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DH22 Exam 4

Total questions: 57

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which gland secretes hormones into the bloodstream that help regulate mood, growth, metabolism and reproduction?

(a)  

2.

The adrenal cortex manufactures three classes of adrenal steroids. They are all derived from cholesterol and share a common molecular nucleus. Which of the three is a sex hormone?

a)

Aldosterone

b)

Cortisol

c)

Androgens

d)

Mineralocorticoid

3.

The adrenal cortex manufactures three classes of adrenal steroids. Which of the three regulates physiologic levels of sodium and potassium and is relatively independent of pituitary gland feedback?

a)

Aldosterone

b)

Cortisol

c)

Androgens

d)

Mineralocorticoid

e)

Glucocorticoid

4.

The adrenal cortex manufactures three classes of adrenal steroids. Which of the following is the primary glucocorticoid responsible regulation of carbs, fat, and protein metabolism, maintenance of vascular reactivity, inhibition of inflammation, maintenance of homeostasis during stress, and insulin antagonist?

a)

Aldosterone

b)

Cortisol

c)

Androgens

d)

Mineralocorticoid

5.

What gland secretes hormones that specifically regulates temperature, weight, energy, and metabolism?

(a)  

6.

The following hormones are secreted by the thyroid gland EXCEPT

a)

thyroxine (T4)

b)

calcitonin 

c)

triiodothyronine (T3) 

d)

Cortisol

7.

What triggers the pituitary to produce more thyroid hormones?

a)

Low amounts of thyroid hormones

b)

High amounts of thyroid hormones

c)

Hyperthyroidism

d)

Hypothyroidism

8.

Which of the following is a life-threatening condition which occurs most frequently in patients with severe thyrotoxicosis (like Graves Disease) often precipitated by severe illness, infection, or major surgery?

a)

thyroid storm

b)

Thyrotoxic crisis

c)

Hypothyroidism

d)

Hyperthyroidism

9.

(a)   is a classic feature of graves disease. 

10.

What are the classic signs of hypothyroidism?

a)

bradycardia

b)

dry skin

c)

forgetfulness

d)

low metabolism / weight gain

e)

High metabolism / weight loss

11.

Graves disease is associated with hyperthyroidism which is an over production of and secretion of thyroid hormone. Hashimoto is the cause of hypothyroidism which results from decreased secretion of hypothyroidism.

a)

Both are true

b)

Both are false

c)

First is true, second is false

d)

First is false, second is true

12.

The main function of the (a)   is to digest food and regulate blood glucose levels

13.

What hormones do the pancreas produce?

(a)  

14.

Insulin is produced when blood glucose levels __a__. Insulin allows the liver and the muscles to store sugar, as well as keep the liver from producing more sugar (t/f).

a)

a. rise

b)

a. drop

c)

True

d)

False

15.

What are the most common signs/symptoms that would lead one to consider a type I diabetes diagnosis?

a)

Dyspnea

b)

Polydipsia

c)

Polyphagia

d)

Polyuria

16.

A patient is feeling sweaty, shaky and anxious. You check their medical history and see that they are a type 1 diabetic. What medical emergency is the patient experiencing?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Insulin shock

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Diabetic coma

17.

Whilst doing an E&I check on a patient, you notice they have a dry mouth and strange fruity acetone breath, and the patient kept asking for water. You check their medical history and see that they are diabetic. What medical emergency is the patient experiencing?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Insulin shock

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Diabetic coma

18.

Primary adrenal insufficiency is known as __a__ is the progressive destruction of the adrenal cortex thus leading to insufficient production of __b__.

a)

a. Hypothalamic-pituitary disease

b)

a. Addison's disease

c)

b. cortical and aldosterone hormones

d)

b. ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)

19.

Secondary adrenal insufficiency results from __a__ and administration of exogenous corticosteroids where the feedback system senses elevated plasma steroid levels and inhibits __b__.

a)

a. Hypothalamic-pituitary disease

b)

a. Addison's disease

c)

b. cortical and aldosterone hormones

d)

b. ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)

20.

(a)   is caused as excess amount of glucocorticoid (endogenous or exogenous). Signs and symptoms include round or moon shaped faces, and Buffalo hump on the back.

21.

What treatment/meds usually given to patients with peptic ulcer disease?

HINT: It's the most effective anti-Helicobacter therapy.

a)

Pepto-Bismol

b)

Tetracycline

c)

Metronidazole

d)

Aspirin

e)

Corticosteroids

22.

All the following oral complications or manifestations might be seen with these patients with gastrointestinal disease EXCEPT?

a)

Gingival hyperplasia

b)

Candidiasis

c)

Median rhomboid glossitis

d)

longer lasting anesthesia due to antacid meds

23.

Inflammatory Bowel Disease:

Ulcerative Colitis is a __a__ disease limited to the __b__

a)

a. mucosal

b)

b. large intestine and rectum

c)

a. transmural process

d)

b. terminal ileum

24.

Inflammatory Bowel Disease:

Crohn's Disease is a __a__ process that may produce ulceration along any point of the alimentary canal from the mouth to the anus, but most commonly involves the __b__

a)

a. mucosal

b)

b. large intestine and rectum

c)

a. transmural

d)

b. terminal ileum

25.

What oral changes or ulcerations are likely to be caused by Ulcerative Colitis? They generally erupt during GI flareup.

a)

aphthous-like lesions

b)

Cobblestone appearance of mucosa

c)

Atypical mucosal ulcerations

d)

Diffuse swelling of lips and cheeks

26.

What oral changes or ulcerations are likely to be caused by Crohn's Disease?

a)

aphthous-like lesions

b)

Cobblestone appearance of mucosa

c)

Atypical mucosal ulcerations

d)

Diffuse swelling of lips and cheeks

27.

Alcoholic Liver Disease of the liver caused by chronic damage to its cells. The last phase of liver disease is cirrhosis which is reversible.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

First is true, second is false

d)

First is false, second is true

28.

Signs and symptoms of Alcoholic Liver Disease include:

a)

Jaundice

b)

Parotid gland enlargement

c)

Spider angiomas

d)

Esophageal varices

29.

Which type of Viral Hepatitis is most likely encountered through needle stick injury?

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Hepatitis A

c)

Hepatitis C

d)

Non infectious hepatitis

30.

Which type of Viral Hepatitis is non-carrier, food contamination; easily treated?

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Hepatitis A

c)

Hepatitis C

d)

Non infectious hepatitis

31.

Which type of Viral Hepatitis has carrier status possible; all body fluids transmission?

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Hepatitis A

c)

Hepatitis C

d)

Non infectious hepatitis

32.

Which type of Viral Hepatitis has carrier status possible; blood to blood transmission; no cure?

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Hepatitis A

c)

Hepatitis C

d)

Non infectious hepatitis

33.

Which type of Viral Hepatitis is caused by excessive or prolonged use of toxic substances?

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Hepatitis A

c)

Hepatitis C

d)

Non infectious hepatitis

e)

Infectious hepatitis

34.

Which type of Viral Hepatitis is caused viral conditions such as infectious mononucleosis, secondary syphilis, and TB?

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Hepatitis A

c)

Hepatitis C

d)

Non infectious hepatitis

e)

Infectious hepatitis

35.

Chronic Active Hepatitis is seen in patients infected with

a)

Hep B

b)

Hep C

c)

Hep D

d)

HBV

e)

HCV

36.

Viral hepatitis

Carrier state can occur in patients infected with

a)

Hep B

b)

Hep C

c)

Hep D

d)

HBV

e)

HCV

37.

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary disease most important etiologic factor is __a__. Nitrous oxide sedation __b__ recommended.

a)

a. cigarette smoking

b)

a. pollution

c)

b. IS NOT

d)

b. IS

38.

For Asthmatic patients, Nitrous oxide sedation __a__ recommended for

a)

b. well controlled asthmatics only

b)

b. anxious pts to avoid acute asthmatic attack

c)

a. IS NOT

d)

a. IS

39.

Insulin dependent, the pancreas produces little to no insulin

a)

Type 1 diabetes

b)

Type 2 diabetes

c)

Gestational diabetes

40.

Insulin resistant, the body forgets how to use it. Can be controlled by diet and exercise

a)

Type 1 diabetes

b)

Type 2 diabetes

c)

Gestational diabetes

41.

Diagnosis of Diabetes:

Fasting blood glucose level ___ or greater on at least 2 occasions must not eat for at least 8 hours

a)

126mg/dl

b)

200mg/dl

c)

6.5

d)

160-199mg/dl

42.

Diagnosis of Diabetes:

Postprandial blood glucose wait 2 hours and levels need to be at or above __a__. __b__ is ideal.

a)

a. 126mg/dl

b)

a. 200mg/dl

c)

b. 6.5

d)

b. 160-199mg/dl

43.

Diabetes diagnosis:

A HbA1c reading of (a)   or greater would signify a diagnosis of diabetes.

44.

A HbA1c glucose reading is a reading for the average blood glucose levels over a period of time (can be up to 12 weeks). The one-time blood stick glucose reading can be done anywhere and at anytime and will tell you exactly what is happening in the moment

a)

Both are true

b)

Both are false

c)

First is true, second is false

d)

First is false, second is true

45.

For patients who have had radiation treatment for oral cancer, frequent recalls are recommended, as ___ tends to build up easier in immunosuppressed patients. They are ____ and should be educated on the importance of meticulous oral hygiene habits at home.

(a)  

46.

Which is allergic reaction is related to humoral immune system (response to antigens via circulatory antibodies)?

a)

Type I

b)

Type IV

47.

Which allergic reaction is mediated by lymphocytes (cell mediated) and NOT by

antibodies?

a)

Type I

b)

Type IV

48.

Chronic bronchitis tend to be sedentary, overweight, cyanotic, edematous, and

breathless, productive cough leading to the term (a)  

49.

Patients with emphysema exhibit severe exertional dyspnea with a minimal

nonproductive cough and are termed (a)   . They become barrel-chested and lose weight as the disease processes.

50.

Which of the following is the causative agent (bacterium) of ulcers?

a)

Helicobacterium Pylori 

b)

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

c)

Clostridium Difficle 

51.

Which of the following is the causative agent (bacterium) of TB?

a)

Helicobacterium Pylori 

b)

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

c)

Clostridium Difficle 

52.

Which of the following is the causative agent (bacterium) of Pseudomembranous Colitis?

a)

Helicobacterium Pylori 

b)

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

c)

Clostridium Difficle 

53.

A patient with what condition should there be no vasoconstrictor since vessels are already constricted and blood flow is poor and clotting is more common?

a)

Sickle Cell Anemia

b)

Hyperthyroidism

c)

Gastric disease patients on antacids

54.

A patient with what condition is highly sensitive to epinephrine because the amines can cause a hyperthyroid crisis that can be fatal?

a)

Sickle Cell Anemia

b)

Hyperthyroidism

c)

Gastric disease patients on antacids

55.

A patient with what condition inhibits the drug metabolism in the liver so local anesth. lasts longer - need to use less since it stays in the body longer?

a)

Sickle Cell Anemia

b)

Hyperthyroidism

c)

Gastric disease patients on antacids

56.

What condition is a deficiency that occurs in utero or shortly after birth? This condition leads to abnormalities in intellectual and physical development.

a)

Myxedema

b)

Cretinism

57.

What condition is a severe form of hypothyroidism which causes a nonpitting edema associated with accumulation of mucopolysaccharides in skin. This condition affects adolescents and adults.

a)

Myxedema

b)

Cretinism