrian Time, which includes most of Earth's history, began with

a)

an ice age

b)

Earth forming from a mass of dust and gas

c)

an asteroid impact

d)

the formation of thick deposits of sediment

56.

About 260 million years ago, Earth's continents moved together to form the supercontinent called...

a)

Antartica

b)

Cambria

c)

North America

d)

Pangaea

57.

How did Earth change about 2.5 billion year ago when many organisms began using photosynthesis to make food?

a)

the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere increased

b)

mass extinctions occurred

c)

the oceans became larger

d)

rainfall increased

58.

The Cenozoic era is often called the Age of ...

a)

Fishes

b)

Reptiles

c)

Amphibians

d)

Mammals

59.

A type of organism that no longer exists on Earth is said to be

a)

fossilized

b)

sedimentary

c)

extinct

d)

petrified

60.

In which type of fossil might you find the remains of an insect preserved with little or no change?

a)

trace fossil

b)

replacement fossil

c)

mold

d)

fossil in amber

61.

How would the Earth be different if its surface had never cooled during early Precambrian time?

a)

there would be no volcanic eruptions

b)

water vapor would never have condensed to form the oceans

c)

the atmosphere would contain no carbon dioxide

d)

the second atmosphere would never have formed

62.

What is the age of an intrusion of igneous rock in relation to the sedimentary rock layers though which it passes?

a)

sometimes younger, sometimes older

b)

always older

c)

the same age as the other rocks

d)

always younger

63.

During the Cambrian Explosion that began the Paleozoic Era, the many new forms of life that evolved

a)

lived on land

b)

were invertebrates that lived in the sea

c)

were vertebrates covered with scales or fur

d)

were single-celled

64.

During the Devonian Period, animals that could live on land began to evolve, These animals still spent part of their lives in the water, what are these animals called?

a)

trilobites

b)

reptiles

c)

amphibians

d)

dinosaurs

65.

What do most scientists think caused the mass extinction of dinosaurs and other organisms at the end of the Cretaceous Period?

a)

Volcanic eruptions covered large areas with lava

b)

an object from space struck Earth

c)

An ice age covered most of Earth with ice

d)

the dinosaurs ate too many other organisms and then starved

66.

Earth's atmosphere, oceans, and continents began to form during the first several hundred million years of

a)

Precambrian Time

b)

the Paleozoic Era

c)

the Mesozoic Era

d)

the Cenozoic Era

67.

Paleontologists are scientists who study ___.

a)

fossils

b)

archeology

c)

ancient organisms

68.

Scientists know how groups of animals changed over time by studying information contained in the

a)

textbook

b)

fossil record

c)

sedimentary rock

69.

Plant leaves may form a fossil called a(n) ___ , a thin layer of carbon on rock.

a)

carbon film

b)

petrified fossil

c)

mold

70.

Certain ammonites are used as ___fossils because they lived in many different areas but for only a brief time.

a)

index

b)

trace

c)

petrified

71.

Certain ammonites are used as ___fossils because they lived in many different areas but for only a brief time.

a)

index

b)

trace

c)

petrified

72.

Scientists hypothesize that Earth formed at the same time as the other planets and sun, roughly ___ years ago.

a)

4.6 million

b)

3.5 billion

c)

4.6 billion

d)

3.5 million

73.

True or False

As a Glacier moves, plucking breaks down pieces of bedrock from the ground.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

A_______ is an area of wave washed sediment along the coast, it can also be created when sand is carried downstream by a river and spreads along the coast.

a)

Tributary

b)

Bluff

c)

Longshore drift

d)

Beach

75.

A________ is part of the shore that sticks out into the ocean.

a)

Beach

b)

Headland

c)

Spit

d)

Barrier beach

76.

Sediment that is finer than sand and is sometimes deposited in layers far from its source is called________.

a)

Sand dunes

b)

Loess

c)

Desert Pavement

d)

Blowout

77.

As waves repeatedly hit the beach some of the sediment moves down the beach with the current, in a process called_____.

a)

Deflation

b)

Deposition

c)

Longshore drift

d)

Emission

78.

Deflation can sometimes create an area of rock fragment called_______.

a)

Sand dunes

b)

Loess

c)

Desert pavement

d)

Blowout

79.

How could sand dunes be held in place to keep them from drifting onto a parking lot?

a)

Plants could be planted on the dunes.

b)

A fence might be placed at the edge of the dunes.

c)

Neither A nor B would work.

d)

Both A and B would work.

80.
Where is the  point on Earth's surface with zero degrees latitude and zero degrees longitude located?
a)
At the North Pole
b)
At the South Pole
c)
Where the Prime Meridian and Equator Cross
d)
in Greewich, England
81.
If one centimeter on a map represents 25,000 centimeters on the ground, the scale of the map is...
a)
1 : 250,000
b)
1 : 2,500,000
c)
1 centimeter = 2.5 kilometers
d)
1 : 25,000
82.
A landform that has high elevation and a more or less level surface is a ___.
a)
coastal plain
b)
plateau
c)
mountain system
d)
lowland
83.
A topographic map differs from a road map in that the topographic map shows...
a)
directions and distance
b)
elevation, relief, and slope
c)
streams and lakes
d)
highways and expressways
84.
One major difference between a coastal plain and an interior plain is in...
a)
elevation 
b)
relief
c)
slope
d)
flatness
85.
What term describes the difference in elevation between the highest and lowest parts of an area?
a)
topography
b)
landform
c)
relief
d)
plateau
86.
Topographic maps are usually large-scale maps that show...
a)
entire continents
b)
only rivers and lakes
c)
a close-up view of part of Earth's surface
d)
all land north or south of the equator
87.
True or False: The Rocky Mountains have low relief and high elevation.
a)
True
b)
False
88.
True or False: Lines of latitude run from north to south, meeting at the poles.
a)
True
b)
False
89.
True or False: On a road map, the map key shows symbols that represent a highway.
a)
True
b)
False
90.
Latitude and longitude are measured in pixels, each of which represents 1/360 of the way around a full circle.
a)
True
b)
False
91.
True or False: The prime meridian circles Earth halfway between the North and South poles.
a)
True
b)
False
92.
Mapmakers use a framework of lines, called a(n) _____, to represent Earth's curved surface on a map.
a)
map projection
b)
globe
c)
topographic map
d)
physical map
93.
On a topographic map, points of equal elevation are connected by _____.
a)
Index Contour 
b)
Contour Lines
c)
Rivers
d)
Highways
94.
The ____ of the North Pole is 90 degrees North.
a)
longitude
b)
latitude
c)
equator
d)
prime meridian
95.
A world map drawn using a(n) ___ projection would correctly show the relative sizes of Earth's landmasses.
a)
Mercator
b)
Equal-Area
c)
Conical
d)
Peterson
96.
The vast, flat or gently rolling grassland in the interior of North America is called the ____.
a)
Great Hills
b)
Great Plains
c)
Mojave Desert
d)
Appalachian Mountains
97.
In the U.S., many topographic maps have a(n) ___ of 1 : 24,000.
a)
distance
b)
scale
c)
relief
d)
slope
98.
Pictures of Earth's surface, called ____, are based on data obtained by Landsat satellites.
a)
satellite images
b)
topographic maps
99.

The process by which natural forces move weathered rock and soil from one place to another is called...

a)

soil conservation

b)

deposition

c)

abrasion

d)

erosion

100.

Landslides, mudflows, slump, and creep are all examples of...

a)

mechanical weathering

b)

runoff

c)

mass movement

d)

soil formation

101.

Water erosion begins when runoff from rainfall flows in a thin layer over the land in a kind of erosion called...

a)

mass erosion

b)

sheet erosion

c)

creep

d)

gullying

102.

A wide sloping deposit of sediment formed where a stream leaves a mountain range is called a(n)

a)

divide

b)

drainage basin

c)

alluvial fan

d)

slump

103.

Deltas are built up by

a)

deposition

b)

leaching

c)

abrasion

d)

erosion

104.

What happens as gravity pulls water down a slope?

a)

kinetic energy changes to potential energy

b)

both kinetic and potential energy vanish

c)

energy is stored for future use

d)

potential energy changes to kinetic energy

105.

What causes most sediment to wash or fall into a river?

a)

friction

b)

deposition

c)

mass movement and runoff

d)

turbulence

106.

As more water flows through a river, its speed will

a)

stay the same

b)

increase

c)

decrease

d)

reduce friction between the water and the streambed

107.

What is the main difference between continental glaciers and valley glaciers?

a)

Continental glaciers are much larger and thicker

b)

Each type of glacier is made of different materials

c)

Valley glaciers cause more erosion

d)

Continental glaciers never melt

108.

The process in which rock fragments freeze to the bottom of a glacier and then are carried away when the glacier moves is called...

a)

plucking

b)

surging

c)

valley widening

d)

abrasion

109.

As the energy of a wave moves through the water, what happens to the water particles themselves?

a)

They are carried away.

b)

They sink to the bottom.

c)

They move up and down, but do not move forward.

d)

They slowly move backward.

110.

A landscape in which a layer of limestone close to the surface erodes into deep valleys, caverns, and sinkholes is called

a)

loess

b)

till

c)

headland

d)

karst topography

111.

In deserts, deflation can sometimes create an area of rock fragments called a...

a)

sand dune

b)

loess deposit

c)

desert pavement

d)

sand bar

112.

TRUE OR FALSE: The process that lays down sediment in a new location is called erosion.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

113.

TRUE OR FALSE: Water at the top of a slope as potential energy.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

114.

TRUE OR FALSE: As a river's slope increases, the power of the river to cause erosion usually decreases.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

115.

TRUE OR FALSE: A valley glacier spreads out over a large island or continent.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

116.

A mass movement called ___ occurs when sediment suddenly slips downhill in one large mass.

a)

creep

b)

landslide

c)

mudflow

d)

slump

117.

Loess is sediment made up of fine particles of silt that have been deposited far from their source by ___.

a)

water

b)

wind

c)

gravity

d)

runoff

118.

The process in which a glacier loosens and picks up rock as it moves is called ___.

a)

moraine

b)

till

c)

plucking

d)

abrasion

119.

___ is the term used by geologists for water that soaks into the ground, fills the openings in soil, and trickles into cracks and spaces in layers of rock.

a)

groundwater

b)

karst topography

c)

stalactites

d)

stalagmites

120.

Computer mapmakers digitize map data so that they can

a)

find latitude and longitude.

b)

display the data on a computer screen.

c)

make new map projections.

d)

compare satellite images.

121.

A topographic map differs from a road map in that the topographic map shows

a)

directions and distance.

b)

elevation, relief, and slope.

c)

streams and lakes.

d)

highways and expressways.

122.

For the Global Positioning System (GPS) to work, at any given time there must be

a)

GPS units in every car.

b)

at least three GPS satellites above the horizon.

c)

GPS units at several locations.

d)

an accurate map of the area.

123.

Elevation, relief, and slope on a topographic map are shwn using symbols called

a)

pixels.

b)

contour lines.

c)

contour intervals.

d)

GPS units.

124.

V-shaped contour lines pointing uphill indicate a

a)

mountain top.

b)

depression.

c)

ridge.

d)

valley.

125.

Topographic maps have many uses in

a)

science and engineering.

b)

business and government.

c)

everyday life.

d)

all of the answers are correct.

126.

Geologists refer to the rounded, eroded shapes of the Appalachian Mountains that

a)

the principle of uniformitarianism does not apply

b)

the mountains formed recently

c)

the mountains are made of soft rock

d)

the mountains have been eroding for millions of years

127.

The geological principle stating that the same processes that operate today also operated in the past is called

a)

mechanical weathering.

b)

chemical weathering.

c)

uniformitarianism.

d)

soil conservation.

128.

Ice wedging causes mechanical weathering of rock by means of

a)

heating and cooling.

b)

plant growth.

c)

animal actions.

d)

freezing and thawing of water.

129.

A permeable rock weathers easily because it

a)

is made up of small particles.

b)

contains many small, connected airspaces.

c)

is made up of only one mineral.

d)

is made up of many minerals.

130.

Living organisms in soil help to

a)

slow the rate of soil formation

b)

build up the C horizon

c)

mix the soil and make humus

d)

prevent the formation of humus

131.

What can cause the loss of soil that is not protected by plant cover?

a)

chemical weathering

b)

erosion by wind or water

c)

mechanical weathering

d)

too many organisms in the soil

134.

The practice of plowing fields along the curves of a slope is called

a)

drought plowing.

b)

contour plowing.

c)

no-till plowing.

d)

sod plowing.

133.

Soil is a valuable resource because it

a)

is important to all living things on land.

b)

contains sand and gravel.

c)

is rich in decomposers.

d)

has all three soil horizons.

134.

The practice of plowing fields along the curves of a slope is called

a)

drought plowing.

b)

contour plowing.

c)

no-till plowing.

d)

sod plowing.

135.

In conservation plowing, why are dead weeds and stalks of the previous year's crop left in the ground?

a)

to keep the soil from becoming too fertile

b)

to reduce the amount of seed needed for the next year's crop

c)

to retain moisture and hold the soil in place

d)

to keep more organisms out of the soil

136.

T/F: A thick mass of tough roots is called loess kept the fertile soil of the prairies in place and held on to moisture.

a)

True

b)

False

137.

T/F: The movement of rock particles by ice, wind, water, or gravity is called weathering.

a)

True

b)

False

138.

T/F: After chemical weathering, the chemical makeup of the weathered rock is the same as that of the original rock.

a)

True

b)

False

139.

T/F: The rate of chemical weathering is faster in hot, wet climates than in cold, dry climates.

a)

True

b)

False

140.

Some plants produce acids that result in ___ weathering.

a)

mechanical

b)

chemical

c)

typical

141.

Rapid chemical weathering can be caused by ____, which is rain combined with pollutants.

a)

acid rain

b)

plant growth

c)

soil erosion

142.

Some plants produce acids that result in ___ weathering.

a)

mechanical

b)

chemical

c)

typical

143.

Two factors that determine the rate of weathering are the type of rock and the ____.

a)

mineral content

b)

composition

c)

climate

144.

The best type of soil in which to grow plants is called ___.

a)

loess

b)

loam

c)

sod

145.

The thick mass of grass roots that helps hold prairie soil in place is called ___.

a)

sod

b)

loess

c)

loam

146.

Water and wind can ____ soil, or carry it away.

a)

Weather

b)

Erode

147.

In the Great Plains, ____ removed the grass and exposed the soil to wind erosion.

a)

plowing

b)

planting crops

c)

drought

148.

By leaving crop roots in the ground and stalks on the surface, no-till plowing helps prevent ___.

a)

soil erosion

b)

soil deposition

c)

weathering of rock

149.

Which layer of soil is made up of only partly weathered rock?

a)

A horizon

b)

B horizon

c)

C horizon

d)

Bedrock

150.

Which layer of soil contains fine soil particles and minerals but little organic matter?

a)

A horizon

b)

B horizon

c)

C horizon

d)

Bedrock

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