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ACC 1 Ch 14-17

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Revenue earned in one fiscal period but not received until a later fiscal period is called accrued revenue.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Annual straight-line depreciation expense of a plant asset is calculated as the original cost of the plant asset (minus the salvage value) divided by the years of estimated useful life.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Estimated federal income tax must be paid in quarterly installments.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

All accounts are listed on the unadjusted trial balance regardless of whether there is a balance or not.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Functional depreciation should be considered in estimating the useful life of computer equipment.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

For a business using the periodic inventory method, purchases are recorded in the Purchases account.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

The Income Summary account is one of the accounts used to adjust the Merchandise Inventory account at the end of the fiscal period.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

The annual straight-line depreciation of equipment costing $5,000.00 with a salvage value of $1,000.00 and a useful life of 5 years would be $800.00.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

The annual straight-line depreciation of equipment costing $7,000.00 with a salvage value of $1,000.00 and a useful life of 5 years would be $1,200.00.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

The annual straight-line depreciation of equipment costing $12,000.00 with a salvage value of $1,500.00 and a useful life of 7 years would be $1,500.00.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

The value of the insurance coverage used is recorded as a debit to Insurance Expense.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

The book value of a plant asset is its original cost minus accumulated depreciation.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

For a business using the periodic inventory method, the balance of Merchandise Inventory in the unadjusted trial balance represents the beginning balance. This does not include all purchases of merchandise made in the fiscal period.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

The difference between an asset’s account balance and its related contra account is called book value.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

The tax rate associated with an income tax bracket is called the marginal tax rate.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

The Prepaid Insurance account must be adjusted at the end of a fiscal period because the account balance does not reflect the value of the insurance premiums that expired during the period.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

A business can use any 12-month period for reporting its financial performance.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Cash and other assets expected to be exchanged for cash or consumed within a year are called current assets.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Depreciation expense is not recorded on all plant assets because one of the plant assets, land, is assumed to have an unlimited useful life.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

The marginal tax rate increases as the net income before federal income tax increases.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Congress sets the amounts and rates of the tax brackets used to calculate federal income tax expense.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

The total amount of depreciation expense that has been recorded since the purchase of a plant asset is called accumulated depreciation.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

The amount of the adjustment to Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts when the account balance is a $400.00 debit and $5,000.00 of accounts receivable is estimated to be uncollectible would be $5,400.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Accrued interest income on notes receivable is calculated using annual interest rate, principal, and the date of the note.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

The adjustment unique to merchandising businesses adjusts the Merchandise Inventory account.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

The journal entry to adjust Merchandise Inventory when beginning merchandise inventory is $125,000.00 and ending merchandise inventory is $115,000.00 would be a Debit to Income Summary and Credit to Merchandise Inventory.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Recording depreciation expenses is an application of the accounting concept Matching Expenses with Revenues.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Depreciation Expense is calculated by using the estimated salvage value, estimated useful life, and the original cost.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

The total amount of depreciation expense that has been recorded since the purchase of a plant asset is called accumulated depreciation.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

The adjustment for unpaid federal income tax includes an expense and a liability account.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

A physical inventory is always conducted at the end of each fiscal period.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

In the preparation of financial statements, accounting principles are applied the same way from one fiscal period to the next.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Dividends Payable is a long-term liability.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Management uses gross profit as a measure for how effectively the business is performing in its primary functions of buying and selling merchandise.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Data needed to prepare the Liabilities section of a balance sheet are obtained from the Credit column of an adjusted trial balance.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

The difference between an asset’s account balance and its related contra account balance is known as its book value.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

The amount of dividends paid during the year is presented on the statements of stockholders' equity.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Some management decisions can best be made after the amount of assets, liabilities, and stockholders’ equity in the business is determined.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Interest income is reported on the income statement in a section labeled Other Revenue.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Operating revenue less cost of merchandise sold equals net income.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

When a business’s expenses are less than the gross profit, the difference is known as a net income.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Increasing sales revenue while keeping cost of merchandise sold the same will increase gross profit.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

All the information required to prepare a statement of stockholders’ equity is obtained from the income statement, the adjusted trial balance, and general ledger.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

When more detailed information about an item on a financial statement is needed, a supporting schedule may be prepared.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

A statement of stockholders’ equity summarizes the changes in owners’ equity during a fiscal period.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Interest earned on notes receivable is reported in the Other Revenue section of an income statement.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Beginning merchandise inventory plus purchases made during the fiscal period minus ending inventory equals cost of merchandise sold.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

On an income statement, vertical analysis percentages are calculated by dividing the amount on each line by the amount of net sales.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

The operating revenue remaining after cost of merchandise sold has been deducted is

a)

gross profit

b)

cost of merchandise sold

c)

net sales

d)

total sales

50.

The income from operations is calculated by subtracting operating expenses from

a)

revenue

b)

net sales

c)

gross profit

d)

cost of merchandise sold

51.

One way to increase gross profit is to

a)

decrease operating expenses.

b)

decrease sales revenue.

c)

increase sales revenue.

d)

increase cost of merchandise

52.

A financial statement that reports the amount of dividends is

a)

an income statement

b)

a balance sheet

c)

a statement of stockholders' equity

d)

none of these

53.

The financial statement that reports the par value of the stock is

a)

an income statement.

b)

a balance sheet.

c)

a statement of stockholders’ equity.

d)

none of these.

54.

The total original price of all merchandise sold during a fiscal period is called

a)

the cost of merchandise sold.

b)

the cost of goods sold.

c)

the cost of sales.

d)

all of these.

55.

Preparing financial statements that provide information about a business’s financial condition, changes in this financial condition, and the progress of operations is an application of the accounting concept

a)

Consistent Reporting.

b)

Adequate Disclosure.

c)

Historical Cost.

d)

Matching Expenses with Revenue.

56.

In the accounting cycle, closing entries are journalized and posted

a)

after adjusting entries are posted to the general ledger.

b)

after the adjusted trial balance is prepared.

c)

after the financial statements are prepared.

d)

before the adjusted trial balance is prepared.

57.

The amount of sales, less sales discounts and sales returns

and allowances.

a)

Net Sales

b)

Purchases discount

c)

Gross Profit

d)

Operating Revenue

58.

The revenue remaining after cost of merchandise sold has

been deducted.

a)

Net Sales

b)

Purchases discount

c)

Gross Profit

d)

Operating Revenue

59.

The revenue earned by a business from its normal business

operations.

a)

Net Sales

b)

Purchases discount

c)

Gross Profit

d)

Operating Revenue

60.

A value assigned to a share of stock and printed on the

stock certificate.

a)

Par Value

b)

Net Sales

c)

Issued Value

d)

Gross Profit

61.

Liabilities owed for more than a year.

a)

Current Liabilities

b)

Long-Term Liabilities

c)

Capital Stock

d)

Retained Earnings

62.

Liabilities due within a short time, usually within a year.

a)

Current Liabilities

b)

Long-Term Liabilities

c)

Capital Stock

d)

Retained Earnings

63.

What is the first step of the accounting cycle?

a)

Source documents are checked for accuracy, and transactions are analyzed into debit and credit parts.

b)

An unadjusted trial balance is prepared from the general ledger.

c)

Transactions, from information on source documents, are recorded in journals.

d)

Journal entries are posted to the accounts payable ledger, the accounts receivable ledger,

and the general ledger.

64.

What is the second step of the accounting cycle?

a)

Source documents are checked for accuracy, and transactions are analyzed into debit and credit parts.

b)

An unadjusted trial balance is prepared from the general ledger.

c)

Transactions, from information on source documents, are recorded in journals.

d)

Journal entries are posted to the accounts payable ledger, the accounts receivable ledger,

and the general ledger.

65.

What is the third step of the accounting cycle?

a)

Source documents are checked for accuracy, and transactions are analyzed into debit and credit parts.

b)

An unadjusted trial balance is prepared from the general ledger.

c)

Transactions, from information on source documents, are recorded in journals.

d)

Journal entries are posted to the accounts payable ledger, the accounts receivable ledger,

and the general ledger.

66.

What is the fourth step of the accounting cycle?

a)

Schedules of accounts payable and accounts receivable are prepared from the subsidiary ledgers.

b)

An unadjusted trial balance is prepared from the general ledger.

c)

Adjusting entries are journalized.

d)

Adjusting entries are posted to the general ledger.

e)

An adjusted trial balance is prepared from the general ledger.

67.

What is the fifth step of the accounting cycle?

a)

Schedules of accounts payable and accounts receivable are prepared from the subsidiary ledgers.

b)

An unadjusted trial balance is prepared from the general ledger.

c)

Adjusting entries are journalized.

d)

Adjusting entries are posted to the general ledger.

e)

An adjusted trial balance is prepared from the general ledger.

68.

What is the sixth step of the accounting cycle?

a)

Schedules of accounts payable and accounts receivable are prepared from the subsidiary ledgers.

b)

An unadjusted trial balance is prepared from the general ledger.

c)

Adjusting entries are journalized.

d)

Adjusting entries are posted to the general ledger.

e)

An adjusted trial balance is prepared from the general ledger.

69.

What is the seventh step of the accounting cycle?

a)

Schedules of accounts payable and accounts receivable are prepared from the subsidiary ledgers.

b)

An unadjusted trial balance is prepared from the general ledger.

c)

Adjusting entries are journalized.

d)

Adjusting entries are posted to the general ledger.

e)

An adjusted trial balance is prepared from the general ledger.

70.

What is the eighth step of the accounting cycle?

a)

Schedules of accounts payable and accounts receivable are prepared from the subsidiary ledgers.

b)

An unadjusted trial balance is prepared from the general ledger.

c)

Adjusting entries are journalized.

d)

Adjusting entries are posted to the general ledger.

e)

An adjusted trial balance is prepared from the general ledger.

71.

What is the ninth step of the accounting cycle?

a)

Financial statements are prepared from the adjusted trial balance.

b)

Closing entries are journalized.

c)

Closing entries are posted to the general ledger.

d)

A post-closing trial balance is prepared from the general ledger.

72.

What is the tenth step of the accounting cycle?

a)

Financial statements are prepared from the adjusted trial balance.

b)

Closing entries are journalized.

c)

Closing entries are posted to the general ledger.

d)

A post-closing trial balance is prepared from the general ledger.

73.

What is the 11th step in the accounting cycle?

a)

Financial statements are prepared from the adjusted trial balance.

b)

Closing entries are journalized.

c)

Closing entries are posted to the general ledger.

d)

A post-closing trial balance is prepared from the general ledger.

74.

What is the LAST step in the accounting cycle?

a)

Financial statements are prepared from the adjusted trial balance.

b)

Closing entries are journalized.

c)

Closing entries are posted to the general ledger.

d)

A post-closing trial balance is prepared from the general ledger.

75.

Closing a contra revenue account results in a credit to Income Summary.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Closing a contra revenue account results in a debit to Income Summary.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

The Dividends account is closed by recording a debit to Retained Earnings.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

The Income Summary account has a normal credit balance.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

A company having earnings per share of $5.67 is more profitable than a company having earnings per share of $4.32.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

A company has set its gross margin benchmark at 40% to 42%. An increase in the ratio from 38% to 39% is a positive trend.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

An accounts receivable ratio above the target range may indicate that ThreeGreen is too liberal in extending credit to its customers.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Investors are willing to pay a higher P/E ratio for growth stocks than for income stocks.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Managers who want to control operating expenses will be more interested in the operating margin than the total operating expense ratio.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

The ratio that measures the relationship between cash and current assets is the quick ratio.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

Modifying a benchmark is an option for a business that fails to achieve its benchmark.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

The gross profit margin gives investors the best indication of how effectively a business is earning a profit from its normal business operations.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

Alpha Company’s benchmark total operating expense ratio is between 32.0% and 34.0%. An increase in its operating expense ratio from 33.1% to 34.2% is a favorable trend.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

A business with operating expenses that exceed its benchmark should always begin by reducing the number of employees, the largest operating expense for most businesses.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

A company has done everything possible to control rising merchandise costs. To maintain its gross margin, its only alternative is to sell more merchandise.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

Income stocks typically have a higher dividend yield than growth stocks.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Quick assets include cash and merchandise inventory.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

The gross profit ratio is also referred to as the gross margin.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

The dividend ratio is the most widely recognized measure of a corporation’s financial performance.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

A corporation should compare its working capital to industry standards.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

A corporation’s earnings per share is compared to its prior periods’ earnings per share or the corporation’s projected earnings per share.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

The current ratio assumes a business could sell its merchandise inventory quickly.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

Operating margin is also referred to as

a)

rate of return on sales.

b)

operating income.

c)

gross margin.

d)

earnings per share.

98.

The price-earnings ratio is an example of a

a)

solvency ratio.

b)

profitability ratio.

c)

liquidity ratio.

d)

market ratio.

99.

To rate the ability of a business to pay its current and long-term liabilities, investors use

a)

solvency ratio.

b)

profitability ratio.

c)

liquidity ratio.

d)

market ratio.

100.

Gross margin can be increased by

a)

selling more merchandise.

b)

buying less merchandise.

c)

increasing unit sales prices.

d)

reducing operating expenses.

101.

Vertical analysis ratios are an example of a

a)

solvency ratio.

b)

profitability ratio.

c)

liquidity ratio.

d)

market ratio.

102.

The least likely factor a business will use to determine a benchmark is

a)

government economic standards.

b)

actual ratios from the prior year.

c)

industry standards.

d)

its business plan.

103.

The ratio that gives the best indication of how effectively a business is earning a profit from its normal business operations is the

a)

debt ratio.

b)

quick ratio.

c)

gross margin.

d)

operating margin.

104.

The debt ratio is an example of a

a)

solvency ratio.

b)

profitability ratio.

c)

liquidity ratio.

d)

market ratio.

105.
Quick ratio=
a)
current assets - current liabilities
b)
current assets ÷ quick liabilities
c)
quick assets ÷ current liabilities
106.
Price earning ratio also known as P/E ratio
a)
earnings per share - market price per share
b)
market price per share ÷ earnings per share
c)
market price per share - dividends per share
107.
Working capital =
a)
current assets - current liabilities
b)
current assets ÷ current liabilities
c)
quick assets ÷ current liabilities
108.
Current ratio =
a)
Current assets - current liabilities
b)
current assets ÷ current liabilities
c)
quick assets ÷ quick liabilities
109.
Dividend yield = 
a)
dividends per share ÷ market price per share
b)
dividends - earnings per share
c)
dividends per share - market price per share
110.
Liquidity ratios measure
a)
the ability of a business to meet its financial obligations
b)
the view or opinion of the financial markets about the company
111.
Market ratios 
a)
measure the ability of the company to meet its daily financial needs.
b)
measure a company's financial performance in relative to the market value of the stock
112.
Shows the short term liquidity of the business (i.e. in the next 12 months). 
a)
 Working capital
b)
Quick asset (acid test)
c)
Debt  assets ratio
d)
Debt equity ratio
113.
Shows the immediate liquidity of the business (i.e. in the next month or two).
a)
 Working capital
b)
Quick asset (acid test)
c)
Debt  assets ratio
d)
Debt equity ratio
114.
Shows how many times in one year the average level of stock is sold.
a)
Debtors’ turnover
b)
Quick asset (acid test)
c)
Working capital
d)
Inventory turnover