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IB Biology Unit 3 Genetics

Total questions: 38

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which enzymes are needed to produce recombinant plasmids that are used in gene transfer?

a)

DNA polymerase and ligase

b)

DNA polymerase and restriction enzymes

c)

Restriction enzymes and ligase

d)

Helicase and restriction enzymes

2.

Which one of the following happens in Anaphase II of meiosis?

a)

Homologous chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles of the cell

b)

Homologous chromosomes move to the equator of the cell

c)

Sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of the cell

d)

Pairs of sister chromatids move to the equator of the cell

3.

A cell with a diploid number of 12 chromosomes undergoes meiosis. What will be the product at the end of meiosis?

a)

2 cells each with 12 chromosomes

b)

4 cells each with 6 chromosomes

c)

2 cells each with 6 chromosomes

d)

4 cells each with 12 chromosomes

4.

The following is a DNA gel. The results are from a single probe showing a DNA profile for a man, a woman and their four children.


Which child is least likely to be the biological offspring of the father?

a)

Child 1

b)

Child 2

c)

Child 3

d)

Child 4

5.

A parent organism of unknown genotype is mated in a test cross. Half of the offspring have the same phenotype as the parent. What can be concluded from this result?

a)

The parent is heterozygous for the trait.

b)

The trait being inherited is controlled by many genes.

c)

The parent is homozygous dominant for the trait.

d)

The parent is homozygous recessive for the trait.

6.

Which process results in the greatest genetic variation in a population?

a)

Meiosis

b)

Mitosis

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Natural selection

7.

The diagram below shows a cell during meiosis.


How many chromosomes would each daughter cell have at the end of meiosis?

a)

8

b)

4

c)

2

d)

1

8.

The pedigree shows which members of a family were Rhesus positive (■ and •) and Rhesus negative (□ and O). The allele for Rhesus positive blood (Rh+) is dominant over the allele for Rhesus negative blood (R-).


Which are possible genotypes of the individuals numbered I, II and III?

a)

I = Rh+ Rh+ II = Rh+ Rh+ III = Rh+ Rh-

b)

I = Rh+ Rh+ II = Rh+ Rh- III = Rh+ Rh+

c)

I = Rh+ Rh+ II = Rh+ Rh- III = Rh+ Rh-

d)

I = Rh+ Rh- II = Rh+ Rh- III = Rh+ Rh+

9.

The diagram below shows a cell in meiosis.


What can be deduced from this diagram, regarding the stage of meiosis shown and the haploid number of chromosomes in this cell?

a)

Stage = Metaphase I; Haploid number = 6

b)

Stage = Prophase I; Haploid number = 3

c)

Stage = Prophase I; Haploid number = 6

d)

Stage = Metaphase I; Haploid number = 3

10.

What is a possible consequence of a single base substitution mutation occurring in a gene?

a)

Amino acids in two polypeptides coded for by the gene are changed.

b)

All of the codons from the mutation onward are changed.

c)

The gene will not code for a protein

d)

The protein produced could have the same amino acid sequence

11.

If a person inherited an allele with the same base substitution mutation from both parents, what sequences could be altered from normal in the person’s cells?

a)

One mRNA base sequence only

b)

Two mRNA base sequences only

c)

One mRNA base sequence and one polypeptide amino acid sequence only

d)

Two mRNA base sequences and two polypeptide amino acid sequences only

12.

What is the locus of a gene?

a)

The proportion of the population that have the gene

b)

The part of the phenotype that is affected by the gene

c)

The position of a gene on a chromosome

d)

The predicted effect of natural selection on the frequency of the gene

13.

Which processes always occur in meiosis but not normally in mitosis?


I. Chiasmata formation

II. Independent assortment of alleles

III. Separation of homologous chromosomes

a)

I and II only

b)

II and III only

c)

I and III only

d)

I, II and III

14.

The pedigree chart below shows the inheritance of a genetic disease in a family.


What is the nature of the allele that causes this disease?

a)

Dominant and sex linked

b)

Dominant and non-sex linked

c)

Recessive and sex linked

d)

Recessive and non-sex linked

15.

When constructing a karyotype, the length of each chromosome is used.


Which other characteristics are used?


I. The pattern of bands on the chromosome.

II. The position of the centromere on the chromosome.

III. The position of the chromosome on the spindle.

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

16.

Which stage of cell division is usually stopped in order to view chromosomes for a karyogram?

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Metaphase of mitosis

d)

Anaphase of mitosis

17.

What is always a difference between the alleles of a gene?

a)

Their position on the chromosome

b)

Their amino acid sequence

c)

The number of codons that each contains

d)

Their base sequence

18.

A woman who is a carrier for hemophilia and a man who does not have hemophilia have a child.


What is the probability that the child will have hemophilia?

a)

If a girl = 0%; If a boy = 50%

b)

If a girl = 0%; If a boy = 0%

c)

If a girl = 50%; If a boy = 50%

d)

If a girl = 50%; If a boy = 0%

19.

What are homologous chromosomes?

a)

Identical chromosomes

b)

Non-identical chromosomes with different genes

c)

Non-identical chromosomes with the same genes in the same sequence but not necessarily the same alleles

d)

Non-identical chromosomes with the same genes in a different sequence and not necessarily the same alleles

20.

A man of blood group A and a woman of blood group B have a child.


If both are heterozygous for the gene, what are the chances of them having a child with blood group B?

a)

75%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

0%

21.

What are separated by gel electrophoresis during DNA profiling?

a)

Chromatids

b)

Chromosomes

c)

Genes

d)

DNA fragments

22.

What is chorionic villus sampling?

a)

Sampling cells from the placenta

b)

Sampling cells from the fetal digestive system

c)

Sampling fetal cells from the amniotic fluid

d)

Sampling stem cells from the umbilical cord

23.

If the haploid number of a species is 28, how many chromatids will there be in metaphase I in a dividing diploid cell?

a)

14

b)

28

c)

56

d)

112

24.

Which process could cause non-disjunction if it occurred during meiosis?

a)

Homologous chromosomes do not separate in anaphase I.

b)

Sister chromatids do not align in metaphase II.

c)

Homologous chromosomes do not separate in anaphase II.

d)

Sister chromatids do not align in metaphase I.

25.

Some breeds of dogs are characterized by the presence of a melanistic mask, which is a darkening of the fur near the nose, as shown by the arrow in this photograph.


Which outcome is matched with a valid conclusion if dogs that were pure breeding for melanistic masks were crossed with dogs without melanistic masks?

a)

If 0 % of the puppies have a mask, the character is recessive.

b)

If 25 % of the puppies have a mask, the character is dominant.

c)

If 75 % of the puppies have a mask, the character is dominant.

d)

If 100 % of the puppies have a mask, the character is recessive.

26.

In a person who is heterozygous for sickle-cell anemia, where could the mutation be found?

a)

In every gamete produced

b)

Only in gametes carrying an X chromosome

c)

In all brain cells

d)

In blood plasma

27.

The diagram shows a pedigree chart.


What type of inheritance is shown in this pedigree chart?

a)

X-linked recessive

b)

Y-linked dominant

c)

X-linked dominant

d)

Y-linked recessive

28.

According to the pedigree shown, which pattern of inheritance is indicated?

a)

Sex-linked recessive trait

b)

Autosomal recessive trait

c)

Autosomal dominant trait

d)

Codominant alleles

29.

Which of the following statements relate(s) to Down syndrome (trisomy 21)?


I. It can be detected in chorionic villus samples.

II. It results from non-disjunction in mitosis.

III. It is caused by gene mutation.

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

I and III only

d)

I, II and III

30.

The pedigree chart below shows the blood types of three members of a family.


Which could be the blood types of individuals 1 and 2?

a)

1 = A; 2 = AB

b)

1 = AB; 2 = B

c)

1 = O; 2 = B

d)

1 = B; 2 = A

31.

What is the set of alleles that an individual possesses?

a)

A gene

b)

A genotype

c)

A genome

d)

A genus

32.

What determines the genomic size of a species?

a)

The total number of chromosomes

b)

The total number of alleles

c)

The total number of genes

d)

The total amount of DNA

33.

The image shows the chromosomes in four cells of an insect at the end of meiosis.


What is the diploid number of this insect?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

8

d)

16

34.

Which of the following is/are true of cloning mammals by nuclear transfer?


I. the donor egg nucleus is discarded

II. a sperm nucleus is injected into an empty egg cell

III. an undifferentiated donor cell is used

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

I and III only

d)

I, II and III

35.

In genetic engineering, why is the mRNA copy of a gene often extracted rather than the DNA that codes for the same protein?

a)

mRNA is complementary to the DNA base sequence

b)

mRNA contains the base uracil instead of thymine

c)

the genetic code is universal

d)

There are more mRNA molecules that code for the protein than DNA molecules

36.

A chromosome in prophase of mitosis consists of two sister chromatids held together at the centromere.


Which of the following is/are true of this chromosome in mitosis?


I. each chromatid will end up in a different cell

II. the two chromatids contain the same genes but not necessarily the same alleles

III. it will pair up with another homologous chromosome in prophase

a)

I only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

37.

Which of the following could the ABO blood group system be used an example of?


I. Dominant and recessive alleles

II. Codominance

III. Multiple alleles

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

38.

There are many different views on the ethics of reproductive cloning in humans.


Which is a valid argument against cloning in humans?

a)

It involves the use of donor sperm which is unethical.

b)

It happens naturally when identical twins are conceived.

c)

Only females can be cloned.

d)

The life expectancy of children produced by cloning might be lower than normal.