wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

"Trauma" Exam Review

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a layer of the skin?

a)

Dermis

b)

Epidermis

c)

Hyperdermis

d)

Hypodermis

2.

Which of the following parts of the body is considered to be a NOT soft tissue?

a)

Skin

b)

Bones

c)

Nerves

d)

Muscles

3.

Which layer of the skin is rich in blood vessels and nerves?

a)

Dermis

b)

Epidermis

c)

Subcutaneous Layers

4.

Which term is defined by: an internal injury with no open pathway from the outside?

a)

Closed Wound

b)

Hematoma

c)

Fracture

d)

Open Wound

5.

What is the medical term for a bruise?

a)

Laceration

b)

Contusion

c)

Hematoma

d)

Puncture

6.

What are the 3 types of closed wounds?

a)

Hematomas, Lacerations, Fractures

b)

Contusions, Penetrations, Abrasions

c)

Crush Injuries, Avulsions, Hematomas

d)

Contusions, Hematomas, Crush Injuries

7.

A patient has an injury below the knee. You see it is swollen due to a large collection of blood under the skin. Which of the following describes this injury?

a)

Contusion

b)

Avulsion

c)

Blast Injury

d)

Hematoma

8.

What type of soft tissue injury is caused by a force that is transmitted from the body's exterior to its internal structures?

a)

Crush Injury

b)

Contusion

c)

Hematoma

9.

What does a bruise (contusion) on the abdomen indicate?

a)

Possible femur fracture

b)

Possible injury to the lungs

c)

Possible failure of the heart

d)

Possible injury to underlying organs

10.

You arrived on scene to find a patient with an injury on his forearm with the skin interrupted and broken, exposing the tissues underneath. What is this injury called?

a)

Blast Injury

b)

Open Wound

c)

Closed Wound

d)

Crush Injury

11.

You were outside and saw a toddler fall and scrape her knee. What type of soft tissue injury is this called?

a)

Avulsion

b)

Abrasion

c)

Contusion

d)

Puncture

12.

Your friend was making a fruit salad and accidentally cut his palm with the knife. What kind of injury did he just incur?

a)

Penetration

b)

Abrasion

c)

Laceration

d)

Contusion

13.

You are dispatched to a MVA scene where you find a patient lying supine with a metal rod sticking out of her stomach. What type of injury is this called?

a)

Laceration

b)

Puncture

c)

Closed Injury

d)

Hematoma

14.

What is a perforating puncture wound?

a)

An injury that has both an entrance and exit wound.

b)

Another name for penetrating puncture wound.

c)

A wound that has several holes into the body near each other.

d)

A laceration with redness around it.

15.

Which of the following injuries describes an avulsion?

a)

A finger that has been cut off.

b)

A bruise on the chest.

c)

A nail sticking out of a patient's foot.

d)

An eye pulled from its socket.

16.

You arrive on scene to a patient who was cleaning his lawn mower and cut his thumb off completely. What type of injury is this?

a)

Avulsion

b)

Blast Injury

c)

Amputation

d)

Hematoma

17.

Which of the following describes an open crush injury?

a)

When an extremity is caught between heavy machinery.

b)

When a flap of skin is torn loose.

c)

When the knee is skinned.

d)

When a knife is inserted into the abdomen.

18.

In general, when assessing a patient with an open wound, which of the following is performed first?

a)

Vitals

b)

Expose the wound

c)

OPQRST

d)

ABC's

19.

When a patient has an open wound, you must pick embedded particles and debris from the wound after exposing it. True or False?

a)

True - it causes less damage by preventing infection!

b)

False - do not pick small particles, only large pieces of foreign matter from the surface!

c)

I don't know lol

20.

Which of the following would be an acceptable form of treating abrasions and lacerations?

a)

If there is bleeding, place gauze over the wound and apply pressure.

b)

Pull apart the edges of the laceration in an effort to see into the wound.

c)

If it is a minor injury, just let it heal itself.

d)

Place a band-aid over the wound and leave the patient.

21.

A patient has a impaled object of a thin smooth material that is going through his liver. Caring for this patient's trauma wound includes which of the following?

a)

Pull the object out of the patient's body.

b)

Place several layers of gauze and apply pressure over both the wound and the object.

c)

Gently cutting away clothing around wound to expose it and not disturbing the object.

d)

Sterilize the wound with alcohol.

22.

When a patient has an impaled object in one eye, why is it important to dress and bandage the uninjured eye as well?

a)

Because there may be underlying injuries not visible to the eye.

b)

To prevent the patient from seeing her blood.

c)

To help reduce sympathetic eye movements.

d)

Because there may be nerve damage to other eye.

23.

Which of the following is NOT an acceptable treatment for an avulsion?

a)

Clean the wound surface.

b)

Pull the rest of the flap of skin off and wrap it separately to transport with the patient.

c)

Fold the skin back to its normal position as gently as possible.

d)

Control bleeding and dress the wound using bulky pressure dressings.

24.

Which of the following is NOT an acceptable treatment for amputations?

a)

Immerse the amputated body part in water, then place it directly on ice.

b)

Take steps to control hemorrhaging quickly.

c)

Apply direct pressure over the wound.

d)

Place the amputated body part on a sterile saline-soaked gauze over some ice.

25.

Agents and sources of burns can include all of the following except...?

a)

Thermal

b)

Chemical

c)

Atmospheric air

d)

Radiological

26.

There are 3 ways to classify and evaluate burns. Select which is NOT included in classifying and evaluating burns.

a)

By depth

b)

By duration of exposure

c)

By severity

d)

By agent and source

27.

Which of the following is considered to be a source of an electrical burn?

a)

Flames

b)

Radiation

c)

Lightning

d)

Acidic liquids

28.

Which of the following types of burns involves only the epidermis layer of the skin?

a)

Superficial burns

b)

Partial thickness burns

c)

Full thickness burns

29.

Which of the following types of burns are characterized by blisters on the skin?

a)

Superficial burns

b)

Partial thickness burns

c)

Full thickness burns

30.

Which of the following types of burns are characterized by charring of the skin?

a)

Superficial burns

b)

Partial thickness burns

c)

Full thickness burns

31.

Which of the following types of burns involves all layers of the skin being damaged/burned?

a)

Superficial burns

b)

Partial thickness burns

c)

Full thickness burns

d)

All the above.

32.

When determining the severity of burns, there are a few factors to consider. Which of the following is NOT included in these factors?

a)

Gender of the patient.

b)

Body regions burned.

c)

Age of the patient.

d)

Extent of the burn.

33.

There are 3 classifications of burn severity. Which of the following is NOT one of these classifications?

a)

Minor burns.

b)

Partial burns.

c)

Moderate burns.

d)

Critical burns.

34.

A worker in a chemical lab facility spilled some acidic liquid on his legs and feet. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable treatment or care for the patient?

a)

Prevent infection by leaving patient's clothing on so he is not exposed to air particles.

b)

Wash away the chemical agent with flowing water.

c)

Apply a sterile dressing or burn sheet.

d)

Treat the patient for possible shock.

35.

You are dispatched to a patient in a warehouse lying in a prone position with wires in his hands. What signs/symptoms would you look for to determine if he was involved in an electrical accident?

a)

Disrupted nerve pathways, entry/exit burns,

and paralysis.

b)

Charred skin and bleeding.

c)

Blisters, redness on his skin, and vomiting.

d)

Visual difficulties, seizures, and diarrhea.

36.

Which of the following is define by any material used to cover a wound that helps control bleeding & prevent additional contamination?

a)

A bandage

b)

A dressing

c)

A triangular bandage

d)

An occlusive dressing

37.

Which of the following is defined by any material used to hold a dressing in place?

a)

A bulky dressing

b)

Sterile gauze

c)

A bandage

d)

All the above.

38.

A patient has a fracture of two or more adjacent rubs in two or more places that allows for free movement of the fractured segment. What is this injury called?

a)

Open chest wound

b)

Blunt force trauma to the ribs

c)

Flail chest

d)

A sucking chest wound

39.

A patient is lying semi-fowlers against a tree when you arrive on scene. You find a bullet hole on his left middle rib cage that has openly exposed the chest cavity to the atmosphere. Which type of dressing should you use on this injury?

a)

A pressure dressing

b)

A universal dressing

c)

An occlusive dressing

d)

A bulky dressing

40.

Which of the following are common signs of a pneumothorax?

a)

Uneven chest wall movement

b)

Distended neck veins

c)

Bulging eyes

d)

All of these.

41.

Which of the following is NOT a common sign of aortic injury or dissection?

a)

Tearing chest pain radiating to the back.

b)

Differences in HR and BP from patient's left and right extremities.

c)

Cardiac arrest

d)

Headache

42.

Which of the following is defined by an intestine or other internal organ protruding through a wound in the abdomen?

a)

Evisceration.

b)

Parietal trauma.

c)

An epithelial bulging wound.

d)

Visceral trauma.

43.

What type of injury should be suspected when the patient presents with 'racoon eyes'?

a)

A mandibular fracture

b)

Epitaxis

c)

A rupture of tympanic membranes

d)

A skull injury or fracture

44.

Select the safest method for handling a patient with an impaled object in the thigh.

a)

Stabilize the impaled object with bulky dressing, do not remove the object.

b)

If patient is stable, hold pressure w/ sterile gauze, carefully remove the object, & apply pressure dressing.

c)

Only remove impaled objects that are in the mouth.

d)

Hold pressure around site w/ sterile gauze, carefully remove the object & apply an occlusive dressing.

45.

Which of the following is defined by a connective tissue that covers the outside of the bone end (epiphysis) and acts as a surface for articulation?

a)

Cartilage

b)

Tendons

c)

Ligaments

d)

All of these.

46.

Which of the following is defined by bands of connective tissue that bind muscles to bones?

a)

Cartilage

b)

Tendons

c)

Ligaments

d)

All of these.

47.

Which of the following is defined by connective tissues that support joints by attaching the bone ends and allowing for a stable range of motion?

a)

Cartilage

b)

Tendons

c)

Ligaments

d)

All of these.

48.

During the physical assessment of a patient with chest injuries, you palpate the chest and feel crepitus. What does this indicate?

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Bones grinding together

c)

Subcutaneous emphysema

d)

Pneumothorax

49.

What is the best technique or device to use if extremity bleeding does not stop with pressure?

a)

A tourniquet.

b)

Limb elevation with pressure dressing.

c)

A tourniquet with limb elevation.

d)

An occlusive dressing over a pressure dressing with limb elevation.

50.

Which is a comminuted fracture?

a)

A fracture in which the bones is broken in several places.

b)

An incomplete fracture.

c)

A fracture in which the broken bone segments are at an angle to each other.

d)

The disruption or "coming apart" of a joint.

51.

What is a greenstick fracture?

a)

A fracture in which the broken bone segments are at an angle to each other.

b)

An incomplete fracture of the bone.

c)

A fracture in which the broken bone segments are overlapping each other.

d)

The stretching and tearing of a ligament.

52.

Which term(s) is defined by a fracture in which the broken bone segments are at an angle to each other?

a)

A twisted fracture

b)

An angulated fracture

c)

A rotated fracture

d)

An indirect fracture

53.

What device or technique is appropriate to use for MOST fractures?

a)

A tourniquet

b)

A triangular bandage

c)

A traction splint

d)

A roller bandage

54.

Which of the following is MOST commonly associated with joint injuries, or the stretching and tearing of ligaments?

a)

Sprain

b)

Angulated fracture

c)

Strain

d)

Rotational force injury

55.

Which of the following is associated with a muscle injury that is caused by overstretching or overexertion of the muscle?

a)

Compartment syndrome

b)

Sprain

c)

Dislocation

d)

Strain

56.

Which of the following is defined by an injury caused when tissues such as blood vessels and nerves are constricted within a space as from swelling or from a tight dressing or cast?

a)

Periosteum injury

b)

Compartment syndrome

c)

Comminuted fracture

d)

Muscle tension

57.

Which of the following is NOT a common sign/symptom of a musculoskeletal injuries?

a)

Deformity or angulation

b)

Ecchymosis

c)

Nerve and blood-vessel compromise

d)

Difficulty breathing

58.

How do you MOST effectively splint an extremity fracture?

a)

You must immobilize the adjacent joints and bone ends.

b)

You must immobile the entire extremity.

c)

Extremity fractures usually don't require splints.

d)

You must always apply a tourniquet above the fracture first.

59.

Which of the following is not an appropriate patient care method for musculoskeletal injuries?

a)

Take and maintain appropriate Standard Precaution.

b)

During the secondary assessment, apply a cervical collar if if a spine injury is suspected.

c)

Address life-threatening conditions or fractures first.

d)

Apply a tourniquet for every fracture.

60.

When caring for a broken/injured finger, what is one procedure you must NOT do?

a)

Tape it to an adjacent uninjured finger.

b)

Splint it with a tongue depressor.

c)

Wrap it with soft bandages.

d)

"Pop" the dislocated finger back into place.