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Biology Second Semester Exam Review

Total questions: 51

Worksheet time: 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A person who is heterozygous for a disorder caused by a recessive allele is a carrier of the disorder. A carrier

a)

does not have the disorder but can pass it on to offspring.

b)

can develop the disorder later in life but cannot pass it on.

c)

has a dominant normal allele that has been inactivated.

d)

passes the disorder to offspring on the y chromosome only.

2.

For an XX female to express a recessive sex-linked trait, she must have

a)

a Y chromosome.

b)

an inactivated allele.

c)

two recessive alleles.

d)

two dominant alleles.

3.

A female is born with attached earlobes, which is a recessive phenotype. Which of the following genotypes could her parents have?

a)

RR and RR

b)

Rr and RR

c)

Rr and rr

d)

RR and rr

4.

What is the main reason sex-linked disorders are most often observed in males?

a)

The X chromosome only has genes for genetic disorders.

b)

The y chromosome cannot have genes that cause genetic disorders.

c)

The Y chromosome cannot mask alleles on the X chromosome.

d)

The X chromosome has genes only for sex determination.

5.

The sex of an offspring is determined by

a)

the mother.

b)

the father.

c)

both parents.

d)

the offspring.

6.

What holds base pairs of DNA together?

a)

hydrogen bonds.

b)

sugar-phosphate backbones.

c)

pairs of double-ringed nucleotides.

d)

nitrogen-carbon bonds.

7.

A nucleotide consists of

a)

a sugar, protein and adenine.

b)

a sugar, an amino acid, and starch.

c)

a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base.

d)

a starch, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base.

8.

The enzymes responsible for adding nucleotides to the exposed DNA template bases are

a)

replicases.

b)

DNA polymerases.

c)

helicases.

d)

nucleotideases.

9.

In order for protein synthesis to occur, mRNA must migrate to the

a)

ribosomes.

b)

lac operon.

c)

RNA polymerases.

d)

heterochromatin.

10.

The main function of tRNA is to

a)

carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins.

b)

form a portion of ribosomes, a cell's protein factories.

c)

string together complementary RNA and DNA strands.

d)

bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes.

11.

RNA differs from DNA in that RNA

a)

is sometimes single-stranded.

b)

contains a different sugar molecule.

c)

contains the nitrogenous base uracil.

d)

All of the above.

12.

Each nucleotide triplet in mRNA that specifies a particular acid is called a(n)

a)

mutagen.

b)

codon.

c)

anticodon.

d)

exon.

13.

Which of the following is an example of a mutagen?

a)

repair enzymes

b)

triglyceride

c)

UV sunlight

d)

thymine

14.

Which technique is used to separate DNA fragments by their size?

a)

nucleotide sequencing

b)

genetic engineering

c)

gel electrophoresis

d)

gene cloning

15.

What is a clone?

a)

A genetically identical copy of a gene or organism.

b)

A ring of bacterial DNA with foreign DNA inserted.

c)

A mouse that has some genes "turned off".

d)

A genetically engineered organism with new traits.

16.

The main purpose of genetic screening is to

a)

Look for the genes that cause every kind of cancer.

b)

Assess the risk of having or carrying a genetic disease.

c)

Prevent carriers from ever passing on genetic disorders.

d)

Identify every possible genetic defect in a given person.

17.

Which of the following is a term for a group of similar organisms that can reproduce and produce fertile offspring?

a)

individual

b)

population

c)

species

d)

fossil

18.

Which is the idea developed by Charles Lyell which states that the geologic processes that shaped Earth in the past continue to operate in the same way?

a)

inheritance of acquired characteristics

b)

catastophism

c)

uniformitarianism

d)

decent with modification

19.

What is the term for a feature that allows an organism to survive better in its environment?

a)

variation

b)

adaptation

c)

homologous structure

d)

vestigial structure

20.

In natural selection, the selective agent is the

a)

humans.

b)

mutations.

c)

breeders.

d)

environment.

21.

Which of the following is most likely a vestigial structure?

a)

the human tailbone

b)

the beak of a finch

c)

flower color

d)

a fossil of a snail

22.

The beak of a bird and the beak of a giant squid evolved independently and serve the same function. The beaks are

a)

divergent structures.

b)

homologous structures.

c)

analogous structures.

d)

hybrid structures.

23.

A measure of how commonly a particular allele occurs in a population is known as the

a)

gene pool.

b)

allele frequency.

c)

mutation rate.

d)

phenotype.

24.

Reproductive isolation occurs when

a)

a small number of individuals moves and starts a new population.

b)

some catastrophic event greatly reduces the size of a population.

c)

the gene pools of different populations have become very diversified.

d)

members of different populations can no longer mate successfully.

25.

Coevolution is a process in which species

a)

evolve similar characteristics in different habitats.

b)

become increasingly different from each other.

c)

become extinct and are lost permanently.

d)

evolve in response to changes in each other.

26.

The total and permanent disappearance of a species on Earth is called

a)

radiation.

b)

extinction.

c)

coevolution.

d)

equilibrium.

27.

Wind is considered and abiotic factor because it

a)

is not related to biodiversity.

b)

is a nonliving thing.

c)

is in equilibrium.

d)

is not in any ecosystem.

28.

Which is a biotic factor of the tundra biome

a)

permafrost.

b)

wind.

c)

lack of sunlight during the winter.

d)

snowshoe hare.

29.

Which of the following can be both primary and secondary consumers?

a)

herbivores.

b)

carnivores.

c)

omnivores.

d)

detritivores.

30.

What do all the biotic and abiotic factors in a given area make up?

a)

a habitat.

b)

a community.

c)

an ecosystem.

d)

a population.

31.

Which two biogeochemical cycles depend directly on photosynthesis

a)

phosphorus cycle.

b)

oxygen cycle.

c)

carbon cycle.

d)

water cycle.

32.

A diagram that shows how available energy is distributed among trophic levels in an ecosystem is called a(n)

a)

food pyramid.

b)

pyramid of numbers.

c)

food web.

d)

energy pyramid.

33.

When one organism lives in close relationship with another, and both benefit, the relationship is called

a)

photosynthesis.

b)

permineralization.

c)

mutation.

d)

mutualism.

34.

Organisms are named and classified based on physical characteristics

a)

evolutionary trees.

b)

Linnaean taxonomy.

c)

cladograms.

d)

molecular clocks.

35.

Which of the following lists Linnaean taxa in the correct order from general to specific?

a)

phylum, order, family, genus

b)

kingdom, order, class, phylum

c)

family, phylum, genus, species

d)

class, order, species, genus

36.

How many kingdoms are there in the most current tree of life?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

5

d)

6

37.

Which of the following types of evidence is considered the most accurate in classifying organisms, according to the majority of scientists?

a)

anatomical

b)

Linnaean

c)

physiological

d)

molecular

38.

In which language are scientific names written?

a)

English

b)

Greek

c)

Arabic

d)

Latin

39.

Which domain contains all organisms that have a nucleus?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Archaea

c)

Eukarya

d)

Protista

40.

Most multicellular, nucleated autotrophs that carry out photosynthesis belong to the kingdom

a)

Animalia.

b)

Eubacteria.

c)

Fungi.

d)

Plantae.

41.

Asexual reproduction produces offspring with

a)

half of single parents' genes.

b)

the same genes as the parent.

c)

a mix of genes from two parents.

d)

lots of genetic variation.

42.

Genetic variation can arise from a random change in the DNA of a gene. This change is called a(n)

a)

mutation.

b)

gene flow.

c)

gene pool.

d)

allele.

43.

Cells grow and divide at an abnormally high rate in

a)

diabetes.

b)

cancer.

c)

cytokinesis.

d)

mitosis.

44.

During each PCR cycle, what happens to the number of copies of a DNA segment?

a)

It stays the same.

b)

It doubles.

c)

It quadruples.

d)

It increases to 1 billion.

45.

What statement is true of genetically engineered organisms?

a)

The have altered genomes.

b)

They are implanted with the Bt gene.

c)

They age more quickly than normal.

d)

They contain bacterial genes.

46.

The two main goals of the Human Genome Project are to sequence all of the DNA base pairs of the human chromosomes and to

a)

compare the human genome with those of other species.

b)

identify all of the genes within the genome.

c)

classify all of the alleles that cause genetic disorders.

d)

find the closest living relatives to humans.

47.

Proteomics is the study and comparison of

a)

proteins within and among species.

b)

genomes of various organisms.

c)

DNA sequence variations among people.

d)

transgenic organisms in different environments.

48.

The theory that landforms on Earth's surface, such as mountains, waterfalls, and canyons, were created as the result of sudden spectacular events is called the theory of

a)

uniformitarianism.

b)

catastrophism.

c)

gradualism.

d)

evolution.

49.

Darwin drew ideas for his theory from observation of observations of organisms on

a)

the Samoan Islands

b)

Manhattan Island

c)

the Hawaiian Islands

d)

The Galapágos Islands

50.

Eye color, hair color and skin color are polygenic traits. Polygenic traits result from

a)

recessive genes.

b)

many genes.

c)

codominant genes.

d)

epistatic genes.

51.

Which scientists figured out the three dimensional structure of DNA by using a model of metal and wood?

a)

Hershey and Chase

b)

Watson and Crick

c)

Pauling and Franklin

d)

Chargaff and Griffith