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CST Prep #9

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 3hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

For opthalmic surgical interventions the CST should know that the anterior chamber of the eye contains ________and the posterior chamber contains______________

a)

aqueous humor, vitreous humor

b)

ciliary body, vitreous humor

c)

sclera, aqueous humor

d)

vitreous humor, Iris

2.

During opthalmic procedures the CST must periodically irrigate the eye using _________to prevent corneal drying

a)

BSS

b)

Lidocaine

c)

NACL

d)

H20

3.

The CST scrubbed on the _________ opthalmic procedure must ensure that the donor tissue is in the room prior to intubation

a)

Keratoplasty

b)

Strabismus

c)

Cataract

d)

Enucleation

4.

The pathology associated with the surgical intervention iridectomy is_________?

a)

Opaque lens

b)

Chlazion

c)

Glaucoma

d)

Diseased cornea

5.

During opthalmic procedures, once gowned & gloved the CST should ensure that the surgeon?

a)

Has no jewelry on

b)

Has removed his cell phone

c)

Has shoe covers on

d)

Removes any powder from his gloves

6.

A patient diagnosed with a misalignment or deviation of the eyes, might be scheduled for the following surgical intervention?

a)

Strabismus

b)

Keratoplasty

c)

Enucleation

d)

Cataract

7.

The patients diagnosis was opacified lens OD, the CST should expect the surgical schedule to reflect the following surgical intervention?

a)

Iridectomy, right eye

b)

Cataract extraction, right eye

c)

Enucleation, left eye

d)

Chalazion, left eye

8.

Use of the Phaco hand piece and phacoemulsification should be associated with the following surgical intervention?

a)

Iridectomy

b)

Cataract extraction

c)

Keratoplasty

d)

Strabismus

9.

For most opthalmic procedures the anesthesiologist will perform a ________ Bier block.

a)

Retrobulbar

b)

Bier

c)

Scalene

d)

Spinal

10.

The _______surgical instrument is essential for the surgeon in resection or recession of the extrinsic eye muscle

a)

Castroviejo caliper

b)

Colibri forceps

c)

Westscott scissors

d)

Jameson hook

11.

When performing a tooth extraction, at the end of the procedure it is imperative for the CST to remember?

a)

Ensure the retrieval of the throat pack

b)

Call for an X ray

c)

To have a frasier suction tip available

d)

Discard the specimen

12.

All of the following are considerations for the CST when dealing with a patient with maxillofacial fracture except?

a)

Blood loss should be monitored closely

b)

Surgeon will stand on the side of the patient

c)

Maxillofacial bones are in close proximity to patients airways

d)

Facial imaging studies should be available

13.

When performing an application of arch bars on a patient, all of the following are true except?

a)

Wires should be precut to 10cm length

b)

Arch bar hooks should be placed facing downward on upper jaw and upward on lower jaw

c)

Wire is tightened in clock wise manner

d)

A wire cutter should accompany patient to PACU

14.

The correct sequence for application of plate and screws for a mandibular fracture is?

a)

Contour plate, drill, measure, tap, screw

b)

Tap,drill,screw,measure,contour plate

c)

Drill, contour plate, measure, tap, screw

d)

Contour plate, drill, tap, measure, screw

15.

While performing a maxillofacial fracture repair, Jose the CST hears the surgeon stating "there is a dural tear". He knows that the surgeon will probably use a _________ graft to seal the tear.

a)

Xenograft

b)

Bone

c)

Clavical

d)

Fat

16.

Graft materials can be used to fill defects from bone loss. Which of the following choices would be an example of a Xenograft?

a)

Autogenous bone

b)

Coral

c)

Homogenous bone

d)

Synthetic material

17.

Which of the following retractors should the CST choose for an odontectomy?

a)

Minnesota

b)

Army Navy

c)

Gelpi

d)

Senn

18.

In preparation for draping the oral maxillofacial patient, the CST would need the following?

a)

Turban style head wrap

b)

Stockinette

c)

Extremity sheet

d)

Kerlix

19.

The three regions of the tooth are the crown, neck and root. Each tooth is imbedded in a socket called the?

a)

Periodontal ligament

b)

Gum

c)

Alveolar process

d)

Mandible

20.

Due to the concern with airway during oral and maxilla facial procedures, the surgical team should have the following available during extubation except?

a)

Laryngoscope

b)

Headlight

c)

Endotracheal tube

d)

Tracheostomy tray

21.

When preparing for the Skin graft procedure, the CST knows that the donor site is prepped _______ and the recipient site prepped __________.

a)

Both are prepped at the same time

b)

Last, first

c)

On order of extremity

d)

First, last

22.

All of the following would be equipment and supplies needed by the surgical team in preparation for the skin grafting procedure except?

a)

Mesh graft device

b)

Dermatome

c)

Mineral oil

d)

Heparin

23.

When switching from a dirty set up to a clean set up the CST must ensure that?

a)

No need to change gloves

b)

They change the gloves of the surgeons first

c)

They change their own gloves first

d)

Everyone uses powder free gloves

24.

In preparation for the liposuction procedure, the CST follows the surgeon's preference card in preparing a mixture that liquefies fat to make suctioning easier. This is called?

a)

Tumescent

b)

Local

c)

Post op injection

d)

Irrigation

25.

The surgeon has booked a mastopexy procedure, the CST knows that the patient is probably suffering from lower back problems related to the pathology of?

a)

Misalignment

b)

Breast ptosis

c)

Scoliosis

d)

Lumbar disc

26.

To perform a nipple reconstruction all of the following equipment might be required except?

a)

#15 blades

b)

Tumescent

c)

Tatto equipment

d)

Dermatome

27.

During a TRAM flap reconstruction surgeon decides to use a reconstructed graft with the blood supply still attached. This would be considered a?

a)

Free Flap reconstruction

b)

Implant reconstruction

c)

Pedicle flap reconstruction

d)

Z-plasty

28.

The CST will need to have a wire driver available for the patient with a diagnosis of radical dysplasia or club hand. The wire driver is necessary for?

a)

Wire tightening

b)

Plate Fixation

c)

K-wire fixation of the ulnar

d)

K-wire fixation of the fibula

29.

The reimplantation of severed digit of the hand, begins with the reattachment of?

a)

Nerve

b)

Bone

c)

Veins

d)

Artery

30.

When performing the rhytidectomy the seventh cranial nerve must be preserved and protected during the procedure. This nerve is the?

a)

Facial

b)

Vagus

c)

Vestibulocochlear

d)

Lingual

31.

A PSA blood value should be associated with the _____________ of the genitourinary system

a)

Testes

b)

Kidneys

c)

Prostate

d)

Ureters

32.

In order to dilate the urethra prior to insertion of the cystoscope, the surgeon would use?

a)

Hank dilators

b)

Pratt dilators

c)

Heager dilators

d)

Van buren sounds

33.

During the TURP procedure the surgeon will use the ____________to remove pieces of tumor and blood clots from the bladder.

a)

Ellik evacuator

b)

Foley catheter

c)

Resectoscope

d)

Mixter clamps

34.

For implantation of a donor kidney the surgeon would make an incision that gives access to the lower portion of the ureter. This would be the _______ incision.

a)

Pfannenstiel

b)

Midline

c)

Transverse

d)

Gibson

35.

The surgeon inserts a three way Foley catheter, for post-operative management of the TURP patient. The primary purpose of the three way foley is?

a)

Both to asses hemostasis & provide irrigation

b)

Asses hemostasis

c)

Drain urine

d)

Provide irrigation

36.

A radical cystectomy with ileal conduit is performed on patients who have been diagnosed with malignancy of the bladder. The ureters will be diverted to the?

a)

Ileum

b)

Ascending colon

c)

Duodenum

d)

Cecum

37.

During the cystoscopy TURBT the CST should use a nonelectrolytic solution to distend the bladder. Which of the following listed below would be the best choice?

a)

NACL

b)

NACL with antibiotic

c)

Sorbitol

d)

Ringers lactate

38.

For kidney harvesting from a live donor, the surgeon would prefer to harvest the ________ kidney because the renal vein is longer

a)

Right

b)

Larger

c)

Smaller

d)

Left

39.

In a surgical approach during a nephrectomy, the surgical team would encounter a fascia that surrounds the organ. This fascia is called?

a)

Gerotas

b)

Peritoneum

c)

Retro peritoneal

d)

Gleasons

40.

The open surgical procedure used to treat stress incontinence in females is the?

a)

Subureteral sling

b)

TVT

c)

Stamey

d)

Marshall-Marchetti Krantz

41.

What is the name of the technique used to treat a recurrent glenohumeral dislocation of the shoulder?

a)

shoulder arthroplasty

b)

rotator cuff repair

c)

acromioplasty

d)

Bankart procedure

42.

What type of electrosurgical mode is most commonly used during neurosurgical procedures?

a)

monopolar

b)

ESU

c)

bipolar

d)

alternating

43.

Which of the following instruments is used to clamp the branches of the mesentery artery during a colectomy?

a)

Babcock intestinal forceps

b)

Crile hemostat clamp

c)

Kocher clamp

d)

Allis tissue forceps

44.

What anatomical landmark does a surgeon use when making a midline incision for an exploratory laparotomy?

a)

McBurney's point

b)

linea alba

c)

Cooper's ligament

d)

falciform ligament

45.

What surgery is performed to correct a hallux valgus deformity?

a)

hammer toe repair

b)

carpal tunnel release

c)

triple arthrodesis

d)

bunionectomy

46.

A defect in the pubocervical fascia that is typically torn by childbirth, obesity, or aging that allows the bladder to prolapse or herniate into the vagina is called a

a)

enterocele.

b)

varicocele.

c)

cystocele.

d)

rectocele.

47.

If a patient has been diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus, what procedure is performed if he or she could not tolerate anticoagulant therapy?

a)

a balloon angioplasty

b)

insertion of a vena cava filter

c)

insertion of a permanent pacemaker

d)

a coronary artery bypass graft

48.

What type of self-retaining retractor is used during an open abdominal aortic aneurysm repair to provide deep exposure as the vascular graft is being sutured into place?

a)

Weitlaner retractor

b)

Balfour retractor

c)

O'Sullivan-O'Connor retractor

d)

Bookwalter retractor

49.

An instrument that is used to determine the direction and depth of the uterine cavity during a dilation and curettage is a

a)

uterine sound.

b)

uterine curette.

c)

uterine dilator.

d)

uterine tenaculum.

50.

A tonsillectomy is completed on a pediatric patient, and the patient is awake and ready for extubation. Which position should the patient be placed in for extubation?

a)

prone

b)

lateral

c)

supine

d)

dorsal recumbent

51.

Which of the following sutures is the best choice when closing the peritoneum and fascia together after an abdominal procedure, such as a small bowel resection?

a)

2-0 absorbable

b)

#1 nonabsorbable

c)

#2 nonabsorbable

d)

3-0 absorbable

52.

An anastomosis of an artery and a vein is performed to provide vascular access for hemodialysis. What is this surgical procedure called?

a)

an aneurysmectomy

b)

an endarterectomy

c)

an aortofemoral bypass

d)

an arteriovenous fistula

53.

What tendon is used to reconstruct a torn anterior cruciate ligament of the knee?

a)

Achilles tendon

b)

posterior tibial tendon

c)

posterior tibial tendon

d)

patellar tendon

54.

The type of implant that is used to treat a midshaft fracture of the femur on an adult patient is a/an

a)

condylar plate and screws.

b)

intramedullary rod.

c)

compression plate and screws

d)

Harrington rod.

55.

The plastic articular surface insert of a total knee tibial implant is made of what material?

a)

polyethylene

b)

titanium

c)

polypropolene

d)

latex

56.

What type of fracture involves the distal radius and occurs when the patient extends the hand to prevent a fall?

a)

Monteggia's fracture

b)

Colles' fracture

c)

radial head fracture

d)

olecranon fracture

57.

A procedure to aspirate blood, fluid, or pus from the cul-de-sac of Douglas with a spinal needle when intraperitoneal bleeding, ectopic pregnancy, or a tubo-ovarian abscess is suspected is called a

a)

culdotomy.

b)

cold cone biopsy.

c)

colposcopy.

d)

culdocentesis.

58.

During a laparoscopic procedure, CO2 is instilled into the abdominal cavity to provide visualization of the operative site and to prevent injury of the internal viscera. The insufflation of the abdomen with CO2 is called

a)

pneumothorax.

b)

pneumoperitoneum.

c)

hemoperitoneum.

d)

peritoneal ascites.

59.

What type of scissors are used for an arteriotomy?

a)

Mayo

b)

Metzenbaum

c)

Potts-Smith

d)

Lister

60.

Which of the following pathologies would require immediate surgical intervention to prevent necrosis of the bowel tissue?

a)

reducible hernia

b)

incarnated hernia

c)

strangulated hernia

d)

pantaloon hernia

61.

In what surgical procedure would a nasoantral window be created in the maxillary bone above the canine teeth to improve drainage of a blocked or infected maxillary sinus?

a)

Caldwell-Luc

b)

submucous resection

c)

turbinectomy

d)

septoplasty

62.

During a coronary artery bypass graft procedure, which of the following is used to stop the heart to reduce the energy required by the cardiac muscle during contraction?

a)

sodium hypochlorite solution

b)

lactated Ringer's solution

c)

hypotonic cardiac solution

d)

hypothermic cardioplegia solution

63.

What layer of the intestines is closed first when performing an end-to-end anastomosis during a small bowel resection?

a)

submucosa layer

b)

seromuscular layer

c)

mucosa layer

d)

mesentery layer

64.

To minimize injury to the abdominal viscera when suctioning irrigation out of the abdominal cavity, the surgical technologist would attach which of the following tips to the suction tubing?

a)

Baron

b)

Yankauer

c)

Poole

d)

Frazier

65.

A patient has a history of osteoarthritis of the hip joint. The surgical procedure to treat this condition is called a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following statements correctly describes this procedure? A total hip arthroplasty

a)

involves the removal of the femoral head and articular surface of the acetabulum and replacement with prosthetic implants.

b)

involves only the removal of the articular surface of the socket and insertion of metal and plastic prosthetic implants.

c)

is the resection of the head of the femur and insertion of a bipolar hip prosthesis.

d)

is the fusion of the bones of the femur and acetabulum with bone grafts from the iliac crest.

66.

Which surgical procedure is performed using phacoemulsification through a small incision to remove a clouded crystalline lens?

a)

keratoplasty with corneal transplant

b)

intracapsular cataract extraction

c)

enucleation of the eye

d)

extracapsular cataract extraction

67.

What instrument is used to remove a portion of the lamina during a lumbar laminectomy?

a)

pituitary rongeur

b)

dura separato

c)

Penfield dissector

d)

Love-Kerrison rongeur

68.

To improve or increase the airflow through the nose, the surgeon would perform a/an

a)

tracheostomy.

b)

turbinate reduction.

c)

adenoidectomy.

d)

Caldwell-Luc procedure

69.

What medication is used during a peripheral vascular surgical procedure to prevent spasm of the vessel?

a)

sodium bicarbonate

b)

atropine sulfate

c)

papaverine hydrochloride

d)

heparinized saline

70.

What is another way of saying "cephalad to caudad"

a)

back to front

b)

front to back

c)

head to tail

d)

inside to outside

71.

Which fascial sheet is attached to the iliac crest, linea alba, and pubis?

a)

innominate

b)

interparietal

c)

Scarpa's

d)

transbersalis

72.

What is another name for an acquired ventral hernia through the linea semilunaris?

a)

epigastric

b)

femoral

c)

inguinal

d)

Spigelian

73.

A gastrostomy can be created by all of the following methods EXCEPT:

a)

open

b)

endovascular

c)

laparoscopic

d)

percutaneous

74.

Which suturing technique is often used on the appendiceal stump?

a)

interrupted

b)

horizontal mattress

c)

vertical mattress

d)

pursestring

75.

Great care is taken to identify and preserve the long thoracic and thoracodorsal nerves in which surgical procedure?

a)

laparoscopic cholecystectomy

b)

laparoscopic Nissen Fundoplication

c)

modified radical mastectomy

d)

subtotal gastrectomy

76.

Where are the parathyroid glands located in relation to the thyroid?

a)

anterior midline

b)

posterior midline

c)

dorsal, superior and inferior

d)

ventral, superior and inferior

77.

What do the parathyroid glands regulate in the body?

a)

blood calcium concentration

b)

growth hormones

c)

immune response

d)

insulin release

78.

The skin incision for a thyroidectomy will follow which anatomical lines?

a)

anterior axillary

b)

Langer's

c)

midclavicular

d)

semilunar

79.

Which handheld retractors are frequently used to retract tissues during a throidectomy?

a)

Green

b)

Harrington

c)

Malleable

d)

Weinberg

80.

What type of hernia results from a failure of the deep internal ring to close during fetal development and allows intestinal protrusion into the scrotum?

a)

direct

b)

femoral

c)

indirect

d)

umbilical

81.

What is the name for the type of hernia in which both direct and indirect defects are present?

a)

diaphragmatic

b)

epigastric

c)

incisional

d)

pantaloon

82.

What is the name of a gastric mass of indigestible vegetable fiber and hair that may require surgical excision?

a)

bezoar

b)

calculus

c)

polyp

d)

ulcer

83.

For which type of hernia repair could a Penrose drain be used as a method of gentle traction of the spermatic cord?

a)

laparoscopic Nissen Fundoplication

b)

McVay inguinal herniorrhaphy

c)

Total extraperitoneal patch (TEP)

d)

ventral/incisional herniorrhaphy

84.

A vagotomy is a surgical treatment option for

a)

appendicitis

b)

ductal carcinoma

c)

gastric ulcers

d)

pancreatitis

85.

Which type of intestinal obstruction involves telescoping of a portion of the intestine into another portion?

a)

adhesive stricture

b)

fecal impaction

c)

intussusception

d)

volvulus