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Final exam review (biology B)

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A sperm cell of an alligator has 16 chromosomes. What is the total number of chromosomes that should be present in a stomach cell of the same alligator?

a)

8

b)

16

c)

48

d)

32

2.

The distribution of chromosomes in one type of cell division is shown in the diagram below. Which process is being represented in the diagram?

a)

asexual reproduction

b)

meiosis

c)

mitosis

d)

DNA replication

3.

Which letter(s) in the diagram correspond to cells that are haploid?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

A and B

e)

B and C

4.

Compared to the number of chromosomes contained in a body cell, how many chromosomes would normally be contained in a gamete?

a)

the same number

b)

twice as many

c)

one-fourth as many

d)

half as many

5.

In which phase of meiosis would certain gene segments of the homologous pairs of chromosomes "crossover" and exchange genetic information?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

6.

Which cells are NOT formed during meiosis?

a)

Somatic cells

b)

Gametes

c)

Sex cells

d)

Sperm cells

7.

Two similar chromosomes that you inherit from your parents (one from your mother and one from your father) are called

a)

homologous chromosomes

b)

sister chromatids

c)

sex chromosomes

d)

homozygous alleles

8.

Which event takes place during anaphase II of meiosis?

a)

nuclear membrane breaks down

b)

sister chromatids separate

c)

spindle fibers break down

d)

cytoplasm divides

9.

Somatic cells in humans contain ____ chromosomes and an example is ______

a)

30; skin cells

b)

23; heart cells

c)

46; liver cells

d)

46; sperm cells

10.

Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell single file during which phase?

a)

Telophase I

b)

Telophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

11.

In humans, where does DNA replication take place?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

nucleus

c)

ribosome

d)

vacuole

12.

A sequence of nucleotides found in the DNA of a chromosome codes for a specific protein or trait. This section of DNA is known as a(n)

a)

allele

b)

codon

c)

gene

d)

phenotype

13.

RNA from a chipmunk is compared to RNA from a worm. Both will contain the

a)

sugar deoxyribose and the base thymine.

b)

sugar deoxyribose and the base uracil.

c)

sugar ribose and the base thymine.

d)

sugar ribose and the base uracil.

14.

A scientist is doing an experiment to identify different molecules. Some components of these molecules are listed in this table. Which of the four molecules is the DNA, based on the table to the right?

a)

molecule 1

b)

molecule 2

c)

molecule 3

d)

molecule 4

15.

The diagram shown here represents a portion of a nucleic acid molecule. The part indicated by the arrow could be

a)

adenine

b)

uracil

c)

deoxyribose

d)

phosphate

16.

A DNA nucleotide could contain the following molecules

a)

deoxyribose, cytosine, and a lipid

b)

deoxyribose, thymine, and a phosphate group

c)

ribose, uracil, and a polypeptide

d)

ribose, adenine, and thymine

17.

Which of the following nucleic acids contains thymine?

a)

DNA only

b)

messenger RNA only

c)

transfer RNA only

d)

all of the above

18.

Base your answer to this question on the diagram shown to the right AND on your knowledge of biology. Structures 3 and 4 are held together by

a)

weak peptide bonds

b)

strong hydrogen bonds

c)

weak hydrogen bonds

d)

strong peptide bonds

19.

DNA is a polymer consisting of monomers known as

a)

peptides

b)

nucleotides

c)

amino acids

d)

phosphates

20.

In nucleotides, the letters A, G, C, and T represent

a)

phosphate groups

b)

deoxyribose sugars

c)

nitrogen bases

d)

ribose sugars

21.

The cellular process of creating two new DNA molecules from one original copy is called replication. Which statement is the BEST description of this process?

a)

DNA opens up and RNA copies it.

b)

DNA opens up and completely unwinds to make two new molecules.

c)

DNA opens up and each strand is used as a template for making a new strand.

d)

RNA opens up the DNA and uses each strand as a template for a new strand

22.

The molecule copied directly from DNA is represented by number

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

23.

What is an example of a molecule produced by the process shown above?

a)

glucose

b)

glycogen

c)

a fatty acid

d)

a protein

24.

Structure number 2 represents a

a)

tRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

ribosome

25.

The bond represented by number 5 is a ____ bond

a)

covalent

b)

hydrogen

c)

ionic

d)

peptide

26.

If a portion of a messenger RNA molecule contains the base sequence A-A-U, then the corresponding anti-codon on the tRNA base sequence is

a)

A-A-U

b)

G-G-T

c)

T-T-A

d)

U-U-A

27.

The sequence of ________________ in a DNA molecule determines the protein that will be produced.

a)

lipids

b)

nucleotides

c)

proteins

d)

sugars

28.

During _____________, the cell uses information from messenger RNA to produce proteins.

a)

replication

b)

translation

c)

transcription

d)

meiosis

29.

How many amino acids are coded for by the strand of mRNA shown here? Assume the reading frame begins with the first nucleotide. AUGUAC

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

30.

Which base is normally used in the synthesis (making) of RNA but not in the synthesis (making) of DNA?

a)

adenine

b)

uracil

c)

cytosine

d)

guanine

31.

Given the sequence of DNA nucleotide bases TAGTAGTAG, give the complementary strand of mRNA produced during transcription.

a)

ATGATGATG

b)

AAUCGGAAC

c)

AUCAUCAUC

d)

TAGTAGTAG

32.

During protein synthesis, what does mRNA do?

a)

It delivers DNA’s instructions for making proteins to the ribosome

b)

It constructs proteins out of random amino acids

c)

It strings together two complementary RNA strands

d)

It strings together two complementary DNA strands

33.

Subunit that makes up nucleic acids

a)

chromosome

b)

nucleotide

c)

amino acid

d)

codon

34.

Subunit that makes up proteins

a)

gene

b)

codon

c)

amino acid

d)

chromosome

35.

A portion of a chromosome that codes for a single protein

a)

gene

b)

codon

c)

amino acid

d)

nucleotide

36.

A portion of DNA that is condensed and rod-like

a)

chromosome

b)

codon

c)

gene

d)

amino acid

37.

A set of 3 nucleotides that code for a specific amino acid

a)

codon

b)

gene

c)

amino acid

d)

chromosome

38.

tRNA brings amino acids to the

a)

nucleus

b)

ribosome

c)

mitochondria

d)

cell membrane

39.

tRNA has

a)

codons

b)

anticodons

c)

thymine

d)

attitude

40.

tRNA transfers amino acids during

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

replication

d)

never

41.

The step of protein synthesis that occurs in the cytoplasm is

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

replication

d)

photosynthesis

42.

The form of a gene that is always expressed if present is the ___ form.

a)

recessive

b)

dominant

c)

zygote

d)

heterozygous

43.

Two heterozygous purple-flowering pea plants are crossed. If purple is dominant over white, what are the expected phenotypic results?

a)

100% purple.

b)

50% purple, 50% white.

c)

75% purple, 25% white.

d)

25% purple, 75% white.

44.

What law BEST explains why an organism with ‘Tt’ will show only the dominant phenotype?

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

d)

Law of Filial Generations

45.

If an organism inherits one dominant allele and one recessive allele for eye color, their genotype would be:

a)

haploid

b)

homozygous

c)

heterozygous

d)

homologous

46.

Two parents have the genotype Gg for a genetic disorder caused by a recessive allele. What is the chance that any of their children will inherit the disorder?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

47.

Which Mendelian law of inheritance states that organisms inherit two copies of each gene and donate one copy to each of their offspring?

a)

law of genetic linkage

b)

law of segregation

c)

law of independent assortment

d)

law of inheritance

48.

B represents the dominant gene for blue feathers and b represents the recessive gene for red feathers. A homozygous dominant and a homozygous recessive bird mate. What percent chance does the offspring have for red feathers?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

0%

49.

In pigs, the allele for a wavy, rough coat (R) is dominant to the allele for a soft, fine coat (r). A rough coat boar and a soft coat sow mate. They produce several litters, 50% are rough coat and 50% are smooth coat. What must be the genotypes of the parents to create this phenotypic ratio?

a)

RR × rr

b)

Rr × rr

c)

RR × Rr

d)

Rr × Rr

50.

Imagine two heterozygous parents. Each has a dominant allele A for brown eyes and a recessive allele for blue eyes. What would the genotypic ratio of the offspring be?

a)

100% Aa

b)

50% AA 50% Aa

c)

25% AA 50% Aa 25% aa

d)

50% Aa 50% aa

51.

For an XX female to express a recessive sex-linked trait, she must have

a)

a Y chromosome

b)

one recessive allele

c)

two recessive alleles

d)

two dominant alleles

52.

Human height occurs in a continuous range because it is affected by the interaction of many genes, making it a(n)

a)

autosomal trait

b)

sex-linked trait

c)

polygenic trait

d)

codominant trait

53.

Red hair and freckles are commonly inherited together. Which of following patterns of inheritance explains this?

a)

Linked Genes

b)

Multiple Alleles

c)

Sex-linked

d)

Codominance

54.

One of the major elements of natural selection is that all species have genetic

a)

digression.

b)

melanism.

c)

stability.

d)

variation.

55.

A population of bacteria is treated with hand sanitizer. Because of genetic variation in the population, what is a possible outcome?

a)

The population will grow quickly.

b)

All of the bacteria are already resistant.

c)

They will get better at obtaining a food source.

d)

Some may be resistant and survive.

56.

One of the biggest ways that a species evolves is because some organisms with some traits survive and reproduce better than others. This process is known as

a)

natural selection.

b)

convergent evolution.

c)

coevolution.

d)

sexual selection.

57.

Genes for traits that help an organism be more successful reproductively can be expected to

a)

cause it to evolve into a new species.

b)

become more common in the future.

c)

cause the extinction of the species.

d)

eventually be eliminated by natural selection.

58.

An adaptation is

a)

any trait an organism possesses.

b)

how an organism evolves during its own lifetime.

c)

a gene an organism has.

d)

a trait that helps an organism survive in its environment.

59.

Genetic diversity is ultimately/mainly the result of

a)

meiosis.

b)

viruses.

c)

mutations.

d)

reproduction

60.

Which of the following does NOT increase genetic variation?

a)

Mutations

b)

Gene flow

c)

Mitosis

d)

Crossing over

61.

Which of the following is not a principle of natural selection?

a)

Most species produce more offspring than will actually reproduce.

b)

Organisms compete for limited resources

c)

Evolution will occur as an organism gets older and learns more.

d)

In every population, adaptations allows some organisms to survive and reproduce better than others.

62.

Which of the following is not an example of evolution?

a)

Horses becoming taller and faster over millions of years.

b)

All species of tortoises in the Galapagos islands descending from a common ancestor.

c)

Human brains becoming larger over time.

d)

A caterpillar going through a change into a butterfly.

63.

Individuals that are well adapted to their environment will survive and produce

a)

fewer mutations

b)

more offspring

c)

stronger gene

d)

better traits

64.

Organisms that live in similar environments, such as the ocean, often have similar adaptations. This is often due to

a)

convergent evolution

b)

coevolution

c)

gradualism

d)

sexual selection

65.

Which pattern of evolution results in one species splitting into many over time?

a)

coevolution

b)

divergent evolution

c)

convergent evolution

d)

sexual selection

66.

Multiple species evolving from a common ancestor.

a)

gradualism

b)

divergent evolution

c)

convergent evolution

d)

speciation

67.

Burst of evolutionary change followed by periods of stability.

a)

punctuated equilibrium

b)

gradualism

c)

speciation

d)

coevolution

68.

Formation of a new species from a pre-existing species.

a)

speciation

b)

coevolution

c)

gradualism

d)

divergent evolution

69.

Slow evolutionary changes over a long period of time.

a)

convergent evolution

b)

divergent evolution

c)

coevolution

d)

gradualism

70.

When two organisms evolve in response to the other.

a)

coevolution

b)

convergent evolution

c)

divergent evolution

d)

speciation

71.

When unrelated species evolve similar characteristics because they live in similar environments.

a)

convergent evolution

b)

coevolution

c)

divergent evolution

d)

speciation

72.

If scientists wanted to learn more about evolution by studying biochemistry, they would study all but one of these molecules. Which molecule would NOT offer much information about the history of life?

a)

DNA

b)

proteins

c)

nucleic acids

d)

lipids

73.

Scientists can explore whether two different animal species have evolved from a common ancestor, using evidence from all of the sources below except

a)

analysis of strands of DNA

b)

comparisons of bones and muscles

c)

studies of embryos during

d)

comparison of the experiences of each organism development

74.

The table to the right shows the order of amino acids present in a protein from five different organisms. Based on this evidence, a researcher could conclude that the two closest relatives are

a)

Lemurs and gibbons.

b)

Lemurs and pigs

c)

Cows and pigs.

d)

None of the above. Amino acids cannot be used to determine relatedness.

75.

Two bodily structures, found in different species, have different internal bone structures but serve a similar purpose in each organism. This is the best description of

a)

homologous structures

b)

analogous structures

c)

vestigial structures

d)

natural selection

76.

In the table to the right, the DNA found in five primate species was compared to the DNA found in humans. The number of sequence differences was recorded. Based on the data in this table, what inference could you make about these species compared to humans?

a)

Lemurs are most like humans.

b)

Gorillas are most like humans.

c)

None of the species are similar to humans.

d)

Only the lemur differs from humans in any way.

77.

Ostriches have wings, but do not fly. Humans have an appendix with no apparent function. Whales contain bones for rear legs. Each of these are examples of

a)

homologous structures

b)

analogous structures

c)

vestigial structures

d)

natural selection

78.

The best example of an analogous structure would be

a)

comparing a human arm and a whale arm.

b)

comparing a bat wing and a human arm.

c)

comparing a human eye and an insect eye.

d)

comparing a mosquito wing and a bumblebee wing.

79.

Evidence of evolution from the field of paleontology examines

a)

sequences of DNA and protein.

b)

the location of different species across the planet.

c)

embryos of different species.

d)

fossils compared to living species.

80.

Early during development, organisms as diverse as a human, a mouse, and a bat can appear indistinguishable. All of their embryos look nearly identical, suggesting that

a)

during development, humans go through stages of being a mouse and a bat.

b)

similar structures have developed because of convergent evolution.

c)

these very different species have a shared ancestry with all mammals.

d)

this is a coincidental resemblance between them.

81.

Fossil evidence shows that structures considered vestigial in living organisms

a)

are not found in ancient organisms.

b)

have always been vestigial.

c)

were useful to their ancestors.

d)

do not fill gaps in the fossil record.

82.

Which scientist developed a classification system for organisms?

a)

Carolus Linnaeus

b)

Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

Georges L.L. de Buffon

83.

According to binomial nomenclature, species are given two names based on their

a)

Kingdom, species

b)

Genus, species

c)

Class, phylum

d)

Kingdom, phylum

84.

Which one of these is most closely related to the organism on the left?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

85.

Which of the following sequences shows the correct hierarchy of classification, going from broadest to most specific?

a)

Kingdom, Domain, Phylum, Order, Class, Family, Genus, Species

b)

Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

c)

Genus, Species, Kingdom, Phylum, Order, Class, Family, Domain

d)

Domain, Phylum, Kingdom, Genus, Species, Family, Order, Class